CLAT UG Mock Practice Questions February 2026

Legal Bites presents the CLAT UG Mock Legal Practice Questions – February 2026, thoughtfully curated to refine your preparation strategy and strengthen your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In preparing this mock test, we have tried to closely follow the CLAT UG 2026 pattern while ensuring coverage of all subjects relevant to the CLAT UG syllabus. The paper is designed to test reading comprehension, critical reasoning, and the ability to apply concepts across passages drawn from law, current affairs, history, economics, and social issues—mirroring the demands of the actual CLAT UG exam. Candidates are advised to attempt the mock in a time-bound manner, evaluate their answers carefully, and use the results to identify strengths, address gaps, and improve overall exam strategy.

SECTION I

I. Mahatma Gandhi developed Satyagraha as a distinctive philosophy and technique of nonviolent resistance that became central to India’s struggle for independence. The word Satyagraha, often translated as “truth-force” or “soul-force,” reflects Gandhi’s belief that adherence to truth (Satya), nonviolence (Ahimsa), and voluntary suffering (Tapasya) could challenge injustice more effectively than violence. Gandhi first experimented with Satyagraha during his stay in South Africa (1893–1914), where he organised peaceful resistance against discriminatory laws imposed on the Indian community. After returning to India in 1915, he transformed Satyagraha into a powerful instrument for confronting colonial exploitation as well as social inequalities.

Gandhi’s initial campaigns in India demonstrated the practical strength of this method. The Champaran Satyagraha (1917) addressed the exploitation of peasants who were compelled to cultivate indigo under oppressive conditions imposed by British planters in Bihar. The Kheda Satyagraha (1918) challenged the colonial administration’s insistence on collecting land revenue despite widespread crop failure in Gujarat. In the same year, Gandhi led the Ahmedabad Mill Workers’ Strike (1918), advocating fair wages and improved working conditions for textile labourers. These early movements established Satyagraha as an effective strategy for peaceful resistance.

In later years, Satyagraha became the guiding principle behind major national movements such as the Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22), the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930–34), and the Quit India Movement (1942). Gandhi maintained that moral strength rooted in truth and nonviolence could ultimately overcome political domination. Rather than relying on physical force, he emphasised ethical persuasion and the willingness to endure suffering in pursuit of justice.

The influence of Satyagraha extended far beyond India. Leaders such as Martin Luther King Jr., Nelson Mandela, and Aung San Suu Kyi drew inspiration from Gandhi’s methods in their own struggles for civil rights and political freedom. For Gandhi, Satyagraha was more than a political strategy; it represented a moral philosophy grounded in integrity, courage, and compassion. Its role in India’s freedom movement remains historic, and its principles continue to inspire peaceful movements for justice and human dignity across the world.

[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Jogannavar Giriyappa Duragappa, "Gandhiji’s Early Satyagraha Movements in India", International Journal of Novel Research and Development, Vol. 10, Issue 2 (2025)]

1. The term “Satyagraha” is best understood as referring to:

A. Armed resistance against colonial rule

B. Passive acceptance of injustice

C. Nonviolent resistance based on truth

D. Political compromise with colonial rulers

Answer: C

2. According to the passage, which of the following principles formed the basis of Satyagraha?

A. Truth, Nonviolence, and Voluntary Suffering

B. Justice, Liberty, and Equality

C. Freedom, Democracy, and Nationalism

D. Discipline, Obedience, and Authority

Answer: A

3. Which of the following movements came last chronologically?

A. Champaran Satyagraha

B. Non-Cooperation Movement

C. Civil Disobedience Movement

D. Quit India Movement

Answer: D

4. Which of the following leaders were influenced by Gandhi’s Satyagraha?

A. Abraham Lincoln

B. Martin Luther King Jr.

C. Winston Churchill

D. Napoleon Bonaparte

Answer: B

5. The Kheda Satyagraha was primarily concerned:

A. Industrial wages

B. Salt tax

C. Land revenue during crop failure

D. Educational reforms

Answer: C

II. The General Assembly designated 22 April as International Mother Earth Day through a resolution adopted in 2009. Since then, the United Nations celebrates this observance through the Harmony with Nature initiative, a platform for global sustainable development that celebrates annually an interactive dialogue on International Mother Earth Day.

But the original roots go back to the 1970s when environmental protection was not yet a priority of the national political agendas.

The UN Conference on the Human Environment 1972 in Stockholm marked the beginning of a global awareness of the interdependence between people, other living species and our planet, as well as the establishment of World Environment Day on 5 June and the UN Environment Programme.

Since then, the global movement rippled across the planet, with the UN helping to push the needle on environmental awareness one major conference at a time.

In 1992, Agenda 21, the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development, and the Statement of principles for the Sustainable Management of Forests were adopted by more than 178 Governments at the Rio de Janeiro Earth Summit, the first major conference in which Sustainable Development was the main issue discussed by member states.

From then on, all efforts to conserve the environment experienced an exponential growth: from the 1994 UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the 2002 follow-up to the Earth Summit, held in Johannesburg, to the declaration of 2008 as the International Year of Planet Earth and the 2015 Paris Agreement on climate change.

More recently, the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and its 17 Goals strikes a greener, cleaner, fairer path forward for all; in December 2022, the world came together and agreed on a biodiversity global plan to sets goals and concrete measures to stop and reverse the loss of nature by 2050; and every year, world leaders and civil society gather to take stock of the UNFCC at a conference of the parties (COP), with COP30 approaching this November 2025.

[Extracted from the United Nations, “International Mother Earth Day"]

6. International Mother Earth Day is observed every year on:

A. 5 June

B. 22 April

C. 10 December

D. 21 March

Answer: B

7. The United Nations celebrates International Mother Earth Day mainly through which initiative?

A. Agenda 21 Programme

B. Paris Climate Programme

C. Harmony with Nature Initiative

D. Green Earth Mission

Answer: C

8. Which observance was established as a result of the 1972 Stockholm Conference?

A. Earth Hour

B. World Environment Day

C. Biodiversity Day

D. Climate Action Day

Answer: B

9. Which of the following best explains the importance of International Mother Earth Day?

A. It celebrates industrial development.

B. It promotes environmental awareness and sustainability.

C. It supports technological progress.

D. It encourages trade cooperation.

Answer: B

10. The first major conference where sustainable development was the primary issue discussed by member states was:

A. Stockholm Conference 1972

B. Johannesburg Summit 2002

C. Rio Earth Summit 1992

D. Kyoto Conference 1997

Answer: C

III. The Arthashastra is a book on how to govern a kingdom or country. It was written by Kautilya, also known as Chanakya (350–275 BCE), an Indian philosopher, administrator, intellectual, and prime minister to Chandragupta, the emperor of the Mauryan Empire. The Sanskrit phrase "The Science of Material Gain" is used to refer to the Arthashastra. It is also referred to as the "Study of Political Economy" or "Study of Politics". Kautilya, also identified as Vishnugupta and Chanakya, is believed to be the author of the text. Kautilya was a scholar at Takshashila, the teacher and guardianof Emperor Chandragupta Maurya. Arthashastra issaid to be composed between the 2nd century BC and the 3rd century BC. The Arthashastra was influential till the 12th century, after which it disappeared. It was rediscovered in 1905 by R. Shamasastry, who published it in the year 1909.The first English translation was published in the year 1915. Kautilya practised several economic, Investment, financial, political, and administrative strategies during the 3rd-4th century BC. Surprisingly, many of his ideas and practices are still followed today. The census, segmentation analysis (both general and demographic), and other statistical tools that we follow today were started by Chanakya.

[Extracted from Purvi Gosar & Harish Purohit, “Relevance of Kautilya’s Arthashastra in Today’s Organisational Governance,” International Journal of Advanced Research in Science, Communication and Technology, Vol. 2, Issue 1 (2022)]

11. The Arthashastra is primarily a book about:

A. Religious philosophy

B. Governance and administration

C. Literature and poetry

D. Military weapons

Answer: B

12. Who is believed to be the author of the Arthashastra?

A. Ashoka

B. Vishnu Sharma

C. Kautilya

D. Kalidasa

Answer: C

13. Kautilya is also known by which of the following names?

A. Ashvaghosha and Kalhana

B. Vishnugupta and Chanakya

C. Patanjali and Panini

D. Bana and Bharavi

Answer: B

14. Kautilya served as the prime minister of:

A. Ashoka

B. Bindusara

C. Chandragupta Maurya

D. Harsha

Answer: C

15. Kautilya was associated with which ancient center of learning?

A. Takshashila

B. Vikramashila

C. Nalanda

D. Ujjain

Answer: A

IV. Empowerment refers to the set of policies, actions, and processes that aim to enhance the autonomy and self-determination of individuals and communities so that they can make independent decisions and represent their interests effectively. It enables people to act with confidence and authority in shaping their own lives. Empowerment involves both self-realisation and institutional or professional support that helps individuals overcome feelings of powerlessness, recognise their abilities, and utilise available opportunities and resources.

It is a multidimensional process that allows women or groups of women to realise their identity, potential, and power in different spheres of life (Surekharao and Rajamanamma, 1999). Women’s empowerment includes improved access to education, information, and economic resources, along with greater participation in decision-making. It provides women with the ability to plan their lives independently, control the circumstances that affect them, and break free from social restrictions imposed by traditions, customs, and patriarchal norms. Development accompanied by social justice is therefore expected to create conditions that promote empowerment and enhance the status of marginalized sections of society, especially women.

Empowerment also develops through collective efforts such as women’s groups that promote self-reliance and mutual support. These groups help women assert their rights, make independent choices, and gain greater access to resources and opportunities. Through collective organisation, women can strengthen their bargaining power and influence social and economic decisions affecting their lives.

In a broader sense, empowerment is a continuous process through which individuals gain control over their lives by raising awareness, taking action, and participating actively in social processes. It generates psychological strength and motivation that encourages individuals to pursue their goals and improve their living conditions (Indiresan, 1999). Although the concept of empowerment does not have a single fixed definition and may vary according to context, it generally refers to enabling individuals to exercise control over their lives and decisions.

In the context of women, empowerment primarily means developing awareness of their rights and social position while gaining the knowledge, skills, and confidence necessary to participate in decision-making processes. In societies dominated by patriarchal values, where women have traditionally been subordinate to men, empowerment plays a crucial role in promoting equality, dignity, and social justice.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Afsana A. Sama, “Women Empowerment: Issues and Challenges,” The International Journal of Indian Psychology, Vol. 4, Issue 3 (2017).]

16. According to the passage, women’s empowerment includes:

A. Limiting women to domestic decision-making

B. Greater access to education, information, and economic resources

C. Eliminating cultural traditions entirely

D. Ensuring women avoid participation in public life

Answer: B

17. According to the passage, empowerment generates:

A. Economic dependency on institutions

B. Psychological strength and motivation

C. Legal control by the government

D. Cultural uniformity among communities

Answer: B

18. According to the passage, empowerment primarily refers to:

A. Increasing autonomy and self-determination of individuals and communities

B. Government welfare schemes for women

C. Providing financial assistance to marginalized groups

D. Creating employment opportunities for rural women

Answer: A

19. Women’s groups contribute to empowerment mainly by:

A. Replacing individual decision-making with collective authority

B. Restricting women’s participation in community activities

C. Preventing women from entering economic activities

D. Promoting self-reliance and improving access to resources

Answer: D

20. The phrase “multidimensional process” in the passage most nearly means:

A. A process affecting only one aspect of life

B. A process limited to political participation

C. A process involving several interconnected aspects of development

D. A process restricted to economic empowerment

Answer: C

V. Life insurance is one of the most preferred financial instruments in India, particularly because it assists in tax planning. However, when advising clients to invest in a life insurance policy, the focus should not merely be on the “tax benefits” it offers but rather on the broader “life benefits” it provides.

A person’s life is his greatest investment, and his family is his most valuable asset. By investing in a life insurance policy, an individual ensures financial security for his loved ones in the event of unforeseen circumstances. Therefore, when advising clients on financial planning, it is important to remember that the objective is not merely investment but safeguarding their lives and the well-being of their families.

The insurance sector in India has undergone significant transformation over time. Initially dominated by private players, the sector was later nationalised and subsequently liberalised again. This evolution reflects a major shift that has taken place over nearly five decades. During the 1940s, more than 220 insurance companies operated in India. In 1956, the Government of India decided to merge these companies, resulting in the nationalisation of 245 Indian and foreign insurers and provident societies.

This process led to the establishment of the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC), which was formed with a capital contribution of ₹5 crore from the Government of India. For several decades thereafter, LIC remained the sole provider of life insurance services in the country.

With economic reforms and the liberalisation of the financial sector, the Government of India decided to open the insurance industry to private participation. Consequently, the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) was established in July 2000 to regulate and promote the sector. The entry of private players introduced greater competition and a wider variety of insurance products. Consumers now enjoy increased choice, and life insurance penetration has gradually expanded across different socio-economic groups, attracting many individuals who had never previously considered purchasing insurance.

Greater awareness and improved customer education have also encouraged people to view life insurance as an essential component of their financial planning. Today, it is increasingly recognised as an integral part of an individual’s financial portfolio, serving not only rational financial objectives but also emotional needs related to the security and protection of one’s family.

[Extracted with edits from Siddhi Bhamore, “A Study on Taxation: A Selling Tool for Life Insurance,” International Journal of Creative Research Thoughts, Vol. 12, Issue 6, June 2024.]

21. According to the passage, how many Indian and foreign insurers and provident societies were taken over by the government during nationalisation?

A. 220

B. 245

C. 200

D. 150

Answer: B

22. The Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDA) was established in:

A. 1956

B. 1991

C. 2000

D. 2010

Answer: C

23. What was the initial capital contribution provided by the Government of India for LIC?

A. ₹5 crore

B. ₹10 crore

C. ₹1 crore

D. ₹25 crore

Answer: A

24. The author concludes that life insurance today is increasingly viewed as:

A. A compulsory financial instrument

B. Only a tax-saving tool

C. A short-term investment option

D. An essential part of a financial portfolio

Answer: D

SECTION II

VI. On May 16, 1952, while addressing the first popularly elected Parliament, India’s first President, Rajendra Prasad, underscored the moment’s historic significance. He also reminded members that this marked only the completion of one stage of India’s journey and the second phase there will be “no resting place for a nation or a people on their onward march.”

It was a reminder that while political independence and constitutional sovereignty had been achieved, the Republic’s work was far from done. The task left before India was “to bring a measure of happiness to our people and a sense of the true brotherhood of man.” This entailed the moral obligation to provide justice, liberty, equality and dignity for all citizens.

By placing moral obligation at the heart of democratic governance, the President reshaped the relationship between the state and its people. India would no longer be a nation of subjects, but a republic of citizens – equal in political voice, bound by the Constitution, and united in their shared aspiration for collective progress.

The Indian republic therefore was born of a conscious constitutional choice that established democracy not merely as a system of governance but as a way of life. The Constitution enshrined the principle of “the people” – its central promise of dignity and equality.

[Extracted from the newspaper, The Times of India, January 26, 2026]

25. According to the passage, Rajendra Prasad’s address to the first popularly elected Parliament in 1952 emphasised that:

A. India had achieved complete social and economic equality

B. Political independence marked the end of India’s national struggle

C. Political independence was only one stage in India’s continuing national journey

D. Democracy in India had already reached its final stage

Answer: C

26. The phrase “no resting place for a nation or a people on their onward march” primarily suggests that:

A. A nation must constantly expand territorially

B. National progress requires continuous effort and reform

C. Independence automatically ensures prosperity

D. Democracy eliminates all social inequalities

Answer: B

27. The term “enshrined” in the passage most nearly means:

A. Protected and formally recognised

B. Ignored

C. Reduced

D. Questioned

Answer: A

28. Which of the following values are emphasised as central promises of the Constitution in the passage?

A. Liberty and fraternity

B. Federalism and secularism

C. Justice and sovereignty

D. Equality and dignity

Answer: D

29. According to the passage, the Indian republic was established as a result of:

A. A colonial administrative decision

B. A conscious constitutional choice

C. International pressure

D. Economic reforms

Answer: B

VII. Weather conditions remained cold as well. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), the minimum temperature at Safdarjung and Ayanagar was recorded at 6.4 degrees Celsius, about 0.4 degrees below the seasonal average. The maximum temperature is expected to hover around 23 degrees Celsius, with dense fog likely to persist through the day.

Other stations reported similar chill, with Palam recording a minimum of 7.7 degrees Celsius, Lodhi Road 6.8 degrees, and the Ridge 7.8 degrees. For New Year’s Day, the IMD has forecast a generally cloudy sky with the possibility of light rain over the national capital.

[Extracted from New Year, Same Air: Delhi Starts 2026 With ‘Very Poor’ AQI at 372, Anand Vihar Worst Hit, The Times of India]

30. According to the India Meteorological Department (IMD), what was the minimum temperature recorded at Safdarjung and Ayanagar?

A. 7.7°C

B. 6.4°C

C. 6.8°C

D. 7.8°C

Answer: B

31. What was the expected maximum temperature for the day?

A. Around 20°C

B. Around 22°C

C. Around 23°C

D. Around 25°C

Answer: C

32. Which of the following weather conditions was likely to persist throughout the day?

A. Heavy rainfall

B. Clear sky

C. Thunderstorm

D. Dense fog

Answer: D

33. What is the IMD forecast for New Year’s Day?

A. Cloudy sky with possibility of light rain

B. Clear sky

C. Heavy rainfall

D. Thunderstorm

Answer: A

34. The phrase “hover around” in the context of temperature implies:

A. Exact measurement

B. Sudden increase

C. Decrease

D. Approximate range

Answer: D

VIII. President Droupadi Murmu today said that India is rapidly progressing towards becoming the world's third-largest economy, and Artificial Intelligence is emerging as a growth driver for the Indian economy. Addressing a special programme under Skilling for AI Readiness, in Rashtrapati Bhawan, she said that AI is not just a technology but an opportunity for positive change in India. She emphasized that AI will play a significant role in the country's GDP, employment, and overall productivity in the coming decade.

The President said, the importance of AI is rapidly growing across various sectors and it has become essential for everyone to learn the technology. During the event, Ms Murmu conferred AI certificates upon learners, including students and Members of Parliament, and launched the national awareness campaign named Skill The Nation Challenge, aimed at fostering economic self-reliance. The President expressed hope that the initiative would empower learners, enhancing their skills, and preparing a future-ready workforce in the country.

The Centre has notified draft rules for the four new Labour Codes. These Labour Codes are - The Code on Wages, 2019, the Industrial Relations Code, 2020, the Code on Social Security, 2020 and the Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code, 2020. The rules define workers, wages, types of employment, gratuity, bonus and social security of workers, including gig workers. These draft rules are open for public consultation, and stakeholders have been invited to submit objections and suggestions within 45 days. The Labour Ministry had announced the implementation of these four new codes on 21st November last year to simplify and streamline the decades-old labour laws in the country. According to the Ministry, the new labour codes will ensure better wages, safety, social security and welfare for the country's workforce.

[Extracted from News on Air, “Evening News Script, 1920 hrs," 1 January 2026]

35. According to the statement of Droupadi Murmu, India is progressing towards becoming:

A. The largest economy in the world

B. The second-largest economy

C. The third-largest economy

D. The fourth-largest economy

Answer: C

36. The programme “Skilling for AI Readiness” was held at:

A. Parliament House

B. Vigyan Bhawan

C. NITI Aayog

D. Rashtrapati Bhavan

Answer: D

37. Artificial Intelligence (AI), as highlighted in the passage, is primarily viewed as:

A. A threat to employment

B. A luxury technology

C. A tool for surveillance

D. A driver of economic growth

Answer: D

38. Which of the following is NOT one of the four Labour Codes mentioned?

A. The Environmental Protection Code, 2020

B. The Industrial Relations Code, 2020

C. The Code on Social Security, 2020

D. The Code on Wages, 2019

Answer: A

39. Who were among the recipients of AI certificates during the programme?

A. Only government officials

B. Students and Members of Parliament

C. Only private sector employees

D. Only teachers

Answer: B

40. The draft rules of the Labour Codes include provisions related to:

A. Foreign trade policies

B. Criminal law reforms

C. Workers’ wages and social security

D. Election procedures

Answer: C

IX. The National Commission for Women (NCW) marked its 34th Foundation Day today at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi, commemorating over three decades of unwavering commitment towards safeguarding, promoting, and advancing the rights and dignity of women across India.

The occasion was graced by the Union Minister of Health and Family Welfare, Shri Jagat Prakash Nadda, as the Chief Guest. Union Minister for Women and Child Development, Smt. Annpurna Devi and Minister of State for Women and Child Development, Smt. Savitri Thakur graced the occasion as Guests of Honour.

Reflecting upon NCW’s journey of 34 years, the Foundation Day programme was organised around the theme “Swasthya hi Sashaktikaran”, reinforcing the idea that women’s health lies at the core of empowerment, social equity, and national development.

Addressing the gathering, Shri Jagat Prakash Nadda underscored the central role of women’s health in nation-building. He stated,

“A healthy woman gives birth to a healthy generation, and a healthy generation is the backbone of a strong, resilient, and prosperous nation.”

He further emphasised that investing in women’s health is not merely a welfare measure, but a strategic imperative for India’s future.

In her address, Smt. Annpurna Devi highlighted the transformative impact of the POSHAN Abhiyaan, noting that focused and sustained interventions in nutrition and healthcare have significantly strengthened the well-being of women and children across the country.

[Excerpts from the Press Information Bureau (PIB), NCW 34th Foundation Day Event Highlights, including POSHAN Abhiyaan and Women’s Health Initiatives, Government of India, 30 January 2026]

41. The National Commission for Women was established under which statute?

A. Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005

B. National Commission for Women Act, 1990

C. Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace Act, 2013

D. Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961

Answer: B

42. The primary function of the National Commission for Women is to:

A. Adjudicate criminal disputes involving women

B. Enforce binding judgments on women-related cases

C. Safeguard and promote the rights of women

D. Conduct elections for women’s reservation

Answer: C

43. The event marking the 34th Foundation Day of NCW was held at:

A. Vigyan Bhawan

B. Rashtrapati Bhavan

C. India International Centre

D. Bharat Mandapam

Answer: D

44. The theme “Swasthya hi Sashaktikaran” primarily emphasizes:

A. Economic independence of women

B. Political participation of women

C. Women’s health as a basis of empowerment

D. Legal literacy among women

Answer: C

45. The POSHAN Abhiyaan is mainly aimed at:

A. Women’s employment generation

B. Nutrition and health improvement of women and children

C. Legal aid for women

D. Rural infrastructure development

Answer: B

46. Which Union Minister attended the NCW Foundation Day as the Chief Guest?

A. Narendra Modi

B. Jagat Prakash Nadda

C. Amit Shah

D. Rajnath Singh

Answer: B

X. A high-level Indian delegation led by the Hon’ble Union Minister of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry and Dairying; & Panchayati Raj Shri Rajiv Ranjan Singh, concluded a successful visit to Israel during 13–15 January 2026 to participate in the Second Global Summit on “Blue Food Security: Sea the Future 2026”, held in Eilat, Israel. The visit marked a significant step in further strengthening bilateral cooperation between India and Israel in the fisheries and aquaculture sector.

Acknowledging the long standing and strategic partnership between India and Israel, shared vision for sustainable development, recognizing the critical role of fisheries and aquaculture for food security, livelihoods, and economic growth in both the nations, and highlighting Israel's advanced technologies and innovations in aquaculture and fisheries, water management and India's vast aquatic resources, both the sides signed on 14th January, 2026 a Joint Ministerial Declaration of Intent to strengthen the cooperation in the field of Fisheries and Aquaculture.

This Joint Declaration sets out a comprehensive framework for cooperation across multiple areas of mutual interest. The key areas of collaboration include joint research and development in advanced aquaculture technologies such as Recirculating Aquaculture Systems (RAS), biofloc, cage culture, aquaponics, and aquarium systems including oceanarium, expertise in breeding high-yield species and pathogen-free seed improvement strategies; and broodstock development. Besides, the cooperation also includes genetic improvement programs, mariculture including seaweed cultivation, and water management in aquaculture through Israeli water-saving technologies. The Declaration emphasizes the exchange and support of start-ups in fisheries and aquaculture and aims to strengthen cooperation in advancing the Blue Economy.

[Excerpts from the Press Information Bureau (PIB), India–Israel Joint Ministerial Declaration on Fisheries and Aquaculture, Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying, Government of India, 15 January 2026]

47. The Indian delegation participated in which global summit during its visit to Israel in January 2026?

A. Blue Economy Leadership Summit 2026

B. Global Fisheries Sustainability Forum 2026

C. Blue Food Security: Sea the Future 2026

D. International Aquaculture Innovation Summit

Answer: C

48. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a focus area under the Joint Declaration?

A. Recirculating Aquaculture Systems (RAS)

B. Biofloc technology

C. Aquaponics

D. Artificial Intelligence in judiciary

Answer: D

49. Which of the following areas is included under mariculture cooperation?

A. Inland fisheries

B. Seaweed cultivation

C. River cleaning

D. Wetland conservation

Answer: B

50. The Joint Declaration emphasizes improvement in which of the following?

1. Genetic quality of aquatic species

2. Pathogen-free seed production

3. Broodstock development

Select the correct answer:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

51. The cooperation framework includes support for which emerging sector?

A. Space technology

B. Start-ups in fisheries and aquaculture

C. Defence manufacturing

D. Cryptocurrency markets

Answer: B

52. Which of the following correctly reflects Israel’s contribution in the collaboration?

A. Advanced aquaculture and water management technologies

B. Large-scale marine biodiversity reserves

C. Traditional fishing practices

D. Labour-intensive fisheries

Answer: A

SECTION III

XI. The Union Cabinet, chaired by the Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved the equity support of Rs.5,000 crore to Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI).

The equity capital of Rs.5000 crore shall be infused into SIDBI by the Department of Financial Services (DFS) in three tranches of Rs.3,000 crore in Financial year 2025-26 at the book value of Rs.568.65/- as on 31.03.2025 and Rs.1,000 crore each in Financial Year 2026-27 and Financial year 2027-28 at the book value as on 31st March of the respective previous financial year.

Post equity capital infusion of Rs.5000 crore, number of MSMEs to be provided financial assistance is expected to increase from 76.26 lakh at the end of Financial Year 2025 to 102 lakhs (approximately 25.74 lakh new MSME beneficiaries will be added) by the end of Financial Year 2028. As per latest data (as on 30.09.2025) available from official website of M/o MSME, 30.16 crore employment is generated by 6.90 crore MSMEs (i.e. employment generation of 4.37 persons per MSME). Considering this average, employment generation is estimated to be 1.12 crore with the expected addition of 25.74 lakh new MSME beneficiaries by the end of Financial Year 2027-28.

With a focus on directed credit and anticipated growth in that portfolio over the next five years, the risk-weighted assets on SIDBI’s balance sheet are expected to rise significantly. This increase will necessitate higher capital to sustain the same level of Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio (CRAR). The digital and digitally-enabled collateral-free credit products being developed by SIDBI, aimed at boosting credit flow, along with the venture debt being offered to start-ups, will further escalate the risk-weighted assets, requiring even more capital to meet healthy CRAR.

[Excerpts from the Press Information Bureau (PIB), Cabinet approves equity support to Small Industries Development Bank of India, 21 January 2026]

53. The Union Cabinet approved equity support of ₹5,000 crore to which institution?

A. NABARD

B. Small Industries Development Bank of India

C. RBI

D. SEBI

Answer: B

54. Which department will infuse the equity capital into SIDBI?

A. Department of Revenue

B. Department of Economic Affairs

C. Department of Financial Services

D. NITI Aayog

Answer: C

55. The first tranche of ₹3,000 crore will be infused in which financial year?

A. 2024–25

B. 2025–26

C. 2026–27

D. 2027–28

Answer: B

56. Approximately how many new MSME beneficiaries are expected to be added by FY 2028?

A. 10 lakh

B. 15 lakh

C. 20 lakh

D. 25.74 lakh

Answer: D

57. CRAR stands for:

A. Capital Ratio and Asset Reserve

B. Capital to Risk Asset Regulation

C. Capital to Risk-weighted Assets Ratio

D. Credit Risk Adjustment Ratio

Answer: C

58. Venture debt offered by SIDBI is primarily aimed at:

A. Farmers

B. Large corporations

C. Start-ups

D. Government agencies

Answer: C

XII. The Constitution of India is the highest legal authority in the country. It is a comprehensive written document that defines the foundational principles of governance, outlines the structure and functions of government institutions, and specifies the rights and duties of citizens.

It was formally adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949 and became operational on 26 January 1950. Originally, it consisted of 395 Articles and 8 Schedules, with a length of approximately 145,000 words, making it the longest written constitution in the world. The drafting process was extensive and rigorous, with every provision debated in detail over 11 sessions and 167 days, spread across nearly three years.

The Preamble serves as the guiding philosophy of the Constitution, declaring India to be a sovereign, socialist, secular, and democratic republic. It guarantees justice, liberty, and equality, while also promoting a sense of fraternity among citizens.

India follows a parliamentary system of government with a federal framework that incorporates certain unitary characteristics. The President acts as the formal head of the Union Executive. Under Article 79, Parliament is composed of the President along with two legislative bodies—the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the Lok Sabha (House of the People).

As per Article 74(1), the President is assisted and advised by a Council of Ministers led by the Prime Minister. In practice, executive authority is exercised by this Council, with the Prime Minister playing a central role.

Notably, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar is recognised as the principal architect of the Indian Constitution, while Dr. Rajendra Prasad, India’s first President, was the first signatory. Another distinctive feature is that the Constitution is not printed or typed but has been meticulously handwritten and calligraphed in both Hindi and English.

[Extracted with edits and revision from Parliament of India, Introduction (Lok Sabha – Constitution of India), Digital Sansad.]

59. At the time of its adoption, the Constitution contained:

A. 448 Articles and 12 Schedules

B. 395 Articles and 8 Schedules

C. 300 Articles and 10 Schedules

D. 250 Articles and 7 Schedules

Answer: B

60. Which of the following is NOT mentioned in the Preamble?

A. Justice

B. Liberty

C. Equality

D. Property

Answer: D

61. The structure of the Indian Constitution is:

A. Purely federal

B. Purely unitary

C. Federal with unitary features

D. Confederal

Answer: C

62. The Constitution of India was adopted on:

A. 26 November 1949

B. 26 January 1950

C. 15 August 1947

D. 2 October 1948

Answer: A

63. India follows which form of government?

A. Presidential system

B. Parliamentary system

C. Monarchical system

D. Dictatorial system

Answer: B

64. The Preamble declares India to be:

A. Monarchical and federal

B. Sovereign, socialist, secular, democratic republic

C. Unitary and capitalist

D. Socialist monarchy

Answer: B

XIII. At this stage, we would like to emphasize on the role young boys and male teachers play in the life of adolescent girl students. We have no hesitation in saying that if the spirit of Article 21A and the RTE Act is to be achieved in its fullest sense, it would not be sufficient that merely gender-segregated toilets or sanitary napkins are provided. We say so because this is far more than an infrastructural problem. The absence of menstrual hygiene facilities in schools is not the only barrier that impedes education but rather it is only half the problem. More often than not, the environment within which the girl child is acquiring education, is equally impeding, if not a greater barrier. Undoubtedly, laws have the power to shape and influence social behaviour and bring forth transformative change. However, we must also acknowledge the grim reality that the implementation of these laws faces several challenges arising from deep-rooted attitudes and norms which our society is unwilling to break away from.

A school may have adequate facilities for menstrual hygiene, but an unsupportive, rather hostile and stigmatized environment would render them of no use. The environment at school is not a monolith of females, it consists of young boys, male teachers, and male staff. Until the whole ecosystem is sterilized of the stigma associated with menstruation, the infrastructural efforts would remain underutilized.

Menstruation should not be a topic that is only shared in hushed whispers. It is crucial that boys are educated about the biological reality of menstruation. A male student, unsensitized towards the issue, may harass a menstruating girl child which may discourage her from attending school.

Time is over ripe that we recognize menstrual health as a shared responsibility rather than a woman’s issue. Awareness must not be limited to girls, but extends to boys, parents, and teachers. When menstruation is discussed openly in schools, it ceases to be a source of shame. It is recognized as what it is, a biological fact. Needless to say, it must be seen as a collective effort rather than a constitutional pull.

[Extract from the Supreme Court Judgement Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Government of India & Ors., 2026 INSC 97]

65. The passage primarily argues that:

A. Menstrual hygiene is solely an infrastructural issue

B. Legal provisions are sufficient to address menstrual stigma

C. Social attitudes and environment are equally important as infrastructure

D. Schools should only focus on providing sanitary facilities

Answer: C

66. The term “shared responsibility” in the context of menstrual health implies:

A. Responsibility of only the government

B. Responsibility limited to women

C. Responsibility of healthcare professionals only

D. Collective responsibility of society including boys, parents, and teachers

Answer: D

67. What is the central barrier to girls’ education identified in the passage?

A. Menstrual stigma and hostile environment

B. Poor curriculum

C. Lack of teachers

D. Economic constraints

Answer: A

68. The tone of the statement “Time is over ripe…” suggests:

A. Hesitation

B. Urgency and reform

C. Neutral observation

D. Judicial restraint

Answer: B

69. Which of the following is NOT suggested as a stakeholder in addressing menstrual stigma?

A. Boys

B. Parents

C. Teachers

D. Judiciary

Answer: D

70. Which of the following is a direct consequence of lack of sensitization among boys, as per the passage?

A. Increased infrastructure costs

B. Drop in school funding

C. Harassment of menstruating girls

D. Teacher absenteeism

Answer: C

XIV. Amid chronic groundwater depletion, water overallocation, land and soil degradation, deforestation, and pollution, all compounded by global heating, a UN report today declared the dawn of an era of global water bankruptcy, inviting world leaders to facilitate “honest, science-based adaptation to a new reality.”

“Global Water Bankruptcy: Living Beyond Our Hydrological Means in the Post-Crisis Era,” argues that the familiar terms “water stressed” and “water crisis” fail to reflect today’s reality in many places: a post-crisis condition marked by irreversible losses of natural water capital and an inability to bounce back to historic baselines.

“This report tells an uncomfortable truth: many regions are living beyond their hydrological means, and many critical water systems are already bankrupt,” says lead author Kaveh Madani, Director of the UN University’s Institute for Water, Environment and Health (UNU-INWEH), known as 'The UN’s Think Tank on Water.'

Report Cover: Expressed in financial terms, the report says many societies have not only overspent their annual renewable water “income” from rivers, soils, and snowpack, they have depleted long-term “savings” in aquifers, glaciers, wetlands, and other natural reservoirs.

This has resulted in a growing list of compacted aquifers, subsided land in deltas and coastal cities, vanished lakes and wetlands, and irreversibly lost biodiversity.

The UNU report is based on a peer-reviewed paper in the journal of Water Resources Management that formally defines water bankruptcy as persistent over-withdrawal from surface and groundwater relative to renewable inflows and safe levels of depletion.

[Extracted from United Nations University (UNU-INWEH), World Enters Era of Global Water Bankruptcy, 20 January 2026]

71. The UN report declares the beginning of which phase?

A. Water stress era

B. Water crisis phase

C. Global water bankruptcy era

D. Sustainable water recovery phase

Answer: C

72. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a consequence of water bankruptcy?

A. Compacted aquifers

B. Subsided land

C. Lost biodiversity

D. Increased rainfall

Answer: D

73. Assertion (A): Many regions cannot return to historic water levels.

Reason (R): Natural water capital has been irreversibly depleted.

Choose the correct option:

A. Both A and R are true, and R explains A

B. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A

C. A is true, R is false

D. A is false, R is true

Answer: A

74. Which journal is cited as the basis of the UNU report?

A. Nature Climate Change

B. Water Resources Management

C. Environmental Law Review

D. Global Sustainability Journal

Answer: B

75. According to the report, traditional terms like “water stress” and “water crisis” are:

A. Scientifically inaccurate

B. Politically motivated

C. Insufficient to describe current conditions

D. No longer used by policymakers

Answer: C

XV. Sunetra Pawar was sworn in as the Deputy Chief Minister of Maharashtra on January 31, 2026, succeeding her late husband, Ajit Pawar, who tragically passed away in a plane crash on January 28, 2026. She has made history as the first woman to hold the office of Deputy Chief Minister in the state.

Earlier that day, Ms. Pawar was unanimously elected as the leader of the Nationalist Congress Party Legislature Party. Her candidature was formally proposed by Chhagan Bhujbal and received support from 45 party leaders, including Dilip Walse Patil.

[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from ‘‘The Hindu’’, dated 31st January 2026]

76. The appointment of Sunetra Pawar as Deputy Chief Minister is historically significant because:

A. She is the youngest Deputy CM of Maharashtra

B. She is the first Rajya Sabha member to hold the office

C. She is the first woman Deputy Chief Minister of Maharashtra

D. She is the first member of NCP to hold the office

Answer: C

77. Which of the following events directly led to the appointment of Sunetra Pawar?

A. Resignation of Ajit Pawar

B. Party reorganisation within NCP

C. Governor’s intervention

D. Death of Ajit Pawar in a plane crash

Answer: D

78. The sequence of events described in the passage suggests that:

A. The appointment process was prolonged and contested

B. The leadership transition was swift and politically coordinated

C. The decision was imposed externally

D. The party leadership was divided

Answer: B

79. The historic nature of Sunetra Pawar’s appointment highlights:

A. Judicial activism

B. Gender inclusivity in political leadership

C. Federal conflict between Centre and State

D. Electoral reforms

Answer: B

80. The appointment of Sunetra Pawar primarily reflects:

A. Constitutional reform in state executive structure

B. Continuity in political leadership following a sudden vacancy

C. Judicial intervention in executive functioning

D. Direct electoral mandate

Answer: B

81. The phrase “sworn in” in the context of public office refers to:

A. Election to public office

B. Appointment by political party

C. Taking an oath or affirmation before assuming office

D. Approval by the judiciary

Answer: C

SECTION IV

XVI. In a legal reasoning workshop, students were given a word-based sequencing exercise using the word “LEGISLATION.” The instructor explained that such exercises help in sharpening analytical reasoning, which is essential for solving complex legal problems. The students were asked to follow a precise sequence of steps.

First, they were instructed to divide the word into two equal halves and reverse only the first half. The second half was to remain unchanged. Next, they had to identify the third letter from the end of the original word and place it at the beginning of the newly formed arrangement. Finally, they were asked to append the letter “X” at the end of the word.

The instructor emphasized that each step must be followed strictly in order, as even a slight deviation would lead to an incorrect result. Students who carefully adhered to the instructions were able to derive the correct transformed word and appreciated how structured reasoning plays a crucial role in both language puzzles and legal interpretation.

82. Which part of the word was reversed in the first step?

A. Entire word

B. Second half only

C. Middle letters only

D. First half only

Answer: D

83. What was added at the end of the final word?

A. S

B. X

C. N

D. T

Answer: B

84. How many letters are there in the word 'LEGISLATION'?

A. 11

B. 12

C. 13

D. 14

Answer: A

85. Which letter is the third from the end in the original word?

A. O

B. I

C. T

D. A

Answer: B

86. What happened to the second half of the word?

A. Reversed

B. Removed

C. Remained unchanged

D. Shifted

Answer: C

87. What is the total number of steps in the process?

A. 2

B. 3

C. 5

D. 4

Answer: D

88. How many halves was the word divided into?

A. 2

B. 1

C. 4

D. 3

Answer: A

XVII. On the night of April 5th, a valuable antique map titled “The Silk Route Chart” went missing from the secured heritage vault of the City Museum. The vault was protected by a fingerprint scanner and a six-digit passcode. System logs indicate that the vault was opened at 8:47 PM and secured again at 9:05 PM.

The museum officially closes at 8:30 PM, after which only authorised personnel are permitted to remain inside.

Three staff members were present in the building that evening: Riya, the chief curator; Karan, the assistant archivist; and Mehul, the security technician.

Riya claims she left the museum at 8:25 PM after completing an exhibition review. CCTV footage shows her exiting the main entrance at 8:28 PM. However, the rear exit camera was temporarily disabled for maintenance.

Karan states he was working in the documentation office until 9:30 PM, preparing records. A fellow intern confirms seeing him there between 8:50 PM and 9:10 PM.

Mehul asserts that he was inspecting surveillance systems in the basement from 8:40 PM to 9:20 PM. However, electronic logs show that his access card was used near the vault corridor at 8:45 PM.

Investigators later discovered a folded fragment of the antique map in a trash bin near the control room. Riya had previously raised concerns about the map being loaned to private collectors. Karan had recently been reprimanded for negligence. Mehul had access to surveillance overrides and complained about delayed salary payments.

The museum director confirms that the passcode was updated three days prior and was shared only with Riya and Karan.

89. If the director’s statement regarding the passcode is correct, which inference is most logical?

A. Only Mehul could have opened the vault

B. Either Riya or Karan could have opened the vault

C. The fingerprint scanner malfunctioned

D. The vault remained unlocked

Answer: B

90. According to the system logs, when did the theft most likely occur?

A. Between 8:47 PM and 9:05 PM

B. Between 8:25 PM and 8:45 PM

C. Between 9:00 PM and 9:30 PM

D. After 9:30 PM

Answer: A

91. Which fact directly contradicts Mehul’s alibi?

A. He had access to surveillance systems

B. He complained about salary delays

C. His access card was used near the vault corridor at 8:45 PM

D. He was in the basement

Answer: C

92. The discovery of the map fragment in the trash bin most strongly indicates that:

A. The map was misplaced accidentally

B. Someone attempted to conceal or destroy evidence

C. The map was partially damaged earlier

D. The control room staff mishandled documents

Answer: B

93. Which security systems were used to protect the vault?

A. Fingerprint scanner and passcode

B. Only alarm system

C. CCTV cameras only

D. Security guards and locks

Answer: A

94. Which fact raises the greatest suspicion regarding Riya’s involvement?

A. She left before closing time

B. She opposed lending the map

C. The rear exit camera was not functioning

D. She completed an exhibition review

Answer: C

XVIII. A group of cousins invented a symbolic system to represent family relationships. They agreed that P ~ Q means P is the husband of Q, P = Q means P is the daughter of Q, P / Q means P is the mother of Q, and P > Q means P is the brother of Q. One evening, Riya decoded “A / B > C,” explaining that A is the mother of B and B is the brother of C, making A the mother of C as well. Later, another cousin said, “D = E ~ F,” meaning D is the daughter of E and E is the husband of F, so D is the daughter of both E and F.

95. What does the symbol “~” denote?

A. Brother

B. Husband

C. Father

D. Son

Answer: B

96. If X / Y > Z, what is X to Z?

A. Aunt

B. Sister

C. Grandmother

D. Mother

Answer: D

97. What does the symbol “=” denote?

A. Daughter

B. Wife

C. Sister

D. Mother

Answer: A

98. If A = B ~ C, how is A related to C?

A. Daughter

B. Sister

C. Mother

D. Wife

Answer: A

99. Which expression shows M is the brother of N?

A. M / N

B. N > M

C. M > N

D. M = N

Answer: C

100. If P = Q / R, how is P related to R?

A. Daughter

B. Granddaughter

C. Sister

D. Niece

Answer: B

XIX. Five judges—Justice Rao (R), Justice Sen (S), Justice Mehta (M), Justice Iyer (I), and Justice Khan (K)—are assigned to deliver judgments on five consecutive days from Monday to Friday.

Conditions:

1. Justice Sen (S) delivers judgment after Justice Rao (R).
2. Justice Mehta (M) cannot deliver on Monday or Wednesday.
3. Justice Iyer (I) delivers immediately after Justice Khan (K).
4. Justice Khan (K) cannot deliver on Friday.
5. Justice Rao (R) cannot deliver on a day adjacent to Justice Iyer (I).

101. Which of the following is a valid schedule?

A. R – S – K – I – M

B. K – I – R – S – M

C. R – K – I – S – M

D. K – I – S – R – M

Answer: B

102. If Justice Mehta delivers on Friday, which must be true?

A. Justice Rao delivers on Monday

B. Justice Khan delivers on Monday

C. Justice Sen delivers on Thursday

D. Justice Iyer delivers on Tuesday

Answer: C

103. If Justice Khan delivers on Monday, Justice Iyer delivers on:

A. Tuesday

B. Wednesday

C. Thursday

D. Friday

Answer: A

104. Justice Mehta cannot deliver on:

A. Monday or Wednesday

B. Tuesday or Thursday

C. Wednesday or Friday

D. Monday or Friday

Answer: A

105. Justice Iyer must always deliver immediately after:

A. Justice Rao

B. Justice Sen

C. Justice Khan

D. Justice Mehta

Answer: C

106. If Justice Rao delivers on Tuesday, which is true?

A. Justice Sen on Monday

B. Justice Sen on Wednesday

C. Justice Khan on Friday

D. Justice Iyer on Tuesday

Answer: B

107. How many judges deliver judgments per day?

A. 0

B. 2

C. 1

D. 5

Answer: C

108. Total number of days in schedule:

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Answer: C

XX. The media and entertainment (M&E) sector has become a significant component of India’s services economy, spanning audio-visual production, broadcasting, digital content, animation and gaming, advertising, and live entertainment. Over the past decade, it has undergone a structural shift towards digital and platform-based delivery, reshaping revenue models, value chains and employment. Industry estimates place the sector’s size at around ₹2.5 trillion in 202441, driven by rising incomes, rapid internet penetration and a large domestic market. Digital media emerged as the primary growth engine, contributing approximately one-third of the sector's total revenues, while also driving demand for content production, post-production, Visual Effects (VFX), dubbing, and localisation, all integrated into global distribution networks.

Segment-wise, audio-visual and film services remain central, with India among the world’s largest content producers, and revenues are increasingly driven by digital distribution. Video subscription revenues are estimated at ₹9,200 crore in 2024. Broadcasting and advertising have shifted decisively from linear TV to OTT and mobile platforms, with digital advertising growing faster than traditional formats. Highgrowth, export-oriented segments, such as animation and VFX, reached a revenue size of approximately ₹103 billion in 2024, supported by skilled manpower and cost competitiveness. The gaming segment, driven largely by mobile platforms and digital payments, expanded rapidly, with industry revenues estimated at around ₹232 billion in 2024, supported by a large and growing user base, even as monetisation models continue to evolve.

109. What structural shift has the Media and Entertainment (M&E) sector in India undergone over the past decade?

A. From public to private ownership

B. From print to radio dominance

C. Towards digital and platform-based delivery

D. Towards government-controlled broadcasting

Answer: C

110. What is the estimated size of India’s M&E sector in 2024?

A. ₹1 trillion

B. ₹2.5 trillion

C. ₹5 trillion

D. ₹9 trillion

Answer: B

111. Which segment has emerged as the primary growth engine of the M&E sector?

A. Broadcasting

B. Print media

C. Live entertainment

D. Digital media

Answer: D

112. Approximately what share of total revenues is contributed by digital media?

A. One-third

B. One-fourth

C. Half

D. Two-thirds

Answer: A

113. What is the estimated revenue from video subscriptions in 2024?

A. ₹5,200 crore

B. ₹7,800 crore

C. ₹9,200 crore

D. ₹12,000 crore

Answer: C

114. What is the approximate revenue size of the animation and VFX segment in 2024?

A. ₹50 billion

B. ₹75 billion

C. ₹232 billion

D. ₹103 billion

Answer: D

XXI. The Economic Survey 2025–26, presented in Parliament by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman, highlights a significant milestone in India’s macroeconomic performance, noting that the country recorded its lowest inflation rate since the inception of the Consumer Price Index (CPI) series. The average headline inflation for the period April–December 2025 stood at 1.7%, reflecting a sustained moderation in price levels.

This decline in inflation is largely attributed to a broad-based disinflationary trend in food and fuel prices, which together constitute over half of the CPI basket. Importantly, India has registered one of the sharpest declines in inflation among major Emerging Markets and Developing Economies (EMDEs), with a reduction of approximately 1.8 percentage points in 2025.

What makes this achievement particularly noteworthy is that it has occurred alongside robust economic growth, with GDP expanding at around 8% during the first half of FY 2025–26. This reflects the strength of India’s macroeconomic fundamentals and demonstrates the country’s ability to maintain price stability without compromising growth momentum.

Global rating agencies have also acknowledged improvements in India’s monetary framework. The adoption of inflation targeting by the Reserve Bank of India has contributed to better-anchored inflation expectations. Compared to the period between 2008 and 2014—when inflation frequently reached double-digit levels—recent years have witnessed greater stability, with inflation largely remaining within the RBI’s target band of 2–6%.

At the global level, inflation has moderated significantly across both advanced and emerging economies. Headline inflation declined from a peak of 8.7% in 2022 to 4.2% in 2025, driven by falling commodity prices, particularly in energy and food sectors.

Major economies such as the United States and the Eurozone experienced gradual easing of inflation, largely due to moderation in core services and declining commodity prices despite ongoing geopolitical tensions, including the Russia–Ukraine conflict.

However, inflation trends varied across EMDEs. Countries like Brazil witnessed a rise in inflation, while Russia faced the dual challenge of slow growth and persistent inflationary pressures. In contrast, Southeast Asian economies such as Malaysia, Indonesia, and the Philippines benefited from lower import costs. Meanwhile, China experienced deflation due to weak domestic demand and export pressures.

Domestically, inflation has followed a clear downward trajectory over the past four years, declining from 6.7% in 2022–23 to 1.7% by December 2025. During the first half of FY 2025–26, headline inflation fell sharply from 3.2% in April 2025 to 1.4% in September 2025, and further dropped to 0.3% in October 2025, marking the lowest level in the current CPI series.

This sharp decline was primarily driven by food price deflation, supported by favourable weather conditions and improved agricultural output. In contrast, core inflation—which excludes volatile components such as food and fuel—remained relatively stable, though it saw a marginal increase due to rising prices of precious metals like gold and silver amid global uncertainty.

115. What was the lowest recorded inflation level in October 2025 in the current CPI series?

A. 1.4%

B. 0.3%

C. 1.7%

D. 2.0%

Answer: B

116. What was India’s average headline inflation during April–December 2025?

A. 3.2%

B. 2.6%

C. 1.7%

D. 0.3%

Answer: C

117. Which country experienced deflation due to weak domestic demand?

A. Brazil

B. Russia

C. Indonesia

D. China

Answer: D

118. Which policy framework helped anchor inflation expectations in India?

A. Fiscal deficit targeting

B. Inflation targeting by RBI

C. Monetary expansion policy

D. Exchange rate stabilization

Answer: B

119. During which period did India frequently experience double-digit inflation?

A. 2000–2005

B. 2020–2025

C. 2015–2020

D. 2008–2014

Answer: D

120. India’s inflation decline of 1.8 percentage points is compared with which group?

A. Developed economies

B. BRICS nations

C. Emerging Markets and Developing Economies (EMDEs)

D. OECD countries

Answer: C