New Delhi, April 6, 2026: In a significant lateral hiring move reflecting the evolving dynamics of India’s legal services market, JSA Advocates & Solicitors (JSA) has announced the onboarding of senior legal professionals Siddharth Manchanda, Rashi Saraf and Minhaz Lokhandwala, along with their team from CMS IndusLaw. The incoming group comprises 18 associates and one retained partner, Vinit Patwari, further strengthening JSA’s corporate practice capabilities across key markets.

As per the firm’s announcement, Siddharth Manchanda and Minhaz Lokhandwala will join the Mumbai office, while Rashi Saraf will operate from the Bengaluru office, indicating a calibrated expansion across two of India’s most significant commercial hubs. The move aligns with JSA’s broader strategy of deepening its presence in high-value transactional work and enhancing sectoral expertise.

Commenting on the development, Vivek K. Chandy and Amar Gupta, Joint Managing Partners at JSA Advocates & Solicitors, expressed confidence that the addition of Siddharth, Rashi and Minhaz would complement the firm’s already robust corporate practice. They noted that the incoming professionals bring strong client relationships, specialised capabilities and a track record of handling complex mandates, which would provide an added advantage to JSA’s clientele. The leadership also reiterated that the firm continues to pursue a balanced growth model, combining strategic lateral hiring with internal talent development, as evidenced by the recent elevation of seven partners to equity partnership and twenty attorneys to retained partner roles.

Siddharth Manchanda brings over 17 years of experience in venture capital and private equity investments, corporate mergers and acquisitions, corporate debt financing and general corporate advisory. His practice spans both domestic and cross-border mandates across sectors such as e-commerce, telecom, education, banking, events and exhibitions, pharmaceuticals, insurance, services, power, logistics and financial services. Over the years, he has received multiple recognitions, including being named a recommended lawyer by Legal 500 Asia Pacific 2024 for Corporate and M&A, being recognised as a ‘Notable Practitioner’ by IFLR1000 for 2024–2025, and featuring in the Legal500 GC Powerlist for 2022 and 2023. He has also been acknowledged in the RSG Report 2015 and Legally India Rankings 2019.

Rashi Saraf also brings over 17 years of experience and specialises in mergers and acquisitions, private equity and venture capital transactions. Her advisory work includes structuring and regulatory aspects of both cross-border and domestic deals across a wide spectrum of industries, including healthcare, education, ed-tech, real estate, consumer goods, e-commerce, logistics, manufacturing and information technology. Her clientele ranges from startups and promoters to family offices and private equity funds. She has been recognised as a ‘Recommended Lawyer’ by Legal 500 Asia-Pacific 2025 for Private Equity and Investment Funds and was named among India’s Future Legal Leaders for 2025 by India Business Law Journal. She has also been listed as a ‘Rising Star’ in Corporate and M&A by Asian Legal Business India Rising Star 2023.

Minhaz Lokhandwala, with more than 16 years of experience, has extensive expertise in advising on venture capital and private equity transactions, mergers and acquisitions, and joint venture structuring. He has consistently been recognised by leading legal directories such as Legal 500, IFLR1000, ALB India and AsiaLaw. He has been featured among the Top 50 private equity lawyers in India by RSGI (RISE) and was shortlisted as Dealmaker of the Year at the ALB India Law Awards 2025. His practice includes advising on investment structuring, exits, share acquisitions and business transfers across multiple sectors and jurisdictions, with particular strength in healthcare and pharmaceuticals, along with experience in D2C, e-commerce, IT, logistics and manufacturing.

Established in 1991 at the onset of India’s economic liberalisation, JSA Advocates & Solicitors has built a strong reputation as a full-service law firm handling complex and high-stakes legal and commercial matters. The firm operates through specialised practice areas and industry-focused teams and works closely with Indian corporates, Fortune 500 companies, global financial institutions, and government and statutory bodies. With a team of over 700 legal professionals, including more than 180 partners, JSA has a presence across ten offices in seven cities, namely Ahmedabad, Bengaluru, Chennai, Gurugram, Hyderabad, Mumbai and New Delhi.

The latest hiring underscores a broader trend in India’s legal market, where leading firms are investing in talent acquisition to strengthen their corporate and private equity practices amid increasing deal activity and cross-border investments. For JSA, the integration of experienced professionals alongside its meritocratic and transparent work culture is expected to reinforce its position as a top-tier legal services provider in the country.

Get access to the U.P. Assistant Prosecution Officer (APO) Prelims Examination 2026 Solved Paper on Legal Bites. Working through this paper allows aspirants to simulate real exam conditions, improve accuracy, and develop a more effective strategy for tackling both law and general knowledge sections. It also helps in understanding the pattern of questions, identifying important topics, and strengthening conceptual clarity. Regular practice with such papers enhances time management skills, boosts confidence, and ensures a more focused and result-oriented preparation for the examination.

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 U.P. Assistant Prosecution Officer Examination - 2026| Prelims Paper

Part – I: General Knowledge (Questions 1 to 50); 
Part – II: Law (Questions 51 to 150)
Time: 2 Hours
Marks: 150

Part I - General knowledge

1. Who gave the title ‘Ambassador of Hindu-Muslim unity’ to Muhammad Ali Jinnah in India’s freedom struggle?

(a) British Government

(b) Sarojini Naidu

(c) Jawaharlal Nehru

(d) Mahatma Gandhi

2. Consider the following statements with reference to the Human Development Report, 2025:

1. The title of this report is ‘A Matter of Choice: People and Possibilities in the Age of AI’.

2. India has been ranked 133rd in this report.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 2

3. When did India become a member of World Trade Organization?

(a) 1991

(b) 1997

(c) 1995

(d) 2001

4. The capital of the Maukhari rulers was:

(a) Purushpur

(b) Kannauj

(c) Thaneshwar

(d) None of the above

5. Who among the following was not a ruler of the Mauryan dynasty?

(a) Agnimitra

(b) Kunala

(c) Ashoka

(d) Bindusara

6. Who among the following had refused to open fire on peaceful protestors in Peshawar in 1930?

(a) Gopeshwar Singh

(b) Chandra Singh Garhwali

(c) Govindanand

(d) Gopbandhu Chaudhary

7. Which of the following region is known for the native population of aboriginal tribes?

(a) Middle America

(b) Australia

(c) African Sub-Sahara

(d) South Africa

8. ‘NISAR’ of ISRO is a joint satellite mission with which of the following space agency?

(a) JAXA – Japanese

(b) NASA – American

(c) ESA – European

(d) CNES – French

9. Which of the following is an ocean current of the Atlantic Ocean?

(a) Benguela Current

(b) Humboldt Current

(c) Alaska Current

(d) California Current

10. Who is the author of ‘Indian Musalmans’?

(a) W.W. Hunter

(b) Sir Syed Ahmad Khan

(c) Keshav Chandra Sen

(d) Badruddin Tyabji

11. Consider the following statements with reference to the International Booker Prize, 2025:

1. Banu Mushtaq and Deepa Bhandari have won the International Booker Prize, 2025 for ‘Heart Lamp’.

2. ‘Heart Lamp’ is the second short story collection to win the International Booker Prize.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

12. Which organization publishes the ‘Global Gender Gap Index Report’?

(a) World Economic Forum (WEF)

(b) World Health Organization (WHO)

(c) International Labour Organization (ILO)

(d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

13. Which of the following rulers had established diplomatic relations with China?

(a) Samudragupta

(b) Chandragupta Maurya

(c) Ashoka

(d) Harshavardhana

14. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(Local Wind) — (Area)

(a) Harmattan — West Africa

(b) Mistral — South America

(c) Khamsin — North Africa

(d) Zonda — Argentina

15. Consider the following statements with reference to Money Bill:

1. The appropriation of money from the Consolidated Fund of India comes under the Money bill.

2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha will decide whether a bill is a Money bill or not.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

16. Gelatin is mostly used in making ice-creams in order to:

(a) Prevent forming the colloidal sol

(b) Modify the taste

(c) Prevent crystallization and stabilize the mixture

(d) Enrich the fragrance

17. In which sector of the economy is disguised unemployment found?

(a) Hotel and Trade

(b) Mining

(c) Agriculture

(d) Sugar Industry

18. Consider the following statements:

1. Kirsty Coventry is the first woman President of the International Olympic Committee.

2. She is from Zimbabwe.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 1

(d) Both 1 and 2

19. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Chemical)

A. Chloroform

B. Carbon black

C. Formaldehyde

D. Methanol

List II (Use)

i. Preservative for biological specimens

ii. Antifreeze for automobiles

iii. As an anaesthesia

iv. A black pigment in shoe polishes

Codes:

(a) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-i

(b) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

(c) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii

(d) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

20. Under which Act did the appointments in the civil services start being made through competitive examinations?

(a) Act of 1909 A.D.

(b) Act of 1858 A.D.

(c) Act of 1861 A.D.

(d) Act of 1892 A.D.

21. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(Grasslands) — (Place)

(a) Prairies — Hungary

(b) Downs — Australia

(c) Velds — South Africa

(d) Pampas — Argentina

22. Who was the ruler of Devgiri at the time of Alauddin Khilji’s invasion?

(a) Rana Ratan Singh

(b) Pratapruda Dev

(c) Malik Kafur

(d) Ramchandra Dev

23. Consider the following events:

1. The Cripps Mission

2. The August Proposal

3. The Nehru Report

4. The Wavell Plan

The correct chronological order of these events is:

Codes:

(a) 3, 2, 1, 4

(b) 2, 1, 3, 4

(c) 1, 3, 2, 4

(d) 3, 1, 2, 4

24. Which of the following ethnic groups is the largest ethnic group in India?

(a) Dravidians

(b) Indo-Aryans

(c) Austric

(d) Chinese-Tibetans

25. The Laurentian Plateau is located in:

(a) South Africa

(b) New Zealand

(c) Australia

(d) Canada

26. Ukai Dam is located on which river?

(a) Tapi

(b) Sabarmati

(c) Parbati

(d) Narmada

27. Buksa tribe lives in which of the following region?

(a) Dihang Valley

(b) Nilgiri Mountains

(c) Kumaun

(d) Chhotanagpur

28. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Operation)

A. Operation Rising Lion

B. Operation True Promise III

C. Operation Midnight Hammer

D. Operation Sindhu

List II (Country)

i. India

ii. Israel

iii. Iran

iv. USA

Codes:

(a) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

(c) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

(d) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

29. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Methane — Released by paddy fields and livestock

(b) CO₂ — Major contributor to global warming

(c) Water vapour — Not a greenhouse gas

(d) CFCs — Cause both global warming and ozone depletion

30. The collection of Aurangzeb’s letters is famous by which of the following names?

(a) Dastur-ul-Amal

(b) Zakhirat-ul-Khawanin

(c) Rukka’at-e-Alamgiri

(d) Ahkam-i-Alamgiri

31. Isaac Nader clinched the gold medal in the men’s 1500 m race at the 2025 World Athletics Championship by defeating whom?

(a) Cole Hocker

(b) Josh Kerr

(c) Jake Wightman

(d) Jakob Ingebrigtsen

32. Who was given the death penalty for the murder of Curzon Wyllie?

(a) Bhagat Singh

(b) Manmathnath

(c) Madan Lal Dhingra

(d) Udham Singh

33. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Acid)

A. Boric Acid

B. Citric Acid

C. Carbonic Acid

D. Oxalic Acid

List II (Use)

i. Food preservative

ii. Flavoured drink

iii. Ink stain remover

iv. Eye wash

Codes:

(a) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii

(b) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

(c) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

(d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

34. Which of the following is a physical change?

(a) Rusting of iron rod

(b) Glowing of an electric bulb

(c) Milk turning into curd

(d) Burning of coal

35. Which of the following was the first weekly newspaper published in English by any Indian?

(a) Digdarshan

(b) Bengal Gazette

(c) Calcutta Journal

(d) Samachar Darpan

36. Consider the following statements with reference to Public Accounts Committee:

1. It examines the annual report of the Comptroller and Auditor General.

2. The Chairman of the Committee is generally a member of the Lok Sabha.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(c) Only 2

(d) Only 1

37. Which of the following cities are connected by Trans-Siberian Railway?

(a) Vancouver – Sydney

(b) St. Petersburg – Vladivostok

(c) Perth – Kalgoorlie

(d) Victoria – Halifax

38. Which of the following is used as an artificial sweetening agent?

(a) Sodium Benzoate

(b) Aspartame

(c) Sucrose

(d) Tocopherol

39. Which one of the following cities was not recognised under the newly introduced ‘Super Swachh League’ category with population over 10 lakh in the Swachh Bharat Mission 2024–25?

(a) Indore

(b) Surat

(c) Pune

(d) Navi Mumbai

40. What was the head of the mines called in Arthashastra?

(a) Shulkadhyaksha

(b) Pautavadhyaksha

(c) Akaradhyaksha

(d) Sansthadhyaksha

41. Simuka was the founder of which of the following dynasties?

(a) Pandya

(b) Satavahana

(c) Chera

(d) Chola

42. Which of the following Sultanate’s sultans is called a ‘benevolent despot’ ruler?

(a) Balban

(b) Jalaluddin Khilji

(c) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

(d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

43. Which of the following is a biodegradable polymer?

(a) Dacron

(b) Nylon-66

(c) Nylon-6

(d) Nylon-2-Nylon-6

44. Which of the following countries is not a permanent member of the UN Security Council?

(a) France

(b) China

(c) Russia

(d) Germany

45. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

A. Grey Revolution

B. Pink Revolution

C. Silver Revolution

D. Blue Revolution

List II

i. Onion Production

ii. Egg Production

iii. Fertilizers

iv. Fish Production

Codes:

(a) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii

(b) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

(c) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

(d) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

46. Which of the following is the first state in the North-east to sign an MoU with ‘Bhashini’ for multilingual governance?

(a) Mizoram

(b) Meghalaya

(c) Manipur

(d) Tripura

47. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(Part of the Constitution) — (Subject)

(a) Part XVII — Official language

(b) Part XV — Election

(c) Part XVIII — Emergency provisions

(d) Part II — Union

48. Consider the following statements with reference to Rajya Sabha:

1. Rajya Sabha cannot vote on demand for grants.

2. The Rajya Sabha has no power to pass a motion of no confidence against the Council of Ministers.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

49. Which of the following Congress leaders supported the demand for Pakistan?

(a) Jawaharlal Nehru

(b) C. Rajagopalachari

(c) Subhas Chandra Bose

(d) Mahatma Gandhi

50. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

A. DNA

B. RNA

C. Amino acid

D. Vitamin K

List II

i. Deoxyribonucleic acid

ii. Building blocks of proteins

iii. Ribonucleic acid

iv. Phylloquinone

Codes:

(a) A-i, B-iv, C-iii, D-ii

(b) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

(c) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

(d) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv

Part II - Law

51. When does the right of private defence of property not extend to causing death?

(a) Mischief by fire or any explosive substance committed on any building which is used as a human dwelling

(b) Theft, mischief, under such circumstances as may reasonably cause apprehension that grievous hurt will be the consequence

(c) Robbery

(d) House-breaking at any time

52. Consider the various punishments mentioned in Section 4 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 and arrange them in correct order:

i. Forfeiture of property

ii. Community service

iii. Imprisonment

iv. Fine

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) iii, i, iv, ii

(b) ii, iv, iii, i

(c) iii, i, ii, iv

(d) i, ii, iii, iv

53. Ramesh, who is a citizen of India and a resident of Prayagraj, commits a murder in England. He is later found in Jaipur. Where can he be tried and convicted of the murder?

(a) In England

(b) In Delhi

(c) In Jaipur

(d) In Prayagraj

54. U.P. Police Regulations consist of:

(a) 2 parts

(b) 6 parts

(c) 4 parts

(d) 8 parts

55. Under Section 395(3) of BNSS, 2023, when court imposes a sentence of which fine does not form a part, the court may order the accused person to pay compensation which may be:

(a) not more than ten thousand rupees

(b) not less than ten thousand rupees

(c) not more than five thousand rupees

(d) any amount as specified in the order

56. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Section 101 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 defines ‘murder’ through culpable homicide.

Reason (R): Only the four classes of culpable homicide described in Section 101 are murder.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

57. Which one of the following is not included in the expression ‘Court’ under the BSA, 2023?

(a) All persons legally authorised to take evidence

(b) All Judges

(c) All Magistrates

(d) Arbitrator

58. In which of the following Section of the BSA, 2023, may indecent and scandalous questions be forbidden by the court?

(a) Section 152

(b) Section 150

(c) Section 149

(d) Section 154

59. Section 5 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 does not include which one of the following?

(a) Effect

(b) Cause

(c) Conduct

(d) Occasion

60. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

A. Anticipatory Bail

B. Cognizance of offences by Magistrate

C. Language of Courts

D. Security for good behaviour from habitual offenders

List II

i. Section 307, BNSS, 2023

ii. Section 129, BNSS, 2023

iii. Section 482, BNSS, 2023

iv. Section 210, BNSS, 2023

Codes:

(a) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

(b) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii

(c) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

(d) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

61. The idea of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its:

(a) Preamble

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(c) Fundamental Rights

(d) Seventh Schedule

62. In which case has the Supreme Court held that a Polygraph (Lie detector) test shall be conducted with the consent of accused for collecting evidence?

(a) Piara Singh v. State of Punjab, AIR 1977 SC 2274

(b) Gura Singh v. State of Rajasthan (2001) 2 SCC 205

(c) Basant Singh v. Bhagirati, AIR 1966 SC 405

(d) Selvi v. State of Karnataka, AIR 2010 SC 1974

63. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): ‘Falsus in uno, falsus in omnibus’ is not a rule of law, but a rule of caution.

Reason (R): The rule has no application in India because it is not the duty of the court to separate the grain from the chaff.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

64. ‘Voyeurism’ is defined under which Section of the BNS?

(a) Section 77

(b) Section 75

(c) Section 133

(d) Section 76

65. Where in a state, there exists a regular cadre of prosecution officer, how shall the Public Prosecutor be appointed?

(a) Among the persons constituting such cadre

(b) From the panel prepared by District Magistrate in consultation with the Sessions Judge

(c) From the panel prepared by Sessions Judge in consultation with the District Magistrate

(d) From the panel prepared by the District Magistrate

66. Which court may order to execute a bond for keeping the peace on conviction of a person?

I. Session Court

II. Appellate Court

III. Revisional Court

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Only I and II are correct

(b) Only II is correct

(c) Only I is correct

(d) All I, II and III are correct

67. ‘A’ intentionally causes ‘B’s death, partly by illegally omitting to give ‘B’ food, and partly by beating ‘B’. ‘A’ has committed the offence of:

(a) Attempt to murder

(b) Murder

(c) Grievous hurt

(d) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

68. Under which Section of the BNSS, 2023, does the provision for ‘security for keeping the peace on conviction’ exist?

(a) Section 130

(b) Section 128

(c) Section 127

(d) Section 125

69. Which one of the following is not the duty prescribed for the mounted police under U.P. Police Regulations?

(a) Suppressing organized dacoity

(b) Patrolling roads

(c) Suppressing unorganized criminals

(d) Traffic control duty

70. The words ‘Socialist’ and ‘Secular’ were added to the Preamble of Indian Constitution by:

(a) 46th Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(c) 41st Amendment

(d) 44th Amendment

71. The principle laid down in Pakala Narayan Swami’s case relating to the relevancy of a dying declaration was accepted by the Supreme Court of India in which of the following case?

(a) Kaushal Rao v. State of Bombay

(b) Wazir Chand v. State of Haryana

(c) Jayamma v. State of Karnataka

(d) Kusa v. State of Orissa

72. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

A. Court of Session

B. Executive Magistrate

C. Court by which offences are triable

D. Sentences which High Court and Sessions Judges may pass

List II

i. Section 22, BNSS, 2023

ii. Section 8, BNSS, 2023

iii. Section 14, BNSS, 2023

iv. Section 21, BNSS, 2023

Codes:

(a) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

(b) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(c) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

(d) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i

73. In which Section of the BNSS, 2023 is it provided that a male child below the age of fifteen years cannot be called to police station?

(a) Section 179

(b) Section 180

(c) Section 181

(d) Section 178

74. In which of the following Section of the Police Act, 1861 the duties of police officers are prescribed?

(a) Section 21

(b) Section 22

(c) Section 24

(d) Section 23

75. Which of the following is not specifically mentioned as a writ in the Constitution of India?

(a) Mandamus

(b) Injunction

(c) Prohibition

(d) Quo-warranto

76. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

A. Burden of proof

B. On whom burden of proof lies

C. Burden of proof as to particular fact

D. Burden of proving fact especially within knowledge

List II

i. Section 109 of BSA, 2023

ii. Section 106 of BSA, 2023

iii. Section 105 of BSA, 2023

iv. Section 104 of BSA, 2023

Codes:

(a) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii

(b) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

(c) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(d) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

77. If the attached properties to be the proceeds of crime, then by which authority such proceeds of crime shall be distributed by order of court to the persons who are affected by such crime?

(a) District Magistrate

(b) Police officer not below the rank of Inspector

(c) Officer in-charge of Police Station

(d) Sub-Divisional Magistrate

78. Which of the following Section of the Police Act, 1861 provides that ‘police officers to keep diary’?

(a) Section 45

(b) Section 44

(c) Section 43

(d) Section 46

79. Inquiry under the BNSS, 2023 is conducted by:

(a) Magistrate or Court

(b) Magistrate only

(c) Police officer

(d) Sessions Court only

80. Which one of the following provisions of the Constitution is not correctly matched?

(a) Elections – Part XV

(b) The Union Territories – Part VIII

(c) The Union – Part V

(d) The Panchayats – Part IX A

81. Consider the following statements with reference to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:

1. Whoever commits the offence of trafficking shall be punished with rigorous imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than seven years, but which may extend to ten years, and shall also be liable to a fine.

2. The consent of the victim is immaterial in the determination of the offence of trafficking.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Both 1 and 2

(c) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

82. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Marginal note)

A. Cheating by personation

B. Fabricating false evidence

C. Public nuisance

D. Forgery

List II (Section of the BNS)

i. Section 336(1)

ii. Section 270

iii. Section 228

iv. Section 319(1)

Codes:

(a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(b) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii

(c) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

(d) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i

83. ‘In furtherance of common intention’ used in Section 3(5) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, requires:

(a) No pre-arranged plan is necessary

(b) All accused must be present at one place

(c) Common object

(d) Pre-arranged plan

84. Consider the following events and arrange these in correct chronological order as given under the BNS, 2023:

i. Terrorist act

ii. Attempt to commit culpable homicide

iii. Petty organised crime

iv. Organised crime

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) ii, iv, iii, i

(b) ii, iii, i, iv

(c) ii, i, iii, iv

(d) iii, i, ii, iv

85. Which one of the following is not correctly matched according to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

(a) Valuable security – Section 2(31)

(b) Public servant – Section 2(27)

(c) Wrongful gain – Section 2(36)

(d) Punishment – Section 4

86. Which one of the following is the correct option as per police zones established in U.P. State?

(a) Lucknow, Meerut, Sonbhadra, Varanasi

(b) Lucknow, Kanpur Nagar, Varanasi, Agra

(c) Lucknow, Meerut, Moradabad, Bareilly

(d) Lucknow, Bareilly, Saharanpur, Meerut

87. In which of the following case has the Supreme Court reiterated that the summons issued by the Police / investigating agency to an accused for appearance as per Section 35 of the BNSS, 2023 cannot be served electronically?

(a) Badshah Majid Malik v. Directorate of Enforcement

(b) Sunil Dharma Mane v. National Investigation Agency

(c) Satendra Kumar Antil v. C.B.I. & Anr.

(d) Ramesh Chandra Garg v. C.B.I.

88. Which chapter of U.P. Police Regulations contains “Directions for the guidance of police officers in time of famine”?

(a) Chapter XXIX

(b) Chapter XXVII

(c) Chapter XXVI

(d) Chapter XXVIII

89. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): The offence of waging war is sometimes confused with rioting.

Reason (R): An unlawful assembly has a minimum of five members.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

90. The maxim ‘Nemo debet bis vexari pro una et eadem causa’ finds place in which of the following Section of the BNSS, 2023?

(a) Section 338

(b) Section 335

(c) Section 337

(d) None of the above

91. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(a) Official communications – Section 130 of the BSA, 2023

(b) Confidential communications with legal advisers – Section 127 of the BSA, 2023

(c) Professional communications – Section 132 of the BSA, 2023

(d) Communications during marriage – Section 128 of the BSA, 2023

92. Consider the following statements with reference to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023:

The punishments to which offenders are liable under the provisions of this Sanhita are:

1. Imprisonment for life, that is to say, maximum up to twenty years of imprisonment.

2. Rigorous imprisonment, that is, with hard labour.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Only 2

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Only 1

93. Which punishment cannot be given under Section 7 of the Police Act, 1861?

(a) Confinement to quarters for a term not exceeding fifty days

(b) Deprivation of good conduct pay

(c) Removal from any office of distinction or special emolument

(d) Fine to any amount not exceeding one month’s pay

94. Under the BNSS, 2023, who can file an application for Plea Bargaining?

(a) The investigating officer

(b) The accused of the offence

(c) The public prosecutor

(d) The victim of the offence

95. As per Section 1 of Police Act, 1861 the word ‘property’ includes:

(a) Movable property only

(b) Movable property, money or valuable security

(c) Movable property, immovable property, money or valuable security

(d) Movable and immovable property

96. Consider the following events and arrange these in correct chronological order starting from the earliest to the last activities as per the provisions of the Police Act, 1861 and Regulations:

I. Superintendence in the State Government

II. Inspector-General of Police

III. Powers of Inspector-General

IV. Appointment and dismissal, etc. of inferior officers

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) I, II, III, IV

(b) IV, III, II, I

(c) II, III, IV, I

(d) II, III, I, IV

97. Under Section 41 of BNS, 2023, no right of private defence of property is available against the offence of:

(a) Criminal breach of trust

(b) Robbery

(c) Theft

(d) Criminal trespass

98. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Shall Presume – Section 2(1)(d) of BSA, 2023

(b) May Presume – Section 2(1)(h) of BSA, 2023

(c) Conclusive Proof – Section 2(1)(b) of BSA, 2023

(d) Disproved – Section 2(1)(c) of BSA, 2023

99. Section 398 of BNSS, 2023 provides for:

(a) Victim Protection Scheme

(b) Witness Protection Scheme

(c) Both Victim Protection Scheme and Witness Protection Scheme

(d) Neither Victim Protection Scheme nor Witness Protection Scheme

100. In which of the following case the Supreme Court of India has explained the point of difference between relevance of evidence and its admissibility?

(a) Ram Bihari Yadav v. State of Bihar (1994)

(b) Nahar Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1998)

(c) Atul Singh v. State of Uttar Pradesh (2009)

(d) Umedbhai v. State of Gujarat (2001)

101. Given below are two statements, one is labelled Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): Whoever intentionally kidnaps any person from India or from lawful guardianship shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which may extend up to seven years only.

Reason (R): The word ‘lawful guardian’ in Section 137 of the BNS, 2023 includes any person lawfully entrusted with the care or custody of such child or other person.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(b) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(c) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(d) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

102. Which of the following Section of the BNS, 2023 defines ‘terrorist act’?

(a) Section 113

(b) Section 112

(c) Section 115

(d) Section 114

103. Who may give evidence of agreement varying terms of document under Section 102 of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

(a) Representatives in interest of the persons who are parties to a document

(b) Persons who are not parties to a document and representatives in interest of the persons who are parties to a document both

(c) Persons who are not parties to a document

(d) Persons who are parties to a document

104. Who is given protection from arrest under Section 42 of the BNSS, 2023?

(a) President of India

(b) Members of Parliament

(c) Members of Armed Forces

(d) Judicial Officers

105. Consider the following statements with reference to BNSS, 2023:

Every police officer while making an arrest shall:

1. bear an accurate, visible and clear identification of his name.

2. prepare a memorandum of arrest which shall be attested by at least two witnesses.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) Neither 1 nor 2

(b) Both 1 and 2

(c) Only 2

(d) Only 1

106. ‘A’ is accused of a crime. The fact that after the commission of the alleged crime, ‘A’ absconded is relevant. This is relevant under which provision of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023?

(a) Section 5

(b) Section 7

(c) Section 6

(d) Section 8

107. The term ‘gender’ is defined under Section 2(10) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, which includes male, female or transgender. In which Section of the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 is the term ‘transgender’ defined?

(a) Section 2(d)

(b) Section 2(j)

(c) Section 2(k)

(d) Section 2(i)

108. Village Chaukidar under U.P. Police Regulations is responsible to the following for the due performance of his duties:

(a) District Magistrate

(b) Superintendent of Police

(c) Subordinate Sub-inspector

(d) Officer in-charge of Police Station

109. Which one of the following Section of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 says, “When facts not otherwise relevant become relevant”?

(a) Section 8

(b) Section 9

(c) Section 16

(d) Section 18

110. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

(Offence – Section of the BNS, 2023)

(a) Extortion – Section 308(1)

(b) Dacoity – Section 310(1)

(c) Theft – Section 303(1)

(d) Robbery – Section 308(6)

111. In which of the following case did the Supreme Court of India sustain the conviction and death sentence for the offence of murder on the basis of circumstantial evidence only?

(a) Abdul Nassar v. State of Kerala (2025)

(b) Anwar Ali v. State of Himachal Pradesh (2020)

(c) Vaibhav v. State of Maharashtra (2025)

(d) Har Dayal v. State of Uttar Pradesh (1976)

112. With reference to U.P. Police Regulations, match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using codes given the lists:

List I

A. Head constables of armed police

B. Sub-inspectors of armed police

C. Use of force by the police against the crowd

D. Requisition of armed police additional

List II

i. Para 71

ii. Para 66

iii. Para 67

iv. Para 70

Codes:

(a) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

(b) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

(c) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i

(d) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv

113. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R):

Assertion (A): No oath shall be administered to the accused when he is examined under Section 351(1) of the BNSS, 2023.

Reason (R): The accused is not being examined as a witness by the court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

114. Under which Article of the Indian Constitution the Governor can refer a Bill for the approval of the President?

(a) Article 200

(b) Article 201

(c) Article 198

(d) Article 199

115. Up to how many days the time period to complete the committal proceedings from the date of taking cognizance under the BNSS, 2023 can be extended by the Magistrate?

(a) 150 days

(b) 180 days

(c) 90 days

(d) 120 days

116. Which Section of the Police Act, 1861 deals with the ‘constitution of force’?

(a) Section 3

(b) Section 2(a)

(c) Section 1(b)

(d) Section 2

117. Which of the following is included in the word ‘Cattle’ for the purposes of the Police Act, 1861?

(a) Cat

(b) Goat

(c) Monkey

(d) Dog

118. Which one of the following does not find a specific mention as showing state of mind under Section 12 of the BSA, 2023?

(a) Motive

(b) Good faith

(c) Ill-will

(d) Negligence

119. If a man monitors the WhatsApp account of any woman, he commits the offence of:

(a) Stalking

(b) Sexual harassment

(c) Insult to modesty of a woman

(d) Voyeurism

120. When the person in respect of whom the inquiry is made is a child, who shall execute the bond for keeping peace or maintaining good behaviour under BNSS, 2023?

(a) Only by legal guardian

(b) Only by parents of the child

(c) Only by sureties

(d) By both parents of the child and by sureties

121. Which of the following provision of the BNSS, 2023 is not related to Appeals?

(a) Section 89

(b) Section 500

(c) Section 495

(d) Section 496

122. The maxim ‘De minimis non curat lex’ is provided under which Section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

(a) Section 33

(b) Section 34

(c) Section 31

(d) Section 32

123. Which Section of the BSA, 2023 deals with ‘Admissions in civil cases when relevant’?

(a) Section 47

(b) Section 23(2)

(c) Section 138

(d) Section 21

124. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Section 15 — Act of a Judge when acting judicially — BNS, 2023

(b) Section 20 — Act of a child under seven years of age — BNS, 2023

(c) Section 22 — Accident in doing a lawful act — BNS, 2023

(d) Section 21 — Act of a child above seven years and under twelve years of age of immature understanding — BNS, 2023

125. According to the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023, misconduct in a public place by a drunken person is punishable with:

(a) Imprisonment up to twenty-four hours only

(b) Community service only

(c) Both imprisonment up to twenty-four hours and fine up to ten thousand rupees

(d) Fine up to ten thousand rupees only

126. Who chaired the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly?

(a) Dr. Sachchidanand Sinha

(b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(d) Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

127. Which of the following case is not related to the doctrine of ‘mens rea’?

(a) Sweet v. Parsley

(b) Sherras v. De Rutzen

(c) Nathulal v. State of Madhya Pradesh

(d) M.H. Hoskot v. State of Maharashtra

128. Under which of the following Section of the BNSS, 2023 shall the Magistrate dismiss the complaint?

(a) Section 225(3)

(b) Section 225(2)

(c) Section 227(2)

(d) Section 226

129. ‘A’, a police officer, tortures ‘B’ in order to induce ‘B’ to confess that he committed a crime. Under which of the following Section of the BNS is the police officer guilty of an offence?

(a) Section 120(1)

(b) Section 118(2)

(c) Section 117(2)

(d) Section 123

130. The provision of ‘civil aviation personnel to be police force’ was inserted by:

(a) U.P. Act No. 33 of 2001

(b) U.P. Act No. 32 of 2000

(c) U.P. Act No. 32 of 2001

(d) U.P. Act No. 33 of 2000

131. The Bharatiya Nagrik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 is divided into:

(a) Chapter XXXVII, Section 484

(b) Chapter XXXIX, Section 531

(c) Chapter XXXIX, Section 484

(d) Chapter XXXVI, Section 531

132. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I

A. Opinion as to handwriting when relevant

B. Statement of relevant fact by person who is dead or cannot be found

C. Previous good character in criminal cases is relevant

D. Oral admissions as to contents of documents are relevant

List II

i. Section 20 of BSA, 2023

ii. Section 41(1) of BSA, 2023

iii. Section 26 of BSA, 2023

iv. Section 47 of BSA, 2023

Codes:

(a) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

(b) A-iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv

(c) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i

(d) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

133. Match List I with List II and choose the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List I (Subject Matter)

A. Dowry death

B. Act of person of unsound mind

C. Punishment for rape

D. Hurt

List II (Section of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023)

i. Section 22

ii. Section 80

iii. Section 114

iv. Section 64

Codes:

(a) A-iii, B-ii, C-i, D-iv

(b) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii

(c) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii

(d) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

134.  ‘A’, a private doctor running his own clinic, refuses to provide medical treatment to ‘B’, a victim of acid attack. ‘A’ is liable under which one of the following Section of the BNS?

(a) Section 202

(b) Section 201

(c) Section 203

(d) Section 200

135. In which of the following case the Supreme Court affirmed that the fifteen days police custody must be sought within the first forty days for offence punishable up to ten years of imprisonment?

(a) Satendra Kumar Antil v. CBI

(b) Arnab Goswami v. State of Maharashtra

(c) Sushila Agrawal v. NCT

(d) Hyder Ali v. State of Karnataka & Others

136. ‘A’, knowing that her husband ‘B’ has committed murder, knowingly conceals in order to save him from legal punishment. ‘A’ is liable for:

(a) Abetment by aid

(b) Harbouring

(c) Murder by reason of having common intention

(d) No offence

137. Any member of a group or gang, either singly or jointly, selling public examination question papers, commits the offence of:

(a) Petty organised crime

(b) Receiving stolen property

(c) Terrorist act

(d) Organised crime

138. Anything discovered in consequence of information received from accused may be proved under proviso of Section 23(2) of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023. The Supreme Court held presence of two independent witnesses essential at the time of receiving information and discovery of thing on such information in the case of:

(a) State of Rajasthan v. Raja Ram (2023) 8 SCC 180

(b) Subramanya v. State of Karnataka AIR 2022 SC 5110

(c) Chandrapal v. State of Chhattisgarh, AIR 2022 SC 2542

(d) Ramanand alias Nandlal Bharti v. State of U.P., AIR 2022 SC 5273

139. When may the evidence of previous bad character of an accused be relevant in criminal proceedings?

(a) When evidence of good character of accused has been given

(b) When previous bad character relates to offence committed against a child

(c) When previous bad character is highly immoral

(d) When previous bad character relates to economic offence

140. Which one of the following Schedule of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

(a) Tenth Schedule

(b) Fifth Schedule

(c) Second Schedule

(d) Eighth Schedule

141. Which one of the following provision of BSA, 2023 provides that “Where a video recording is simultaneously stored in electronic form and transmitted or broadcast or transferred to another, each of the stored recordings is considered primary evidence”?

(a) Explanation 4 of Section 57

(b) Explanation 6 of Section 57

(c) Explanation 7 of Section 57

(d) Explanation 5 of Section 57

142. In which of the following Section of the Police Act, 1861, the provision for the appointment of special police officer has been provided?

(a) Section 17

(b) Section 20

(c) Section 16

(d) Section 19

143. A person above eighteen years of age takes the risk of death with his own consent. The act causing the death of the above person is:

(a) Murder

(b) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder

(c) Attempt to murder

(d) Grievous hurt

144. In which chapter of BNSS, 2023, the general provisions as to inquiries and trials are provided?

(a) 29

(b) 28

(c) 27

(d) 26

145. ‘Money Bill’ is defined in which Article of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 109

(b) Article 107

(c) Article 110

(d) Article 108

146. ‘A’ threatens ‘Z’ by sending a message through an electronic device that, “Your child is in my possession and will be put to death unless you send me ten lakh rupees.” ‘A’ thus induces ‘Z’ to give him money. ‘A’ has committed which offence under the BNS, 2023?

(a) Extortion

(b) Dacoity

(c) Theft

(d) Robbery

147. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) Bailable offence — Section 2(1)(c) BNSS, 2023

(b) Inquiry — Section 2(1)(k) BNSS, 2023

(c) Cognizable offence — Section 2(1)(d) BNSS, 2023

(d) Investigation — Section 2(1)(l) BNSS, 2023

148. The power of ‘judicial review’ of the Supreme Court of India means the power to:

(a) review its own judgments

(b) examine the constitutionality of the laws

(c) review the functioning of judiciary in the country

(d) undertake periodic review of the Constitution

149. The District Judges are appointed by:

(a) The Chief Minister of the State

(b) The State Public Service Commission

(c) The Chief Justice of High Court

(d) The Governor of the State

150. The period of limitation to file an appeal against conviction by a proclaimed offender under Section 356 of the BNSS, 2023 is:

(a) 3 years

(b) 1 year

(c) 6 months

(d) 2 years

The Delhi High Court, in State (NCT of Delhi) v. Sweety (CRL.A. 1078/2018, decided on 25 March 2026), emphasised the seriousness of abetment in rape offences and the need for proportionate sentencing. The Court underscored that individuals who facilitate or aid the commission of rape are equally culpable and must face stringent punishment.

This order is significant not only for its interpretation of Section 109 read with Section 376 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 (now reflected in Sections 49 and 64 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023), but also for its firm emphasis on victim suffering, deterrence, and principled sentencing. The Court declined to extend leniency and imposed a sentence of ten years’ rigorous imprisonment, underscoring that punishment must be commensurate with the gravity of the offence and its impact on society.

Facts of the Case

The case arose from an appeal filed by the State challenging the acquittal recorded by the trial court. The respondent, Sweety, was accused of playing an active role in facilitating the rape of the victim (PW3).

The incident occurred on 31 August 2013, after the amendments introduced by the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013, which strengthened punishments for sexual offences.

Key factual elements include:

• The convict lured the victim and facilitated her interaction with the perpetrator.
• She remained present during the commission of the offence, thereby actively aiding the crime.
• After the incident, she threatened the victim, contributing to the victim's continued psychological trauma.
• The victim endured prolonged suffering and struggled for justice for over a decade.

The prosecution highlighted that the role of the convict was not passive but active, deliberate, and essential to the commission of the offence.

Additionally, aggravating circumstances were brought to the record:

• The convict had been involved in multiple criminal cases, including serious offences.
• She was even described as a “wanted” accused in another case and in judicial custody in a separate matter.

The defence, on the other hand, sought leniency on humanitarian grounds:

• The convict had undergone a trial for a long period.
• She had a young child (aged about 5 years).
• There was no one to take care of the child as her brother was also in jail.

Order on Sentence 

The Delhi High Court imposed the following sentences:

• 10 years rigorous imprisonment under Section 109 IPC read with Section 376 IPC. (Section 49 read with Section 64 of BNS)
• 5 years rigorous imprisonment under Section 366 IPC (Section 87 BNS).
• 1 year rigorous imprisonment under Section 506 Part II IPC (Section 351 BNS).
• 3 months simple imprisonment under Section 323 IPC [Section 115 (2) BNS].
• All sentences to run concurrently.

The Court also imposed fines and directed:

• ₹50,000 to be paid as compensation to the victim.
• Additional compensation to be considered under Section 357A CrPC (Now Section 396, BNSS) through the Delhi State Legal Services Authority.
  

Important Aspects of Order

1. Abetment of Rape is Equally Grave

The Court made it clear that abetment is not a secondary offence in cases of rape. A person who facilitates the crime shares moral and legal responsibility.

The Court observed that the convict:

• Lured the victim,
• Facilitated the act,
• Remained present,
• Threatened the victim thereafter.

This demonstrated a deep level of involvement, justifying strict punishment.

2. Minimum Sentencing Cannot Be Reduced

The Court relied on precedents such as:

• State of M.P. v. Vikram Das (2019)
• CBI v. Md. Yaseen Wani (2025)
• Parameshwari v. State of Tamil Nadu (2026)

It reiterated a settled principle:

Where a statute prescribes a minimum sentence, courts cannot impose a lesser sentence under any circumstances.

Even factors like:

• Long trial,
• Age,
• Family responsibilities,

cannot override statutory mandates.

3. Sentencing Must Reflect Gravity and Deterrence

The Court emphasised that punishment is not merely punitive but also:

• Deterrent,
• Symbolic of societal condemnation,
• Necessary to maintain public confidence in the justice system.

It held that reducing sentences in serious offences would:

• Undermine justice,
• Send a wrong message,
• Encourage criminal behaviour.

4. Victim-Centric Approach

The Court strongly recognised the suffering of the victim:

“The victim has suffered significant emotional, mental and physical trauma while fighting for justice for more than a decade.”

This acknowledgement highlights:

• The psychological burden of prolonged trials,
• The importance of restorative justice through compensation.

5. Compensation is Not a Substitute for Punishment

The Court clarified an important legal principle:

• Compensation is restitutive,
• Punishment is retributive and deterrent.

Money cannot replace justice:

Crime cannot be “purchased by money,” and compensation cannot substitute imprisonment.

6. Subsequent Criminal Conduct as Aggravating Factor

The Court gave significant weight to the convict’s conduct after the offence:

• Involvement in multiple serious criminal cases,
• Continued criminal behaviour.

This demonstrated:

• Lack of reformation,
• Higher risk to society.

Thus, leniency was held to be inappropriate.

Conclusion

The Delhi High Court’s order in State (NCT of Delhi) v. Sweety stands as a firm reaffirmation of the principle that criminal liability in cases of sexual offences extends beyond the principal perpetrator to those who actively facilitate or enable the crime. By imposing a sentence of ten years’ rigorous imprisonment for abetment of rape, the Court has reinforced the idea that such participation is neither peripheral nor secondary, but constitutes a grave offence warranting strict punishment. 

Importantly, the order reflects a strong victim-centric approach, acknowledging the prolonged emotional, mental, and physical trauma suffered by the victim while pursuing justice for over a decade. The Court’s insistence that compensation cannot substitute punishment underscores a crucial distinction between restorative and retributive justice, emphasising that monetary relief alone cannot address the gravity of such crimes.

Important Link

Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary, and Entrance Exams

In a significant address on constitutional governance and institutional integrity, Justice B. V. Nagarathna emphasized that States are coordinate units under the Indian Constitution and not subordinate to the Centre. She delivered this powerful message while addressing the 1st Dr. Rajendra Prasad Memorial Lecture at Chanakya National Law University, Patna, on April 4, 2026. The lecture, themed “Constitutionalism Beyond Rights: Why Structure Matters”, highlighted the foundational importance of institutional design in ensuring that constitutional guarantees are meaningful and effective.

The law of maintenance under Indian jurisprudence serves as a crucial social welfare mechanism aimed at preventing destitution and ensuring financial security for dependents, particularly wives, children, and parents. Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (now Section 144 of Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023), embodies this principle by imposing a legal obligation on individuals with sufficient means to maintain their dependents.

However, the entitlement to maintenance is not absolute. It is subject to statutory limitations, particularly where the claimant voluntarily withdraws from the marital relationship without just cause. In a significant ruling, the Bombay High Court, Nagpur Bench, reaffirmed this principle in Ratnaprabha Prakash Jawade v. Prakash Dhyanobaji Jawade (2026), holding that a wife who chooses to live separately without sufficient reason is not entitled to maintenance.

Facts of the Case

The marriage between the applicant-wife and the respondent-husband was solemnised in 1985, and the couple had two children, both of whom had attained majority. The wife alleged that throughout the marriage, she was subjected to cruelty, including physical abuse and harassment, allegedly exacerbated by the husband’s alcoholism and extra-marital affairs.

According to her, the husband had neglected and refused to maintain her, forcing her to file an application for maintenance. She also claimed that the husband had received substantial retirement benefits and was drawing a monthly pension, indicating his financial capacity.

On the other hand, the husband denied all allegations and contended that the wife had voluntarily chosen to live separately after his retirement. He argued that he had shifted to his native village, but his wife refused to join him, preferring to remain in an urban government quarter. He further maintained that there was no neglect or refusal on his part.

The Family Court, Yavatmal, dismissed the wife’s application, finding no evidence of neglect or refusal. Aggrieved, the wife filed a revision application before the Bombay High Court.

Issues

1. Whether the wife was entitled to maintenance under Section 125 CrPC (Section 144 BNSS).
2. Whether there was evidence of “neglect” or “refusal” by the husband.
3. Whether the wife had sufficient cause to live separately.
4. Whether the Family Court followed proper procedure in recording evidence.

Legal Framework: Section 125 CrPC (Section 144 BNSS) 

Section 125 CrPC (Section 144 BNSS) provides a summary remedy to ensure maintenance for dependents who are unable to maintain themselves. The provision is preventive rather than punitive and aims to avoid destitution.

The Court reiterated that the foundation of a maintenance claim lies in proving:

• Neglect or refusal by the husband, and
• Inability of the wife to maintain herself

The Court elaborated that:

• “Refusal” implies a denial of obligation after demand.
• “Neglect” refers to omission or failure to maintain, even without a formal demand.

Thus, mere separation does not automatically entitle a wife to maintenance unless it is accompanied by neglect or refusal.

Wife Living Separately: Legal Position

A crucial statutory limitation is found under Section 125(4) CrPC/Section 144(4) BNSS, which disentitles a wife from maintenance if she:

• Lives in adultery, or
• Refuses to live with her husband without a sufficient reason

The Court emphasised that the burden shifts in such cases:

• The husband must first show that the wife is living separately.
• Thereafter, the wife must prove “justifiable grounds” for such separation.

Only if such grounds exist can maintenance be granted.

Analysis of Evidence

The Court closely examined the evidence and found several crucial admissions:

1. The wife admitted that she lived with the husband throughout his service period.
2. There was no prior complaint or evidence of cruelty during the long duration of the marriage.
3. The alleged extra-marital relationship was unsupported by any evidence.
4. The husband had moved to his native village after retirement.
5. The wife chose not to join him, preferring to stay in an urban government quarter.

The Court held that these facts clearly indicated that the wife voluntarily withdrew from the company of the husband, rather than being forced out.

Importantly, the Court noted:

There was no evidence of refusal or neglect, as the husband had maintained the wife throughout the marriage.

Interpretation of “Sufficient Cause”

The Court elaborated that “sufficient cause” for living separately must be determined based on:

• Social context
• Conduct of the husband
• Possibility of dignified cohabitation

Grounds such as cruelty, harassment, or inability to live with dignity may justify separation.

However, in the present case:

• No credible evidence of cruelty was produced
• Allegations remained unsubstantiated
• The wife’s refusal appeared to stem from lifestyle preferences (urban vs rural living)

Thus, the Court concluded that mere unwillingness to live in a village does not constitute sufficient cause.

Offer to Maintain and Its Significance

The Court also discussed the second proviso to Section 125(3) CrPC [Section 144(3) BNSS], which provides that:

• If a husband offers to maintain his wife on the condition that she lives with him,
• And the wife refuses without just cause,
• She may not be entitled to maintenance

The Court clarified that:

• The offer must be bona fide
• The refusal must be assessed based on present circumstances, not past events

In this case, the husband’s conduct and evidence suggested that he was willing to cohabit, but the wife declined.

Procedural Aspect: Family Court Powers

Another important issue was whether the Family Court erred in recording evidence by affidavit.

The Bombay High Court upheld the Family Court’s procedure, relying on:

• Section 10(3) of the Family Courts Act, 1984
• Section 14 (relaxation of evidentiary rules)
• Section 16 (affidavit evidence)

The Court held that:

• Family Courts are not strictly bound by CPC or CrPC procedures.
• They can devise their own procedure to ascertain the truth.
• Affidavit evidence is permissible.

Thus, no procedural illegality was found.

Nature of Maintenance Proceedings

The Court reaffirmed that maintenance proceedings are:

• Quasi-civil in nature, not strictly criminal
• Intended to provide social justice
• Based on equitable considerations

However, despite their beneficial nature, courts must ensure that the remedy is not misused.

Key Findings of the Court

The Bombay High Court dismissed the revision application and upheld the Family Court’s order, holding that:

1. The wife failed to prove neglect or refusal by the husband.
2. She voluntarily chose to live separately.
3. No sufficient cause for separation was established.
4. Allegations of cruelty and extra-marital affairs were unsubstantiated.
5. The Family Court followed a valid procedure.

Conclusion

The Bombay High Court’s decision in Ratnaprabha Prakash Jawade v. Prakash Dhyanobaji Jawade serves as a crucial reminder that maintenance under Section 125 CrPC (Section 144 BNSS) is not an unconditional right. It is contingent upon the existence of neglect or refusal and the absence of unjustified separation.

By denying maintenance to a wife who voluntarily chose to live apart without sufficient cause, the Court has reinforced the principle that legal remedies must be grounded in factual and evidentiary foundations. The judgment strikes a balance between social welfare and judicial prudence, ensuring that the protective shield of maintenance law is not converted into a tool of unjust enrichment.

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