CLAT UG Mock Practice Questions January 2026

Legal Bites presents the CLAT UG Mock Legal Practice Questions – January 2026, thoughtfully curated to refine your preparation strategy and strengthen your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In preparing this mock test, we have tried to closely follow the CLAT UG 2026 pattern while ensuring coverage of all subjects relevant to the CLAT UG syllabus. The paper is designed to test reading comprehension, critical reasoning, and the ability to apply concepts across passages drawn from law, current affairs, history, economics, and social issues—mirroring the demands of the actual CLAT UG exam. Candidates are advised to attempt the mock in a time-bound manner, evaluate their answers carefully, and use the results to identify strengths, address gaps, and improve overall exam strategy.

CLAT UG Mock Legal Practice Questions
January 2026

No. of questions: 120

SECTION I

I. Among the various political instruments devised and employed by Mahatma Gandhi for the emancipation of India from British rule, the Non-Cooperation Movement occupies a position of exceptional importance. It was not merely a political strategy but a mass-based experiment that awakened the dormant energies of millions. On the one hand, the movement contributed significantly to the socio-economic uplift of vast sections of Indian society; on the other, it generated a powerful wave of national consciousness. In essence, it assumed the character of a people’s struggle, infusing the masses with a renewed sense of purpose, hope, and collective strength. Through the introduction of non-cooperation, Gandhi effectively established himself as the principal torchbearer of India’s freedom movement.

The true significance of this historic movement lies not only in its immediate political impact but also in its enduring influence on the future course of the Indian national struggle. Beyond the realm of politics, the socio-economic dimensions of non-cooperation were equally profound. It challenged existing structures of dependence, encouraged self-reliance, and fostered a spirit of sacrifice and discipline among the people. As a result, the movement left a deep imprint on Indian society, transforming passive subjects of colonial rule into active participants in the quest for freedom.

The genesis of the Non-Cooperation Movement can be traced to the arrival of Mahatma Gandhi on the Indian political scene, which marked the beginning of an entirely new phase in the freedom struggle. The traditional methods of prayers, petitions, and constitutional appeals, which had dominated nationalist politics towards the end of the nineteenth and the beginning of the twentieth century, had failed to produce tangible results. Disillusionment with these methods, combined with growing political unrest following events such as the partition of Bengal, compelled a decisive shift in strategy. It was under these circumstances that Gandhi evolved and articulated the doctrine of non-cooperation, offering the nation a novel and morally grounded path to resist colonial domination.

[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from Mahatma Gandhi & the Non-Cooperation Movement, by Prof. (Dr.) Nand Kishore Singh.]

1. The passage describes the Non-Cooperation Movement primarily as:

A. A constitutional agitation limited to elite leadership

B. A violent uprising against British rule

C. A mass-based movement combining political and socio-economic transformation

D. A temporary response to the partition of Bengal

Answer: C

2. Which of the following best reflects the author’s central claim in the passage?

A. British repression alone caused the rise of non-cooperation

B. Gandhi’s leadership transformed India’s freedom struggle in scope and method

C. Socio-economic reform was the primary goal of the national movement

D. Partition of Bengal was the immediate cause of mass mobilisation

Answer: B

3. According to the passage, what distinguished the Non-Cooperation Movement from earlier nationalist methods?

A. Its reliance on armed resistance

B. Its exclusive focus on economic boycott

C. Its rejection of prayers, petitions, and constitutional appeals

D. Its dependence on British administrative reforms

Answer: C

4. Which of the following best explains why the author describes the movement as a “new phase”?

A. It marked a departure from earlier political methods

B. It replaced British administrators

C. It coincided with international events

D. It resulted in immediate self-government

Answer: A

5. The phrase “principal torchbearer” most nearly means that Gandhi:

A. Inherited leadership from earlier leaders

B. Acted as a guiding force for the movement

C. Worked independently of mass support

D. Focused only on ideological writings

Answer: B

II. The rise of farming was a very gradual affair spread over centuries and millennia. A band of Homo sapiens gathering mushrooms and nuts and hunting deer and rabbit did not all of a sudden settle in a permanent village, ploughing fields, sowing wheat and carrying water from the river. The change proceeded by stages, each of which involved just a small alteration in daily life.

Homo sapiens reached the Middle East around 70,000 years ago. For the next 50,000 years our ancestors flourished there without agriculture. The natural resources of the area were enough to support its human population. In times of plenty people had a few more children, and in times of need a few less. Humans, like many mammals, have hormonal and genetic mechanisms that help control procreation. In good times females reach puberty earlier, and their chances of getting pregnant are a bit higher. In bad times puberty is late and fertility decreases.

To these natural population controls were added cultural mechanisms. Babies and small children, who move slowly and demand much attention, were a burden on nomadic foragers. People tried to space their children three to four years apart. Women did so by nursing their children around the clock and until a late age (around-the-clock suckling significantly decreases the chances of getting pregnant). Other methods included full or partial sexual abstinence (backed perhaps by cultural taboos), abortions and occasionally infanticide.

During these long millennia people occasionally ate wheat grain, but this was a marginal part of their diet. About 18,000 years ago, the last ice age gave way to a period of global warming. As temperatures rose, so did rainfall. The new climate was ideal for Middle Eastern wheat and other cereals, which multiplied and spread. People began eating more wheat, and in exchange they inadvertently spread its growth. Since it was impossible to eat wild grains without first winnowing, grinding and cooking them, people who gathered these grains carried them back to their temporary campsites for processing. Wheat grains are small and numerous, so some of them inevitably fell on the way to the campsite and were lost. Over time, more and more wheat grew along favourite human trails and near campsites. [367 words]

[Extracted from Sapiens: A Brief History of Humankind by Yuval Noah Harari]

6. The necessity of winnowing, grinding, and cooking wheat implies that

A. wheat was easy to consume raw

B. wheat required significant human processing

C. wheat was avoided by early humans

D. wheat was used mainly for storage

Answer: B

7. The climatic change around 18,000 years ago primarily resulted in

A. reduced rainfall and crop failure

B. global cooling and famine

C. conditions favourable for cereal growth

D. extinction of foraging communities

Answer: C

8. The author’s primary purpose in the passage is to

A. explain the gradual evolution of agriculture

B. highlight the dangers of population growth

C. criticise modern farming practices

D. compare foraging and industrial farming

Answer: A

9. The tone of the passage can best be described as

A. argumentative

B. narrative and explanatory

C. emotional

D. satirical

Answer: B

10. The use of the words “hormonal and genetic mechanisms” primarily indicates

A. artificial medical interventions

B. natural biological processes

C. social conditioning

D. technological influence

Answer: B

III. According to German scholar Schopenhauer, “In the whole world, there is no study so beautiful and as elevating as that of Upanishads. It has been the solace of my life- it will be the solace of my death.” Upanishads are the concluding parts of Brahmanas. They occupy a very high place in the ancient Aryan literature as they mainly deals with spiritual subjects and the ultimate secrets of creation of the universe. They are storehouse of spiritual knowledge as they throw light on certain difficult philosophical questions such as the true nature of god (Brahma) and the soul (Atma) and the exact relation that exists between the two. The doctrines of Mukti, Kama, Maya and transmigration of soul have been discussed in detail and elaborated in various Upanishads. Upanishads mainly means ‘sitting near’. Therefore, its original meaning refers to sitting down of initiated pupil near the teacher or guru for the purpose of a confidential communication of the secret doctrine (rahasya) concerning the relation between the creator and the created individuals. There are about 300 Upanishads which were written by various saints from 800 to 500 B.C. Some ancient Upanishads are- Brihadaranyaka Upanishad, Chandogya Upanishad, Taittiriya Upanishad, Aitareya Upanishad, Kena Upanishad Kaushitaki Upanishad, Brihad Upanishad and Jailtiriya Upanishad.

[Extracted from Vedic Literature: A Significant Literature of Ancient India—An Introduction, International Journal of Applied Research (2016) 2(6): 161–163]

11. According to Schopenhauer, the study of the Upanishads is

A. intellectually demanding but impractical

B. historically significant but outdated

C. limited to religious rituals

D. the most beautiful and elevating form of study

Answer: D

12. The Upanishads are described as the concluding parts of the

A. Vedas

B. Aranyakas

C. Samhitas

D. Brahmanas

Answer: D

13. The literal meaning of the term ‘Upanishad’ refers to

A. divine revelation

B. written scripture

C. sitting near the teacher

D. meditation in isolation

Answer: C

14. Approximately how many Upanishads are said to exist?

A. About 300

B. About 100

C. About 50

D. About 1,000

Answer: A

15. The description of the Upanishads as a “storehouse of spiritual knowledge” suggests that they

A. focus on ethical commandments

B. prescribe social duties

C. contains a wide range of philosophical insights

D. primarily discuss mythology

Answer: C

IV. Women's empowerment is not confined to the attainment of external control or authority; it also involves the development of intrinsic capacities such as self-confidence, autonomy, and an internal transformation of consciousness. This internal growth enables individuals to overcome external constraints in accessing resources and to question and transform traditional ideologies (Pinto, 2001).

Essentially, women’s empowerment refers to the process of enhancing the economic, social, and political status of women, who have historically remained marginalised in society. It includes protecting women from all forms of violence, discrimination, and exploitation, and ensuring conditions in which they can live with dignity and security. A genuinely empowered society is one where women can function without fear of oppression, inequality, or persecution—realities often embedded in patriarchal social structures.

Deepa Narayan, in her edited work Measuring Empowerment, defines empowerment as the expansion of assets and capabilities of disadvantaged individuals, enabling them to participate in, negotiate with, influence, control, and hold accountable the institutions that affect their lives. This definition emphasises empowerment as both a dynamic process and an outcome rooted in agency and participation.

Women’s empowerment is therefore central to the overall development of society. Empowerment implies the ability of individuals to think independently, act freely, exercise informed choices, and realise their full potential as equal members of society. According to the United Nations Development Fund for Women (UNIFEM), women’s empowerment involves understanding gender relations and the means to transform them; developing self-worth and confidence in one’s ability to bring about change; gaining the capacity to make choices and exercise bargaining power; and strengthening the ability to organise and influence social transformation towards a more just social and economic order at national and international levels.

Thus, empowerment represents both a psychological sense of personal control and a broader engagement with social influence, political power, and legal rights. It is a multi-dimensional and ongoing process operating at the individual, organisational, and community levels. Rooted in local contexts, empowerment is sustained through mutual respect, critical reflection, collective participation, and shared responsibility, through which marginalised groups gain greater control over valued resources.

[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from “Empowerment of Women: A Conceptual Framework,” Dr. Anu Dandona, The International Journal of Indian Psychology (2015), Vol. 2, Issue 3]

16. The reference to Pinto (2001) in the passage is primarily used to highlight that empowerment:

A. Is achieved mainly through institutional reform.

B. Requires dismantling patriarchal structures through law.

C. Involves internal growth that enables resistance to external constraints.

D. Depends on economic self-sufficiency.

Answer: C

17. The passage treats empowerment as “multi-dimensional” primarily because it:

A. Operates at individual, organisational, and community levels

B. Is confined to economic, social, and political rights

C. Depends entirely on cultural and local traditions

D. Focuses equally on men and women

Answer: A

18. The passage implies that empowerment is sustained primarily through:

A. Legal enforcement and institutional penalties

B. Economic redistribution and welfare policies

C. Mutual respect, collective participation, and shared responsibility

D. Global interventions and international treaties

Answer: C

19. According to UNIFEM’s understanding as reflected in the passage, women’s empowerment includes all except:

A. Understanding and transforming gender relations

B. Developing bargaining power and self-confidence

C. Strengthening capacity to influence social transformation

D. Achieving economic dominance over men

Answer: D

20. Which of the following best captures the core objective of women’s empowerment as described in the passage?

A. Ensuring women’s representation in political institutions

B. Providing legal safeguards against discrimination

C. Enabling women to live with dignity, security, and freedom from fear

D. Achieving parity between men and women in all spheres

Answer: C

V. Healthcare education equips professionals with the essential knowledge and practical expertise required for precise diagnosis and well-planned treatment, thereby strengthening clinical proficiency. By emphasising patient safety, it nurtures a culture grounded in evidence-based practices and ethical standards, reducing the likelihood of medical errors and improving overall patient outcomes. It also promotes interdisciplinary collaboration, encouraging healthcare workers from diverse specialisations to work collectively. Such teamwork ensures patient-centred care, where comprehensive treatment plans are developed through shared expertise and holistic consideration of patient needs.

Another crucial dimension of healthcare education is adapting to technological advancements. Professionals must develop digital literacy and technical competencies to effectively utilise innovations such as electronic health records, telemedicine, artificial intelligence, and robotics. Integrating these technologies into learning frameworks enhances diagnostic accuracy, treatment efficiency, and patient management systems. Additionally, healthcare education contributes significantly to public health by spreading awareness of epidemiology, disease prevention, health promotion, and community well-being. This knowledge enables professionals to recognise public health risks, implement preventive strategies, and guide communities toward healthier lifestyles, ultimately strengthening population health outcomes.

[Extracted with edits from Stella Perini, The Importance of Healthcare Education: Building a Stronger Healthcare System, International Research Journal of Educational Research, Vol. 14(3), May 2023.]

21. What is the primary purpose of healthcare education as highlighted in the passage?

A. To increase hospital infrastructure

B. To equip professionals with diagnostic and treatment skills

C. To reduce the cost of medical services

D. To promote private healthcare institutions

Answer: B

22. Which of the following best describes patient-centred care in the passage?

A. Care focused only on medical treatment

B. Treatment based on the patient’s financial capacity

C. Holistic care developed through teamwork

D. Care directed by hospital management

Answer: C

23. Which of the following best summarises the central theme of the passage?

A. Healthcare education focuses mainly on hospital management

B. Technology is replacing healthcare professionals

C. Healthcare education enhances professional competence, collaboration, and public health

D. Public health awareness is the only goal of healthcare education

Answer: C

24. What is the underlying purpose of spreading awareness in healthcare education?

A. To reduce hospital workload

B. To improve public health outcomes

C. To increase employment opportunities

D. To encourage medical tourism

Answer: B

SECTION II

VI. National Green Tribunal has sought clarification from the Haryana Government on whether diversion of drain no. 6 is a stormwater drain, after it was informed that sewage and effluents from the drain were flowing into diversion drain no. 8 — one of Delhi’s drinking water sources. The tribunal also asked whether the tapping of drain no. 6 and its diversion to a sewage treatment plant (STP) is being implemented as a permanent measure. NGT is hearing a plea based on a news report of fish deaths in the Yamuna near Burari last year. Similar incidents have been reported this year, with media reports attributing this fish mortality to chemical-laden industrial discharge, prompting NGT to raise concerns about pollution levels in that stretch of the river.

During a hearing on Dec 1, the bench headed by Justice Prakash Shrivastava observed that despite the presence of STPs and Common Effluent Treatment Plants (CETPs) with capacities of 67 MLD and 46.2 MLD, the drains continue to receive untreated waste. ‘Drain no. 6 is receiving 51.124 MLD of sewage or industrial wastewater, though four STPs and three CETPs with significant capacities exist. Further, drain no. 8, considered a freshwater drain, is also getting sewage from three STPs in Gohana and Kharkhoda with a combined capacity of 15.8 MLD,’ the bench noted. [218 words]

[Extracted from the newspaper, The Times of India, December 10, 2025]

25. What prompted the NGT to examine the issue of drain diversion in Haryana?

A. A government audit report

B. A citizen’s petition on air pollution

C. A parliamentary committee recommendation

D. A news report highlighting fish deaths

Answer: D

26. The fish mortality reported near Burari has been attributed to:

A. Chemical-laden industrial discharge

B. Illegal sand mining

C. Excess rainfall

D. Agricultural runoff

Answer: A

27. The tribunal questioned whether the diversion of drain no. 6 to an STP is:

A. A temporary political decision

B. A judicial directive

C. A permanent measure

D. A privately funded initiative

Answer: C

28. Which of the following institutions are mentioned as having existing treatment capacity?

A. Only STPs

B. Only CETPs

C. Both STPs and CETPs

D. Neither STPs nor CETPs

Answer: C

29. According to the bench, despite existing treatment infrastructure, the drains continue to receive:

A. Only treated water

B. Untreated waste

C. Rainwater overflow

D. Domestic greywater only

Answer: B

VII. Grandmaster Arjun Erigaisi suffered a shattering semifinal loss to top Uzbek player Nodirbek Abdusattorov at the World Blitz Championship in Doha yesterday. 22-year-old Erigaisi settled for a bronze medal. With Erigaisi in stunning form and having already beaten Abdusattorov on day one of the competition, the Indian was expected to go full steam. But things took a difficult turn for Erigaisi, who lost the semifinal 2.5-0.5.

Defending champion Magnus Carlsen has stormed into the final to set up a title clash with Abdusattorov after defeating American Fabiano Caruana 3-1 in the other semifinal.

Prime Minister Narendra Modi congratulated Arjun Erigaisi for winning the Bronze at the FIDE World Blitz Chess Championship in Doha, following his bronze medal in the FIDE Rapid Chess Championship recently. In a social media post, PM Modi said that his skills, patience and passion are exemplary. The Prime Minister added that his successes will continue to inspire youth. [152 words]

[Extracted from the News On Air report titled “Grandmaster Arjun Erigaisi takes Bronze medal after semifinal loss at World Blitz Chess Championship” (December 31, 2025)]

30. Which statement is TRUE based on the passage?

A. Erigaisi won silver at the Rapid Championship

B. Abdusattorov defeated Caruana to reach the final

C. Carlsen defeated Caruana in the semifinal

D. Erigaisi lost to Caruana in the semifinal

Answer: C

31. The passage suggests that Erigaisi’s performance in the Rapid Championship:

A. Was inferior to his Blitz performance

B. Resulted in a bronze medal as well

C. Helped him qualify for Blitz

D. Was his debut appearance

Answer: B

32. The Prime Minister’s statement mainly serves to:

A. Criticise Erigaisi’s semifinal strategy

B. Highlight India’s chess infrastructure

C. Acknowledge and appreciate Erigaisi’s achievements

D. Compare Erigaisi with other players

Answer: C

33. The governing body of international chess, responsible for Rapid championships, is:

A. FIFA

B. ICC

C. FIDE

D. UNESCO

Answer: C

34. Which title is awarded by FIDE to top chess players?

A. International Scholar

B. Grandmaster

C. Chess Laureate

D. Global Strategist

Answer: B

VIII. At the invitation of the Prime Minister of India Shri Narendra Modi, the President of the Russian Federation, H.E. Mr. Vladimir Putin, paid a State visit to India on December 04-05, 2025 for the 23rd India-Russia Annual Summit.

The Leaders reaffirmed their support for further strengthening of the Special and Privileged Strategic Partnership between India and Russia. This year marks the 25th anniversary of the Declaration on Strategic Partnership between India and Russia, established during the first State Visit of H.E. President Vladimir Putin to India in October 2000.

The Leaders emphasized the special nature of this long standing and time-tested relationship, which is characterised by mutual trust, respect for each other’s core national interests and strategic convergence. They underscored that, as major powers with shared responsibilities, this important relationship continues to be an anchor of global peace and stability that should be ensured upon the basis of equal and indivisible security.

The Leaders positively assessed the multi-faceted mutually beneficial India-Russia relations that span all areas of cooperation, including political and strategic, military and security, trade and investment, energy, science and technology, nuclear, space, cultural, education and humanitarian cooperation. It was noted with satisfaction that both Sides are actively exploring new avenues for cooperation while further strengthening cooperation in the traditional areas.

The Leaders underlined that India-Russia ties have remained resilient in the backdrop of the prevailing complex, challenging and uncertain geopolitical situation. Both Sides have strived to forge a contemporary, balanced, mutually beneficial, sustainable and long-term partnership. Development of India-Russia relations across the entire spectrum is a shared foreign policy priority. The Leaders agreed to make all efforts to unlock the full potential of the strategic partnership.

The Leaders welcomed the opening of two Consulates General of India in Yekaterinburg and Kazan, and looked forward to their early operationalisation to further strengthen inter-regional cooperation, trade and economic relations and people to people ties.

The Leaders noted with satisfaction the continued intensification of contacts at all levels since the last Summit, including meetings between them on the sidelines of the 16th BRICS Summit in Kazan and the 25th SCO Summit in Tianjin; holding of the 26th Session of the India-Russia Intergovernmental Commission (IRIGC) on Trade, Economic, Scientific, Technological and Cultural Cooperation (IRIGC-TEC) co-chaired by the External Affairs Minister of India and the First Deputy Prime Minister of Russia and the 22nd Session of the IRIGC on Military & Military-Technical Cooperation (IRIGC-M&MTC) co-chaired by the Defence Ministers of the two countries; visits of Lok Sabha Speaker, External Affairs Minister, Raksha Mantri, Minister of Railways, Information Technology, and Information & Broadcasting, Ministers of State of Home Affairs, Defence, Youth Affairs & Sports, Textiles and Vice Chairman NITI Aayog from the Indian side; visits of Russia’s Chairman of the State Duma, First Deputy Prime Minister, Deputy Prime Minister, Minister of Energy, Minister of Culture; and holding of strategic dialogue at the level of National Security Advisors, Foreign Office Consultations, consultations on UN issues, meeting of the Joint Working Group on Counter Terrorism, etc.

[Extracted from Ministry of External Affairs, Government of India, India–Russia Joint Statement after the 23rd Annual Summit, issued on 05 December 2025]

35. The year 2025 marks the 25th anniversary of which important event?

A. Establishment of BRICS

B. Declaration on Strategic Partnership between India and Russia

C. Formation of SCO

D. Signing of a nuclear agreement

Answer: B

36. The opening of Indian Consulates General in Yekaterinburg and Kazan is expected to enhance:

A. Military cooperation

B. Space exploration

C. Inter-regional cooperation and people-to-people ties

D. Intelligence sharing

Answer: C

37. Meetings between the leaders took place on the sidelines of which summits?

A. G20 and ASEAN

B. BRICS and SCO

C. UNGA and NATO

D. SAARC and BIMSTEC

Answer: B

38. Which inference can be drawn from the passage?

A. Economic ties are weakening between India and Russia.

B. The partnership is limited to bilateral forums only.

C. India and Russia prioritise defence over all other cooperation areas.

D. Both countries view their partnership as strategically essential for global stability.

Answer: D

39. The Leaders described the India–Russia relationship as an anchor of global peace based on:

A. Equal and indivisible security

B. Economic cooperation

C. Defence treaties

D. Multilateral diplomacy

Answer: A

A. Military parity between nations

B. Shared responsibility for global defence

C. Security that benefits all nations equally without exclusion

D. Joint intelligence mechanisms

Answer: C

IX. The upgradation of NH-326 will make travel faster, safer, and more reliable, resulting in overall development of southern Odisha, particularly benefiting the districts of Gajapati, Rayagada, and Koraput. Improved road connectivity will directly benefit local communities, industries, educational institutions, and tourism centres by enhancing access to markets, healthcare, and employment opportunities, thereby contributing to the region’s inclusive growth.

The section of Mohana–Koraput of the National Highway (NH-326) at present have sub-standard geometry (intermediate lane/2-lane, many deficient curves and steep gradients); the existing road alignment, carriageway width and geometric deficiencies constrain safe, efficient movement of heavy vehicles and reduce freight throughput to coastal ports and industrial centres. These constraints will be removed by upgrading the corridor to 2-lane with paved shoulders with geometric corrections (curve realignments and gradient improvements), removal of black spots and pavement strengthening, enabling safe and uninterrupted movement of goods and passengers and reducing vehicle operating costs.

The upgradation will provide direct and improved connectivity from Mohana–Koraput into major economic and logistics corridors — linking with NH-26, NH-59, NH-16 and the Raipur–Visakhapatnam corridor and improving last-mile access to Gopalpur port, Jeypore airport and several railway stations. The corridor connects important industrial and logistic nodes (JK Paper, Mega Food Park, NALCO, IMFA, Utkal Alumina, Vedanta, HAL) and education/tourism hubs (Central University of Odisha, Koraput Medical College, Taptapani, Rayagada), thereby facilitating faster freight movement, reducing travel time and enabling regional economic development.

The project lies in southern Odisha (districts of Gajapati, Rayagada and Koraput) and will significantly improve intra-state and inter-state connectivity by making vehicle movement faster and safer, stimulating industrial and tourism growth and improving access to services in aspirational and tribal areas. Economic analysis shows the project’s EIRR at 17.95% (base case) while the financial return (FIRR) is negative (-2.32%), reflecting the social and non-market benefits captured in the economic appraisal; the economic justification is driven largely by travel-time and vehicle-operating-cost savings and safety benefits (including an estimated travel-time saving of about 2.5–3.0 hours and a distance saving of ~12.46 km between Mohana and Koraput after geometric improvements).

[Excerpts from Press Information Bureau, Government of India: NH-326 Upgradation (Odisha), dated 31st December, 2025]

41. The primary purpose of upgrading NH-326 is to:

A. Increase toll revenue for the government

B. Enhance freight movement and passenger safety

C. Promote private airline services

D. Reduce the distance between Odisha and Raipur

Answer: B

42. The project is expected to benefit all the following sectors EXCEPT:

A. Healthcare access

B. Employment opportunities

C. Maritime trade regulation

D. Educational institutions

Answer: C

43. Which of the following is NOT listed as a connected industrial or logistics node?

A. NALCO

B. Vedanta

C. HAL

D. ONGC

Answer: D

44. Which feature is specifically proposed in the upgrade plan?

A. Conversion into a four-lane expressway

B. Development of paved shoulders with geometric corrections

C. Construction of flyovers at all junctions

D. Installation of electronic toll systems

Answer: B

45. The project is particularly significant for which type of areas?

A. Tribal and aspirational regions

B. Metropolitan commercial hubs

C. Export processing zones

D. Coastal fishing zones

Answer: A

46. The removal of black spots is intended primarily to:

A. Improve road aesthetics

B. Reduce accident risks

C. Increase toll revenue

D. Promote tourism

Answer: B

X. Union Home and Cooperation Minister Shri Amit Shah pays tribute to Bharat Ratna Mahamana Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya, the founder of Banaras Hindu University and a great social reformer, on his birth anniversary.

Considering education as the fundamental principle of social reform, Malaviya ji inspired the youth to pursue modern education based on Indian cultural values ​​through the establishment of Banaras Hindu University.

He and also made a significant contribution to making the press a medium for nation-building.

Mahamana's lifelong commitment to the eradication of untouchability and his pro-farmer initiatives will always be remembered.

[Excerpts from the Press Information Bureau release regarding the tribute by Amit Shah to Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya on 25th December, 2025]

47. The passage identifies Mahamana Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya primarily as:

A. A freedom fighter and lawyer

B. Founder of a university and social reformer

C. A journalist and farmer leader

D. A political theorist

Answer: B

48. The establishment of Banaras Hindu University was intended to promote:

A. Western scientific education exclusively

B. Religious education alone

C. Modern education rooted in Indian cultural values

D. Vocational training for farmers

Answer: C

49. Which social evil did Malaviya ji dedicate his life to eradicating, as mentioned in the passage?

A. Illiteracy

B. Poverty

C. Untouchability

D. Communalism

Answer: C

50. The passage suggests that Malaviya ji viewed the press primarily as:

A. A medium for nation-building

B. A platform for social debates

C. A means of spreading literacy

D. A political weapon

Answer: A

51. Which group particularly benefited from Malaviya ji’s initiatives mentioned in the passage?

A. Industrial workers

B. Students studying abroad

C. Urban entrepreneurs

D. Farmers

Answer: D

52. The tone of the passage is best described as:

A. Appreciative

B. Critical

C. Analytical

D. Neutral

Answer: A

SECTION III

XI. India’s growth outlook remains buoyant, with global and domestic institutions upgrading their assessments on the back of strong economic fundamentals. Reflecting broad-based momentum across key sectors, the Reserve Bank of India revised its GDP growth projection for FY 2025–26 upward from 6.8% to 7.3%.

International agencies have echoed this optimism: the World Bank projects 6.5% growth in 2026; Moody’s expects India to remain the fastest-growing G20 economy with growth of 6.4% in 2026 and 6.5% in 2027; the IMF has raised its projections to 6.6% for 2025 and 6.2% for 2026; the OECD forecasts 6.7% growth in 2025 and 6.2% in 2026; S&P anticipates growth of 6.5% in the current fiscal and 6.7% in the next; the Asian Development Bank has lifted its 2025 forecast to 7.2%; and Fitch has raised its FY26 projection to 7.4% on stronger consumer demand.

Together, sustained international confidence along with robust domestic demand, falling unemployment, and easing inflation, position the country well to advance steadily towards its 2047 development goals.

[Excerpt from Press Information Bureau, Government of India, India’s Growth Outlook and Macroeconomic Assessment, December 29th 2025.]

53. Which institution revised India’s GDP projection for FY 2025–26 to 7.3%?

A. World Bank

B. IMF

C. Reserve Bank of India

D. Asian Development Bank

Answer: C

54. According to the passage, India is expected to remain the fastest-growing G20 economy as per:

A. IMF

B. Moody’s

C. OECD

D. S&P

Answer: B

55. Which agency projects India’s growth at 6.5% specifically for the year 2026?

A. OECD

B. World Bank

C. Fitch

D. Asian Development Bank

Answer: B

56. Which agency has given the highest single-year projection among those mentioned?

A. Fitch – 7.4%

B. ADB – 7.2%

C. RBI – 7.3%

D. S&P – 6.7%

Answer: A

57. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT as per the passage?

A. RBI upgraded its projection from 6.8% to 7.3%.

B. ADB forecast for 2025 is 7.2%.

C. IMF projected 6.2% growth for 2025.

D. Moody’s expects 6.5% growth in 2027.

Answer: C

58. The passage suggests that India’s progress towards 2047 goals is supported by:

1. Falling unemployment

2. Robust domestic demand

3. Rising global inflation

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

XII. The author explains that the Indian Constitution adopts a comprehensive vision of equality that goes beyond mere political or legal guarantees. It seeks to establish social equality by prohibiting discrimination in employment, access to public places, and civic life. A defining feature is the constitutional abolition of untouchability and the assurance that no citizen shall be deprived of rights on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth, reflecting a strong commitment to social justice.

Another landmark aspect is the introduction of the universal adult franchise, granting every adult the right to vote without any property, educational, or tax qualifications. This step embodied the principle of popular sovereignty and democratic inclusion, even though India at the time faced widespread illiteracy and poverty. The successful conduct of the first general elections in 1952 proved that this bold constitutional experiment was both practical and transformative for Indian democracy.

[Extracted with edits and revision from Durga Das Basu, Introduction to the Constitution of India]

59. Which practice was specifically abolished by the Indian Constitution as highlighted in the passage?

A. Child marriage

B. Untouchability

C. Bonded labour

D. Zamindari system

Answer: B

60. Discrimination is prohibited under the Constitution on which of the following grounds?

A. Religion, caste, and income

B. Race, place of birth, and education

C. Religion, race, caste, sex, or place of birth

D. Language, profession, and residence

Answer: C

61. The success of which event proved the practicality of universal franchise in India?

A. First General Elections of 1952

B. Framing of the Constitution in 1950

C. Formation of Planning Commission

D. Abolition of privy purses

Answer: A

62. The principle reflected by universal adult franchise is:

A. Parliamentary supremacy

B. Popular sovereignty

C. Federal autonomy

D. Judicial independence

Answer: B

63. Universal adult franchise in India was introduced without considering:

A. Gender and religion

B. Property, education, or tax qualifications

C. Literacy and urban residence

D. Age and domicile

Answer: B

64. According to the passage, the Indian Constitution’s idea of equality is broader because it includes:

A. Only political equality

B. Only legal equality

C. Equality limited to voting rights

D. Social equality, in addition to legal and political equality

Answer: D

XIII. This case presents the possibility of two interpretations and whereas it is a settled rule that this Court under its plenary, Article 136 jurisdiction does not interfere with the findings of the High Court simply because there are two views possible, this case, in our considered view, does not fall under this exception for the High Court missed the purposive construction goalpost and instead proceeded to adjudicate the matter purely as a civil dispute. The Constitution of India prescribes an aspiration for all, i.e. equality which is, obviously, yet to be achieved. Courts, in doing their bit to this end must ground their reasoning in social justice adjudication. To put it in context, the scope and object of 1986 Act is concerned with securing the dignity and financial protection of a Muslim women post her divorce which aligns with the rights of a women under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. The construction of this Act, therefore, must keep at the forefront equality, dignity and autonomy and must be done in the light of lived experiences of women where particularly in smaller towns and rural areas, inherent patriarchal discrimination is still the order of the day.

[Extract from the Supreme Court Judgement Rousanara Begum v. S.K. Salahuddin (2025 INSC 1375)]

65. The 1986 Act mentioned in the passage primarily aims at:

A. Regulating Muslim marriages

B. Protecting dignity and financial security of divorced Muslim women

C. Granting uniform civil code

D. Limiting rights under Article 21

Answer: B

66. The Court links the rights under the 1986 Act with which constitutional provision?

A. Article 14

B. Article 19

C. Article 21

D. Article 25

Answer: C

67. The passage highlights that patriarchal discrimination is especially prevalent in:

A. Metropolitan cities

B. Smaller towns and rural areas

C. Judicial institutions

D. Urban workplaces

Answer: B

68. The term “plenary jurisdiction under Article 136” implies:

A. Discretionary appellate power of the Supreme Court

B. Mandatory review of all High Court judgments

C. Power to amend statutes

D. Unlimited legislative power

Answer: A

69. The Supreme Court considered interference necessary because:

A. The High Court ignored precedents

B. The Act of 1986 was unconstitutional

C. The High Court exceeded its jurisdiction

D. The High Court treated the matter purely as a civil dispute

Answer: D

70. The passage recognises that women in rural areas face:

A. Equal opportunities

B. Better legal protection

C. Inherent patriarchal discrimination

D. No financial issues

Answer: C

XIV. On 1 December 2025, the Ministry of Health (MoH) of the Democratic Republic of the Congo (DRC) declared the end of the Ebola virus disease (EVD) outbreak which had been declared on 4 September 2025. The end was declared after two consecutive incubation periods (a total of 42 days) since the last person confirmed with EVD tested negative for the virus and was discharged on 19 October 2025. A total of 64 cases (53 confirmed, 11 probable), including 45 deaths (CFR 70.3%), were reported from six health areas in Bulape Health Zone, Kasai Province. WHO and partners provided technical, operational and financial support to the government to contain the outbreak. This is the country’s 16th outbreak of Ebola. Although the outbreak has been declared over, health authorities are maintaining surveillance to rapidly identify and respond to any re-emergence. Risk communication and community engagement activities will continue to provide accurate information, monitor and address community feedback and rumours, and support efforts to reduce stigma toward individuals affected by the outbreak.

[Extracted from World Health Organization, Disease Outbreak News: Ebola virus disease – Democratic Republic of the Congo (2025-DON589), 1st December 2025]

71. The Ebola outbreak in the Democratic Republic of Congo was officially declared over after:

A. 21 days from the last negative test

B. 30 days from the last discharge

C. Two consecutive incubation periods totalling 42 days

D. 60 days of zero new cases

Answer: C

72. What was the total number of cases reported during the outbreak?

A. 64

B. 53

C. 45

D. 70

Answer: A

73. Why is surveillance continuing despite the outbreak being declared over?

A. To rapidly identify and respond to any re-emergence

B. To begin vaccination campaigns

C. To calculate compensation for victims

D. To impose travel restrictions

Answer: A

74. Which of the following was NOT mentioned as part of post-outbreak strategy?

A. Risk communication and community engagement

B. Monitoring rumours and feedback

C. Reducing stigma toward affected individuals

D. Imposing nationwide lockdown

Answer: D

75. The declaration of the end of the outbreak was made by:

A. WHO Headquarters

B. Ministry of Health of DRC

C. United Nations

D. African CDC

Answer: B

XV. Child trafficking remains one of the gravest forms of modern slavery, and the Supreme Court of India has issued a strong warning about its alarming prevalence in the country. In a judgment delivered on December 19, the Court described child trafficking as a “deeply disturbing reality,” noting that the sexual exploitation of children by organised cartels continues unabated despite the existence of protective laws. The case before the Court concerned a minor who had been forcibly subjected to sexual exploitation by a trafficking gang in Bengaluru. Upholding the conviction of the accused under the Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, the Court observed that such offences strike at the core of human dignity, bodily integrity, and the constitutional promise of protection to every child against exploitation.

A Bench comprising Justices Manoj Misra and Joymalya Bagchi highlighted the complex and multi-layered nature of organised trafficking networks involved in the recruitment, transportation, harbouring, and exploitation of minor victims. The Court laid down important guidelines for handling child trafficking cases, emphasising the need for sensitivity and flexibility while recording a child’s testimony. It observed that a child victim may not always be able to recount the crime with precision and clarity, and therefore minor inconsistencies in her statement should not be a ground to discredit her evidence. The Bench further clarified that a victim of sex trafficking, especially a minor, cannot be treated as an accomplice and that her testimony must be accorded the same respect and credibility as that of an injured witness. These observations serve as a crucial reminder that the responsibility now lies with the government and civil society to ensure meaningful protection and rehabilitation of vulnerable children.

[Extracted, with edits and revisions, from ‘‘The Hindu’’, dated 24th December 2025]

76. The Supreme Court described child trafficking in India as:

A. a rare social evil

B. a deeply disturbing reality

C. an isolated criminal act

D. a declining phenomenon

Answer: B

77. The case before the Supreme Court related to:

A. child labour in factories

B. illegal adoption racket

C. sexual exploitation of a minor by a trafficking gang in Bengaluru

D. online abuse of children

Answer: C

78. The conviction of the accused was upheld under which law?

A. Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act

B. Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act

C. Juvenile Justice Act

D. Indian Penal Code

Answer: A

79. The Bench that delivered the judgment comprised:

A. Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and Sanjiv Khanna

B. Justices Manoj Misra and Joymalya Bagchi

C. Justices U.U. Lalit and A.S. Bopanna

D. Justices N.V. Ramana and B.R. Gavai

Answer: B

80. The trafficking networks, as noted by the Court, are involved in:

A. only recruitment of children

B. rehabilitation of children

C. only transportation across states

D. recruitment, transportation, harbouring and exploitation

Answer: D

81. According to the Court, offences of child trafficking violate:

A. economic freedom

B. human dignity and bodily integrity

C. freedom of speech

D. right to property

Answer: B

SECTION IV

XVI. In an English language lab, students were given a short puzzle using the word “COMPUTER.” The teacher said such tasks improve focus and logical thinking. First, the students had to take the first half of the word, reverse those letters, and keep the remaining letters unchanged. Next, they were instructed to find the second last letter of the original word and place it at the beginning of the new arrangement. Finally, to complete the transformation, they had to add the letter “S” at the end. The teacher reminded them that the steps must be followed exactly in the given order, otherwise the final answer would be wrong. Students who carefully applied each condition were able to reach the correct transformed word and understand how small changes in sequence can create a completely new result.

82. Which letter of the original word was placed at the beginning?

A. First letter

B. Last letter

C. Second last letter

D. Middle letter

Answer: C

83. Which letter was added at the end?

A. E

B. R

C. T

D. S

Answer: D

84. Which of the following is the correct transformed word?

A. PMOCUTER

B. EPMOCUTERS

C. COMPUTERS

D. PMOCUTERS

Answer: B

85. How many letters are in the final transformed word?

A. 10

B. 9

C. 8

D. 11

Answer: A

86. After reversing the first half, which letters came at the beginning?

A. COMP

B. PMOC

C. UTER

D. CUTE

Answer: B

87. Which letter was prefixed before adding ‘S’?

A. R

B. E

C. T

D. C

Answer: B

88. Which letter comes first in the final word?

A. P

B. C

C. E

D. M

Answer: C

XVII. On the evening of March 18th, the rare manuscript “The Marlowe Letters” disappeared from the archival room of the National Library. The room was secured by biometric access and a digital keypad. According to system logs, the door was unlocked at 9:42 PM using the correct four-digit PIN, and again locked at 9:58 PM. The library closes at 9:30 PM, after which only authorised staff may remain inside.

Three employees had access to the archives that day: Dev, the senior archivist; Esha, the research assistant; and Farhan, the maintenance supervisor.

• Dev claims he left the building at 9:20 PM after submitting his daily report. CCTV shows him exiting through the main gate at 9:23 PM, but the camera covering the parking area was not functioning.
• Esha states she was in the reading hall until 10:10 PM, completing a catalogue update. Two students confirm seeing her there between 9:35 PM and 9:55 PM.
• Farhan says he was repairing an air-conditioning unit on the third floor from 9:15 PM to 10:00 PM. However, swipe records show he used his access card to enter the archive corridor at 9:40 PM.

Investigators found a torn page from the manuscript in a dustbin near the staff lounge. Dev was known to oppose the manuscript’s public exhibition, arguing it was unsafe to display. Farhan had earlier complained that his overtime payments were denied. Esha recently applied for a foreign scholarship requiring access to the manuscript.

The director insists that only staff who knew the PIN code could open the archive, and the code was changed just two days earlier. Only Dev and Esha were officially informed of the new code.

89. If the director’s statement about the PIN is correct, which inference is most logical?

A. Only Dev or Esha could have opened the archive

B. Farhan is certainly innocent

C. The biometric system failed

D. Students must be mistaken

Answer: A

90. At what time did the theft most likely occur according to system logs?

A. Between 9:30 PM and 10:10 PM

B. Between 9:42 PM and 9:58 PM

C. Between 9:20 PM and 9:40 PM

D. After 10:00 PM

Answer: B

91. Which fact directly contradicts Farhan’s alibi?

A. Swipe record shows him in archive corridor at 9:40 PM

B. He had motive due to overtime dispute

C. The manuscript page was found near staff lounge

D. The PIN code was recently changed

Answer: A

92. The torn manuscript page in the dustbin most strongly suggests that:

A. The thief attempted to destroy evidence

B. The manuscript was accidentally damaged

C. Dev wanted to stop exhibition

D. Esha needed the manuscript for scholarship

Answer: A

93. The director states: “Only staff who knew the PIN could open the archive.” This statement expresses:

A. A false dilemma

B A sufficient condition

C. A causal conclusion

D. A necessary condition

Answer: D

94. Which fact creates the greatest doubt about Dev’s innocence?

A. He left at 9:23 PM

B. He opposed public exhibition

C. CCTV in parking area was not working

D. He submitted daily report

Answer: C

95. Which security mechanisms protected the archival room?

A. Only CCTV cameras

B. Biometric access and digital keypad

C. Security guard and manual lock

D. RFID card and alarm system

Answer: B

XVIII. In a cheerful village, a family invented a clever way to describe their relationships using signs instead of sentences. They decided that P × Q would mean P is the father of Q, P ÷ Q would show P is the mother of Q, P + Q would mean P is the daughter of Q, and P – Q would represent that P is the brother of Q. The children loved speaking in this secret language. One afternoon, Rohan proudly said, “R ÷ S × T!” His grandmother smiled, understanding that R was the mother of S and S was the father of T, making R the grandmother of T. Later, Anu announced, “U + V – W!” which meant U was the daughter of V and V was the brother of W. The elders enjoyed how easily the children could explain even complex family ties through simple symbols. Soon, this symbolic game became their favourite pastime, reminding everyone that relationships may be written in signs, but they are felt in hearts. [165 words]

95. What does the expression A × B represent?

A. A is mother of B

B. A is father of B

C. A is brother of B

D. A is daughter of B

Answer: B

96. If X ÷ Y + Z, what is the relation of X to Z?

A. Grandmother

B. Mother

C. Sister

D. Daughter

Answer: A

97. What does the symbol “–” denote in the passage?

A. Father

B. Husband

C. Son

D. Brother

Answer: D

98. Which expression shows that K is the sister of L?

A. K + L

B. L – K

C. K ÷ L

D. None of the above

Answer: D

99. If A ÷ B × C, how is A related to C?

A. Mother

B. Daughter

C. Grandmother

D. Sister

Answer: C

100. What is the relation of V to W?

A. Father

B. Brother

C. Son

D. Uncle

Answer: B

101. What is the relation of U to V?

A. Daughter

B. Mother

C. Aunt

D. Sister

Answer: A

XIX. Five students—Anita (A), Bhavesh (B), Chetan (C), Divya (D), and Esha (E)—are to give presentations in a school seminar on five consecutive days: Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday. Each student presents on exactly one day. The schedule must follow these conditions:

1. Divya (D) must present before Esha (E).
2. Chetan (C) cannot present on Monday or Friday.
3. Anita (A) must present immediately after Bhavesh (B).
4. Esha (E) cannot present on the day immediately before or after Chetan (C).
5. Bhavesh (B) must present either on Monday or Thursday.

102. Which of the following can be a complete and valid schedule from Monday to Friday?

A. B – A – C – D – E

B. B – A – D – C – E

C. D – B – A – C – E

D. B – A – E – D – C

Answer: A

103. If Chetan presents on Wednesday, which of the following must be true?

A. Bhavesh presents on Monday

B. Anita presents on Tuesday

C. Divya presents on Thursday

D. Esha presents on Friday

Answer: D

104. If Anita (A) presents on Tuesday, what must be the day for Bhavesh (B)?

A. Monday

B. Tuesday

C. Wednesday

D. Thursday

Answer: A

105. How many students present each day?

A. 0

B. 1

C. 2

D. 5

Answer: B

106. Esha (E) cannot present on the day immediately before or after:

A. Anita

B. Bhavesh

C. Chetan

D. Divya

Answer: C

107. Chetan cannot present on:

A. Monday or Friday

B. Tuesday or Thursday

C. Wednesday or Friday

D. Monday or Thursday

Answer: A

108. How many days are presentations scheduled for?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 5

D. 6

Answer: C

XX. The Economic Survey 2024–25, tabled by Union Finance Minister Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman, underscores education and human capital as core drivers of India’s development under the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020. India’s school system currently caters to 24.8 crore students across 14.72 lakh schools with 98 lakh teachers, as per UDISE+ 2023-24. Government schools constitute 69% of institutions, enrolling half of all students, while private schools account for 22.5%. The Survey notes that the Gross Enrolment Ratio is near universal at the primary level (93%), with continued efforts to improve secondary (77.4%) and higher secondary (56.2%) participation to achieve the NEP target of 100% GER by 2030. Dropout rates have declined to 1.9% at primary and 14.1% at secondary levels, while digital infrastructure has expanded markedly—schools with computers rose to 57.2% and internet access to 53.9% in 2023-24. Flagship initiatives such as Samagra Shiksha, NIPUN Bharat, PM SHRI, DIKSHA, STARS, and PM POSHAN are strengthening foundational literacy, numeracy, early childhood education, and social-emotional learning. Special attention is given to Children with Special Needs through accessible infrastructure and assistive support under Samagra Shiksha.

In higher education, India has emerged as one of the world’s largest systems with enrolment rising to 4.33 crore in 2021-22, a 26.5% increase since 2014-15, and GER improving from 23.7% to 28.4%. The Survey stresses the need to double capacity to reach the 50% GER target by 2035. Higher Education Institutions have grown from 51,534 in 2014-15 to 58,643 in 2022-23, alongside expansion of premier institutions such as IITs (16 to 23), IIMs (13 to 20), universities (723 to 1213), and medical colleges (387 to 780). Emphasis is placed on multidisciplinary education, online and open learning, industry-aligned skills, AI-enabled teaching, and inclusive access for learners with disabilities. The Survey reiterates that achieving NEP 2020 goals requires coordinated action among the Centre, States, regulators, and academic institutions to transform India into a global knowledge superpower.

109. According to the Economic Survey 2024-25, how many students are served by India’s school education system?

A. 20.5 crore

B. 22.8 crore

C. 24.8 crore

D. 26.1 crore

Answer: C

110. What percentage of schools in India are government schools as per UDISE+ 2023-24?

A. 50%

B. 69%

C. 75%

D. 82%

Answer: B

111. The National Education Policy 2020 aims to achieve what Gross Enrolment Ratio by 2030?

A. 90%

B. 95%

C. 100%

D. 85%

Answer: C

112. What is the dropout rate at the secondary level according to the Survey?

A. 5.2%

B. 14.1%

C. 10.5%

D. 7.9%

Answer: B

113. Enrolment in higher education increased from 3.42 crore in 2014-15 to:

A. 4.33 crore

B. 4.10 crore

C. 3.95 crore

D. 4.50 crore

Answer: A

114. The GER target for higher education by 2035 is:

A. 40%

B. 45%

C. 50%

D. 60%

Answer: C

XXI. India has made remarkable strides in its clean energy transition, achieving 50% non-fossil fuel capacity by June 2025—five years ahead of its 2030 NDC target. As of November 2025, the country’s total installed electricity capacity stands at 509.64 GW, of which 262.74 GW (51.55%) is from non-fossil sources. Solar and wind have been the major drivers, with renewable capacity addition in 2025 touching a record 44.51 GW, nearly double the previous year. Solar capacity reached 132.85 GW, crossing the 100 GW milestone, while wind capacity rose to 53.99 GW. India now ranks 3rd globally in solar, 4th in wind, and 4th in total renewable energy capacity. On 29 July 2025, renewables met 51.5% of national electricity demand, marking a historic high.

Flagship programmes have accelerated this momentum. Under PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana, over 14.43 lakh rooftop systems were installed in 2025, benefiting 18.14 lakh households. PM-KUSUM enabled installation of over 13 lakh solar pumps in the year, with 64% of total scheme capacity added in 2025 alone. The National Green Hydrogen Mission awarded projects for 4.5 lakh TPA hydrogen, 7.24 lakh TPA green ammonia, and multiple pilots in steel, transport, and ports. Indigenous solar manufacturing surged to 144 GW module capacity, while GST on solar equipment was cut to 5% to boost adoption. These initiatives, supported by R&D breakthroughs and global partnerships, reaffirm India’s leadership toward a resilient, low-carbon energy future.

115. What was India’s total installed electricity capacity as of November 2025?

A. 480.12 GW

B. 509.64 GW

C. 515.20 GW

D. 525.00 GW

Answer: B

116. GST on solar equipment was reduced to:

A. 12%

B. 10%

C. 5%

D. 0%

Answer: C

117. India ranks ______ globally in total renewable energy capacity.

A. 2nd

B. 3rd

C. 5th

D. 4th

Answer: D

118. Under PM-KUSUM, how many solar pumps were installed in 2025?

A. 13 lakh

B. 10 lakh

C. 15 lakh

D. 18 lakh

Answer: A

119. Which two energy sources were identified as major drivers of India’s renewable growth?

A. Solar and wind

B. Hydro and nuclear

C. Biomass and thermal

D. Coal and gas

Answer: A

120. Wind energy capacity in 2025 reached:

A. 45.50 GW

B. 50.25 GW

C. 53.99 GW

D. 60.10 GW

Answer: C