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Q1. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act (Section 116 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) provides for the presumption regarding Legitimacy of a child born within

(A) 240 days after the dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried

(B) 260 days after the dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried

C) 280 days after the dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried

(D) 300 days after the dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried

Q 2. As per section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure, the court may refer the dispute to

(A) Arbitration

(B) Mediation

(C) Lok Adalat

(D) All of the above

Q3. As per section 96 of the Code of Civil Procedure, appeal is not maintainable against decree

(A) which is ex parte in nature

(B) which is consent decree

(C) which is preliminary decree and final decree is yet to be passed

(D) where value of subject matter of suit exceeds Ten thousand Rupees

Q4. Hon'ble Supreme Court in which of the following cases has held that daughter's right to be a coparcener is retroactive?

(A) Shreya Vidyarthi vs. Ashok Vidhyarthi

(B) Vineeta Sharma vs. Rakesh Sharma & Anr.

(C) Vinny Parmvir Parmar vs. Parmvir Parmar

(D) Gurupad vs. Hira Bai

Q5. The requirement of pre-litigation mediation u/s. 12A of the Commercial Courts Act, 2015 is ____________ in nature.

(A) arbitrary

(B) directory

(C) mandatory

(D) None of the above

Q6. A contingent contract to do or not to do anything if an uncertain future event happens:

(A) becomes voidable when the event becomes impossible

(B) remains valid even if the event becomes impossible

(C) is a contract void ab initio

(D) becomes void when the event becomes impossible

Q7. What is the full form of UNESCO?

(A) United Nations Education, Science and Culture Organization

(B) United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization

(C) United Nations Educational, Social and Culture Organization

D) United Nations Economic, Social and Culture Organization

Q8. Under which of the following sections of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, the procedure for execution of a warrant forwarded outside jurisdiction is provided?

(A) Section 78

B) Section 80

(C) Section 81

(D) Section 83

Q9. The principle of Res Judicata applies to:

(A) Suit

(B) Execution proceedings

(C) Bail Application

(D) Both (A) & (B)

Q 10. Which provision of the Indian Evidence Act provides for the admissibility of electronic records?

(A) Section 63

(B) Section 65B

(C) Section 66A

(D) Section 67A

Q 11. "Actus Dei Nemini Facit Injuriam" means:

(A) The crime carries the person

(B) An act of God does injury to no one

(C) A person can not be held responsible for act of another

(D) Impossible act

Q 12. In which of the following mortgages, possession of property is delivered to the mortgagee?

(A) Simple mortgage

(B) Usufructuary mortgage

(C) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds

(D) None of the above

Q 13. Specific relief can be granted for

(A) enforcing individual civil rights

(B) enforcing penal laws

(C) both civil rights and penal laws

(D) neither civil rights nor penal laws

Q 14. Can a minor draw, endorse, deliver and negotiate instruments under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

(A) Yes so as to bind all parties including himself

(B) No

(C) Yes so as to bind all parties except himself

(D) None of the above

Q 15. What does Section 4 of The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005 deal with?

(A) Penalty for domestic violence

(B) Information to Protection Officer and exclusion of liability of informant

(C) Procedure for obtaining protection orders

(D) Powers of the magistrate

Q 16. In a valid contract, what from the following, comes first?

(A) enforceability

(B) acceptance

(C) promise

(D) proposal

Q 17. Police Officer of which of the following rank can enter, search etc. a gaming-house?

(A) Constable

(B) Head Constable

(C) Assistant Sub-Inspector

(D) Sub-Inspector

Q 18. What is meaning of 'lex loci'?

(A) Law of the land

(B) Sovereignty is essential for enacting laws

(C) Law of the forum

(D) Crown has supreme authority

Q 19. What cannot be transferred as per the Transfer of Property Act?

(A) Ownership of immovable property

(B) Ownership of movable property

(C) Mortgage of immovable property

(D) A mere right to sue

Q 20. The Company's profits were low and they were forced to________ staff.

(A) lisp off

(B) lay off

(C) lay on

(D) rely of

Q 21. Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, speaks about ____________

(A) transfer lis pendente lite

(B) fraudulent transfer

(C) part-performance

(D) None of the above

Q 22. Who was the first female judge of the Supreme Court of India?

(A) Sujata Manohar

(B) Fathima Beevi

(C) Ruma Pal

(D) Ranjana Desai

Q 23. What is the penalty for tampering with computer source documents under The Information Technology Act, 2000?

(A) Imprisonment up to 3 years or fine or both

(B) Imprisonment up to 5 years or fine or both

(C) Imprisonment up to 7 years or fine or both

(D) Imprisonment for life

Q 24. Where in a suit for specific performance of a contract, the plaintiff has not claimed compensation in the plaint, the court shall allow him to amend the plaint for including a claim for such compensation:

(A) not after the filing of the written statement

(B) not after the framing of the issues

(C) not after the completion of plaintiff's evidence

(D) at any stage of the proceeding

Q 25. Which of the following is not a void marriage under Hindu Marriage Act?

(A) Either party has a spouse living at the time of the marriage

(B) The parties are within the degrees of prohibited relationship

(C) The parties are sapindas of each other

(D) The bride was below eighteen years of age at the time of marriage

Q 26. Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, a witness may be cross-examined to shake his credit?

A) Section 140

B) Section 142

(C) Section 144

D) Section 146

Q 27. Which section of the Registration of Births and Deaths Act, 1969, deals with the compulsory registration of births and deaths?

(A) Section 8

(B) Section 14

(C) Section 16

(D) Section 21

Q 28. Which section of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 deals with offence of criminal breach of trust?

(A) Section 314

B) Section 315

(C) Section 316

(D) Section 317

Q 29. Which section of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 deals with the General rules of succession in the case of males?

(A) Section-6

(B) Section-7

(C) Section-8

(D) Section-9

Q 30. A transfer of ownership in exchange for a price paid or promised or part-paid and part-promised, is called___________

(A) exchange

(B) lease

(C) part-performance

(D) sale

Q31. Part IV of the Constitution of India provides:

(A) Citizenship

(B) Fundamental Rights

(C) Fundamental Duties

(D) Directive Principles of State Policy

Q 32. Where is the headquarter of NABARD?

(A) New Delhi

(B) Mumbai

(C) Ahmedabad

(D) Chennai

Q 33. A, by putting X in fear of grievous hurt, dishonestly induces X to sign or affix his seal to а blank paper and deliver it to A. X signs and delivers the paper to A. Which offence A has committed

(A) Theft

(B) Extortion

(C) Robbery

(D) Snatching

Q 34. Under The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, who can file complaint of domestic violence?

(A) Only married women

(B) Only unmarried women

(C) Any woman who is in a domestic relationship

(D) Only women with children

Q 35. Under which section of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, can a person be released on probation of good conduct?

(A) Section 3

(B) Section 4

(C) Section 5

(D) Section 6

Q 36. What does Section 15 of The Juvenile Justice Act, 2015, deal with?

(A) Preliminary assessment into heinous offences by Board

(B) Adoption of children

(C) Constitution of Juvenile Justice Board

(D) Child Welfare Committee

Q 37. Which section of The Information Technology Act, 2000, deals with the punishment identity theft?

(A) Section 66B

(B) Section 66C

(C) Section 66D

(D) Section 66E

Q 38. What does Section 18 of The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005, specify?

(A) Power to grant residence orders

(B) Penalty for breaching protection orders

(C) Procedure for counselling

(D) Powers to pass protection orders

Q 39. An agreement in restraint of trade is __________

(A) valid

B) voidable

C) void

(D) unenforceable

Q 40. The government can also present its case ___________ its departmental officers.

(A) with

B) through

(C) by

(D) None of the above

Q 41. Under which section of the Juvenile Justice Act, 2015 is the definition of a "child in conflict with the law" provided?

(A) Section 2(12)

(B) Section 2(13)

(C) Section 2(14)

(D) Section 2(15)

Q 42. If UNDERSTAND is coded as 1234567823, how will START be coded?

(A) 67857

(B) 83243

(C) 56781

(D) 73652

Q 43. What is the punishment for giving false information under Section 217 of the Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

(A) Imprisonment for a term upto 6 months, or fine, or both

(B) Imprisonment for a term upto 1 year, or fine, or both

(C) Imprisonment for a term upto 2 years, or fine, or both

(D) Imprisonment for a term upto 3 years, or fine, or both

Q 44. Which of these is an example of cloud computing service?

(A) Google Drive

(B) Internet Explorer

(C) Notepad

(D) Calculator

Q 45. When substituted service of summons can be claimed?

(A) Defendant is keeping away to avoid service of summons

(B) Summons can not be served in ordinary way

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) None of the above

Q 46. What does Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deal with?

(A) Burden of proof

(B) Relevancy of facts

(C) Interpretation clause

(D) Admissions

Q 47. A woman married under Muslim Law is entitled to obtain a decree for the dissolution of her marriage if the whereabout of her husband have not been known for a period of ____________

(A) 2 years

(B) 3 years

(C) 4 years

(D) 7 years

Q 48. Provision of Closure of Defence and passing of Judgement in case of failure to present written statement within the time permitted or fixed by the Court, is provided in

(A) Order 8 Rule 2 of CPC

(B) Order 8 Rule 8 of CPC

(C) Order 8 Rule 10 of CPC

(D) Order 9 Rule 7 of CPC

Q 49. What does Section 154 of the Code of Criminal Procedure code, 1973 (Section 173 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023) deal with?

(A) Arrest without a warrant

(B) Information relating to commission of a cognizable offence

(C) Power to grant bail

(D) Powers of the magistrate 

Q 50. What does Section 164 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (Section 183 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023) deal with?

(A) Recording of confessions and statements

(B) Arrest without a warrant

(C) Procedure for conducting trials

(D) Bail

Q 51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I

A. Habeas Corpus

B. Mandamus

C. Qua Warranto

D. Certiorari

List-II

1. Violation of natural justice

2. Unlawful arrest and detention

3. Exercise of power without jurisdiction

4. Non-performance of public duty

(A) A-1: B-4 : C-3 : D-2

(B) A-1: B-3: C-4: D-2

(C) A-2: B-3: C-4: D-1

(D) A-2: B-4 : C-3 : D-1

Q 52. Doctrine of adverse possession has been evolved as per mandate of

(A) Section 27 of Limitation Act

(B) Section 29 of Limitation Act

C) Section 53A of Transfer of Property Act

(D) Section 25 of Limitation Act

Q 53. What does Section 136 of the Indian Evidence Act (Section 141 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) deal with?

(A) Judge to decide as to admissibility of evidence

(B) Cross-examination of a witness

(C) Re-examination of a witness

(D) Leading questions

Q 54. Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution of India guarantees freedom of speech and expression to

(A) all citizens of India

(B) all Indians and foreigners

(C) only persons above 21 years of age

(D) only persons who have attained 60 years of age

Q 55. X shoots an arrow targeting the left eye of Y, which hits the right eye of Y, due to which Y loses the vision of his right eye. X has committed an offence punishable under section ________________ of the Indian Penal Code.

(A) 324

(B) 326

(C) 325

(D) 326 A

Q 56. The statement made under Section 161 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (Section 180 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023) before the Police Officer_______________

(A) need not be reduced into writing by the Police Officer

(B) needs to be signed by the person making the statement

(C) need not be signed by the person making the statement

(D) None of the above

Q57. International Court of Justice is located at

(A) The Hague, Netherlands

(B) New York, U.S.A.

(C) Washington D.C., U.S.A.

(D) Geneva, Switzerland

Q 58. The concept of 'abetment' is defined under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code?

(A) Section 107

(B) Section 109

(C) Section 111

(D) Section 113

Q 59. The reserve fund is_______________ in first class securities.

(A) invested

(B) lend

(C) advanced

(D) devoted

Q60. If a cheque is returned with an endorsement "Refer to Drawer" does it attract penal provisions under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

(A) Yes

(B) No

(C) It attracts provisions of Indian Penal Code

(D) None of the above

Q61. The presumption under section 139 of the Negotiable Instruments Act is in favour of _______________

(A) drawer of cheque

(B) drawee of cheque

(C) holder of cheque

(D) None of the above

Q62. Next number in series 4,9,20,43, _______

(A) 90

(B) 96

(C) 85

(D) 95

Q 63. What does Section 167 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (Section 187 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023) deal with?

(A) Bail in non-bailable cases

(B) Power of the police to release on bail

(C) Remand of an accused in police or judicial custody by the magistrate

(D) Execution of a warrant

Q 64. What does Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act (Section 6 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) deal with?

(A) Estoppel

(B) Admission

(C) Confession

(D) Motive, preparation and previous or subsequent conduct

Q 65. Which section of The Information Technology Act, 2000, is declared as ultra vires by the Supreme Court in the judgment of Shreya Singhal V/s. Union of India?

(A) 66

(B) 67

(C) 66-A

(D) 67-A

Q 66. Under which section of The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956, is the definition of "prostitution" provided?

(A) Section 2(f)

(B) Section 2(c)

(C) Section 2(d)

(D) Section 2(e)

Q 67. Under The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958, what is the procedure for releasing an offender on probation?

(A) An offender has to apply for probation

(B) An offender has to serve a minimum sentence before being considered for probation

(C) Court may release the offender on probation after considering the case

(D) None of the above

Q 68. As per the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, the maximum amount of fine imposed by the Court of a Magistrate of the First Class shall not exceed:

(A) Rs. 10000

(B) Rs. 25000

(C) Rs. 50000

(D) Rs. 100000

Q69. Which of these acts define the expression 'penetrative sexual assault'?

(A) Indian Penal Code, 1860

(B) The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956

(C) The Indecent Representation of Woman (Prohibition) Act, 1986

(D) The Protection of Children from Sexual offences Act, 2012

Q 70. No suit under section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 shall be brought after the expiry of ___________ from the date of dispossession.

(A) one month

(B) two months

(C) three months

(D) six months

Q 71. Which of the following sections of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 clearly postulates that the judicial authority before which an action was brought in the matter was competent to refer the parties to arbitration?

(A) Section 6

(B) Section 7

(C) Section 8

(D) Section 9

Q 72. Actionable claim means:

(A) A claim to any debt secured by mortgage of immovable property

(B) A claim to any debt secured by pledge of movable property

(C) A claím to any debt secured by hypothecation of movable property

(D) None of the above

Q 73. The provisions regarding "Interim measures" ordered by Court are found in which of these section of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

(A) Section 16

(B) Section 17

(C) Section 9

(D) Section 34

Q 74. Under what circumstances does provision of Section 27 of the Indian Evidence Act apply?

(A) When the person giving information is an accused and is in police custody.

(B) When the person is neither in police custody nor an accused.

(C) When the person giving information is an accused but not in police custody.

(D) When the person giving information is in police custody but not an accused.

Q 75. Which one of the following is not a Fundamental Right under the Constitution of India?

(A) Right to assemble peacefully

B) Right to property

(C) Right to move freely throughout the country

(D) All of the above

Q 76. Where in the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, any reference is made to a reasonable time, the question what is a reasonable time is ______________

(A) a period of one year

B) a period of six months

(C) a period of 30 days

(D) a question of fact

Q 77. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, can a magistrate issue a search warrant for persons wrongfully confined?

(A) Section 94

(B) Section 95

(C) Section 96

(D) Section 97

Q 78. What does RAM stand for?

(A) Read Access Memory

(B) Random Access Memory

(C) Real Application Memory

(D) Remote Access Memory

Q 79. Section-5 of the Limitation Act does not apply to:

(A) Suits

(B) Appeal

(C) Revision

(D) None of the above

Q 80. Any man who monitors the use by a woman of the internet, e-mail or any other form of electronic communication, commits under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 the offence of

(A) Sexual harassment

(B) Voyeurism

(C) Stalking

(D) None of the above

Q 81. The doctrine of 'double jeopardy' in Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India means

(A) one can be prosecuted several imes for the same offence

(B) no one can be prosecuted and punished more than once for the same offence

(C) no person accused of any offence can be compelled to be a witness against himself

(D) one can be prosecuted more than once but punished only once

Q 82. In the famous case of Keshvananda Bharti v. State of Kerala, the Hon'ble Supreme Court:

(A) held that the Fundamental Rights cannot be amended

(B) upheld the unlimited power of the Parliament to amend the Constitution to any extent.

(C) established the Basic Structure doctrine, limiting the Parliament's power to amend the Constitution.

(D) declared that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution.

Q 83. Under Section 81 of Gujarat Prohibition Act, penalty for abetment is?

(A) Same as for the principle offence

(B) Imprisonment of up to 2 years and fine

(C) Imprisonment of up to 10 years or fine

(D) Imprisonment of up to 5 years or fine

Q 84. Which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with restoration of suit?

(A) Order-6

(B) Order-8

(C) Order-9

(D) Section-148

Q 85. Which one of the following statements does not come under the definition of 'Complaint' under Section 2(d) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 [Section 2(h) of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023]?

(A) Complaint is an oral or a written allegation

(B) It is to be made only to the magistrate

(C) It is related to some person known or unknown who has committed an offence

(D) Police report made after investigation which discloses the commission of a cognizable offence

Q 86. Under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, "business" includes

(A) every trade

(B) profession

(C) occupation

(D) All of the above

Q 87. Agency gets terminated upon death of Principal or Agent except where:

(A) it is an agency coupled with interest

(B) agent is related with the Principal

(C) agent is residing outside India

(D) Both (B) & (C)

Q 88. A lease of immovable property determines ______________

(A) by efflux of time limited thereby

(B) by implied surrender

(C) by forfeiture

(D) All of the above

Q 89. Under Section 25 of the Hindu Marriage Act, any court exercising jurisdiction under the Act may pass order granting permanent alimony in favour of _____________

(A) wife only

(B) husband only

(C) either the husband or the wife

(D) children of parties

Q 90. What does Section 113-B of the Indian Evidence Act (Section 118 of Bhartiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023) deal with?

(A) Presumption as to abetment of suicide

(B) Presumption as to dowry death

(C) Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecutions of rape

(D) Presumption as to absence of consent in certain prosecutions for kidnapping

Q91. What is a blockchain used for?

(A) Digital Transactions

(B) File compression

(C) Running software

(D) Sending emails

Q 92. Synonym of Alleviate

(A) Relieve

(B) Aggravate

(C) Distribute

(D) Congregate

Q 93. Antonym of Destitute

(A) Penurious

(B) Depressed

(C) Indigent

D) Prosperous

Q 94. What is the provision under Section 188 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 (Section 208 of Bhartiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023) for?

(A) Offence committed outside India

(B) Procedure for arrest

(C) Custodial interrogation

(D) All of the above

Q 95. What is the name of portal recently launched by Ministry of Ayush to boost consumer protection and regulation in traditional medicine?

(A) National Health Portal

(B) Ayush Suraksha Portal

(C) Follow My Health Portal

(D) None of the above

Q 96. Which of the following is correctly spelt:

(A) Agreggate

(B) Aggregate

(C) Aggregatte

(D) Agregaet

Q 97. The trial of an offence punishable under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act has to be _______________trial.

(A) Summons

(B) Warrant

(C) Sessions

(D) Summary

Q98. Who is the drawer in the case of a bill of exchange?

(A) The person who makes the bill

(B) The person to whom the bill is made payable

(C) The person who endorses the bill

(D) The person who presents the bill for payment

Q 99. Under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, "henious offences" includes the offences for which the minimum punishment under the Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860) or any other law for the time being in force is _______________

(A) Imprisonment for five years or more

(B) Imprisonment for seven years of more

(C) Capital punishment or imprisonment for life

(D) Imprisonment for ten years or more

Q 100. Under which section of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 is the procedure for the investigation of non-cognizable cases defined?

(A) Section 154

(B) Section 155

(C) Section 156

(D) Section 157

Answer Keys

1) C

2) D

3) B

4) B

5) C

6) D

7) B

8) A

9) D

10) B

11) B

12) B

13) A

14) C

15) B

16) D

17) D

18) A

19) D

20) B

21) A

22) B

23) A

24) D

25) D

26) D

27) A

28) C

29) C

30) D

31) D

32) B

33) B

34) C

35) B

36) A

37) B

38) D

39) C

40) B

41) B

42) A

43) B

44) A

45) C

46) C

47) C

48) C

49) B

50) A

51) D

52) A

53) A

54) A

55) B

56) C

57) A

58) A

59) A

60) A

61) C

62) A

63) C

64) D

65) C

66) A

67) C

68) C

69) D

70) D

71) C

72) D

73) C

74) A

75) B

76) D

77) D

78) B

79) A

80) C

81) B

82) C

83) A

84) C

85) D

86) D

87) A

88) D

89) C

90) B

91) A

92) A

93) D

94) A

95) B

96) B

97) D

98) A

99) B

100) B

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