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Environmental Law - Solved High-Quality MCQs for Judiciary Prelims

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Q.1) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Stockholm Conference, 1972?
1. It was the first step towards which put forward environmental concerns on the global agenda.
2. The Stockholm Declaration contained principles and an Action Plan containing recommendations for environmental policy.

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only 1

[B] Only 2

[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 & 2

Q.2) Which environmental law establishes two sets of penal offences whereby the government can sue any person who uses dynamite or other explosive substance in any way (whether coastal or inland) with intent to catch or destroy any fish or poisonous fish in order to kill?

[A] Easement Act

[B] Indian Fisheries Act

[C] Factories Act

[D] Coastal Regulation Zone Notification

Q.3) Consider the following statement (s) related to the Coastal Regulation Zone Notification and identify which is True.
I. It puts regulations on various activities, including construction, are regulated.
II. It gives protection to the backwaters & estuaries.

[A] Only I

[B] Only II

[C] Both I & II

[D] Neither I nor II

Q.4) Consider the following statement (s) related to the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act and identify which one is True.
I. It provides for the protection of birds and animals and for all matters that are connected to it whether it be their habitat or the waterhole or the forests that sustain them.
II. It aims to deal with waste arising from ships along the coastal areas within a specified radius.

[A] Only I

[B] Only II

[C] Both I & II

[D] Neither I nor II

Q.5) The main global contributing factors to greenhouse-gas emissions are:

[A] Electricity production and transportation

[B] Industrial processes

[C] Agricultural processes

[D] Agriculture and transportation

Q.6) Which of the following is the first major Environmental Protection Act to be promulgated in India?

[A] Environment Act

[B] Air Act

[C] Water Act

[D] None of the Above

Q.7) ________ is a problem not associated with population growth.

[A] Food & Energy Storage

[B] Environment pollution

[C] Increased resource consumption

[D] None of the Above

Q.8) The term "environment pollutant" has been defined in the Act includes:

[A] Solid, liquid or gaseous substance present in concentration that is injurious to the environment

[B] Hazardous substances that are responsible for pollution

[C] Takes into account air, water & noise pollution.

[D] All of the Above

Q.9) What is an environment audit?

[A] An idea to check and take necessary action against erring industries and erring officers.

[B] A check on the accounts of the companies involved in environment pollution.

[C] A check on environmental pollutants and the measure on extent of damage caused.

[D] All of the above.

Q.10) The Environment Protection Act is under which of the categories of legislation?

[A] Welfare legislation

[B] Penal legislation

[C] Remedial legislation

[D] None of the Above

Q.11) In M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, the Supreme Court held that the directions given by the Environment Pollution (Prevention and control) Authority Constituted under Section 3, EP Act are….

[A] Binding only to the extent that it conforms with Act.

[B] Final and binding on all persons and organizations concerned and ate bound to follow the same.

[C] Non-binding where reasons are given for justification of the Act.

[D] Non-appealable and binding in nature.

Q.12) What is the objective of the Environment Protection Act 1986?

[A] To implement decisions taken at the UN Conferences on Human Environment in Stockholm, 1972

[B] To take appropriate steps in protection and improvement of human environment.

[C] To prevent hazards to human being, living creatures, plans and property.

[D] All of the above

Q.13) Section 7 of the EP Act directs that persons carrying on any industry shall not discharge any environmental pollutants in excess of standards prescribed by



[C] State Government

[D] Central Government

Q.14) Section 17 of the EP Act is significant provision that provides for an offence committed by any department of government wherein:

[A] Government is excused from liability as the government itself frames the Act.

[B] Head of department shall be deemed guilty and is liable.

[C] The department officials responsible for contravention will be held liable.

[D] No liability since the Act falls within the sovereign function of the State.

Q.15) Which section defines "Environment" under the Act?

[A] Section 2(a)

[B] Section 2 (b)

[C] Section 2(c)

[D] Section 2(d)

Q.16) Article 21, 47, 48-A and 51-A(g) that provide that the State must protect and improve the environment and safeguard forest and wildlife by incorporating which of the following principles of Environmental law?

[A] Polluters pays principle

[B] Precautionary principle

[C] Both A and B

[D] None of the Above

Q.17) When was the Central Pollution Control Board established?

[A] 1972

[B] 1978

[C] 1974

[D] 1982

Q.18) Who appoints the chairman of the Central Pollution Control Board?

[A] Central Government

[B] State Government

[C] Governor of the State

[D] President of India

Q.19) Which one of the following is the apex organization in the country in the field of pollution control?

[A] Water Pollution Control Board

[B] State Pollution Control Board

[C] Central Pollution Control Board

[D] Air pollution Control Board

Q.20) How many officials can be nominated to the Central Pollution Control Board by the Central Government?

[A] Twenty-Five

[B] Fifteen

[C] Ten

[D] Five

Q.21) In State Pollution Control Boards, how many constitutions of committees can be constituted?

[A] One

[B] Ten

[C] None

[D] As many committees as necessary

Q.22) The Central Pollution Control Board plays an important role in abatement and control of pollution in the country.

[A] Yes

[B] No

[C] Depends on the State

[D] None of the Above

Q.23) Where is the head office of the Central Pollution Control Board?

[A] Mumbai

[B] Mysore

[C] New Delhi

[D] Raipur

Q.24) Which is the first country to pass the amendment in the parliament to safeguard the environment?

[A] Brazil

[B] Denmark

[C] China

[D] India

Q.25) Which convention was adopted for the protection of the ozone layer?

[A] Vienna Convention

[B] Basel Convention

[C] Montreal Protocol

[D] Stockholm Convention

Q.26) The concept of sustainable development contains

[A] The precautionary principle

[B] Polluter pays principle

[C] Doctrine of public trust

[D] All of the above

Q.27) Powers to give directions under section 5 of the Environmental Protection Act, 1986, include

[A] Regulation of industry

[B] Closure of industry

[C] Both 1 and 2

[D] None of the above

Q.28) One of the main objectives of the Central Pollution Control Board is to coordinate the activities of State Pollution Control Boards and resolve the disputes among them.

[A] True

[B] False

[C] Partly TRUE

[D] Partly FALSE

Q.29) Which case relates to the issue of sample taking procedure under Water Act?

[A] Delhi bottling case

[B] Kedia leather case

[C] Ratlam case

[D] None of the above

Q.30) Which of the following helped in the saving of trees?

[A] Pouring of water

[B] Developing of chemical manuals

[C] Use of modern agriculture

[D] Development of iron and steel

Q.31) Section 5A provides that any person aggrieved by the direction under section 5 of EPA, 1986, may appeal to

[A] High Court

[B] Supreme Court only

[C] National Green Tribunal

[D] Either 1 or 3

Q.32) When did India launch the Ganga Action plan (GAP)?

[A] 1983

[B] 1984

[C] 1985

[D] 1986

Q.33) The principle of intergenerational equity envisages:

[A] Conservation of options

[B] Conservation of quality

[C] Conservation of access

[D] All of the above

Q.34) Which of the following cases is known as "High Water-mark case in forest protection"?

[A] Salebhai Mulla v. State of Gujarat

[B] T N Godavarman v. UOI

[C] Narmada Bachao Andolan v. UOI

[D] Samantha v. State of Andhra Pradesh

Q.35) The provisions of environmental protection in the constitution were made under:

[A] Article 51A (c)

[B] Article 21B & 48A

[C] Article 27B (h)

[D] Article 48A & 51A (g)

Q.36) Which one of the following movements was carried out for the conservation of forests and the environment?

[A] Forest movement

[B] Tehri Andolan

[C] Chipko Andolan

[D] Ganga Action Plan

Q.37) Which of the following provisions of Indian Penal Code may be resorted to abate the pollution?

[A] Section 268

[B] Section 258

[C] Section 298

[D] Section 195

Q.38) Who is famously known as the 'Green Judge'?

[A] Justice V R Krishna Iyer

[B] Justice P N Bhagwati

[C] Justice Kuldip Singh

[D] Justice B N Kirpal

Q.39) Preamble of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 does not mention:

[A] The Stockholm Conference

[B] Rio Conference

[C] Johannesburg Conference

[D] Article 21 of the Indian Constitution

Q.40) Who adopted the technique of public interest litigation for the cause of environmental protection in many cases

[A] Indian judiciary

[B] Indian Army

[C] Indian Parliament

[D] Indian Civil Services

Q.41) Who is the ex-officio chairperson of the National Board for Wild Life?

[A] Minister of Forest and Wildlife

[B] Prime Minister

[C] Chief Wildlife Warden

[D] Any of the above

Q.42) When was the National Environmental Policy Act signed into law?

[A] 1974

[B] 1969

[C] 1970

[D] 2000

Q.43) Which provision of the Wildlife Act deals with the declaration of a National Park?

[A] Section 35 A

[B] Section 35

[C] Section 35 B

[D] Section 36

Q.44) The number of babies produced per thousand is known as____

[A] Immigration rate

[B] Mortality Rate

[C] Natality Rate

[D] Emigration Rate

Q.45) Which country's environmental law is the National Environmental Policy Act associated with?

[A] India

[B] United States

[C] United Kingdom

[D] France

Q.46) Which of the following was not amended by the National Green Tribunal Act?

[A] The Forest Act

[B] The Wildlife Act

[C] The Biological Diversity Act

[D] The Water Act

Q.47) Consider the following statement (s) related to the Biological Diversity Act.
I. This has been laid down for the regulation of production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances.
II. It is an act to provide for the conservation of biological diversity, sustainable use of its components, and fair and equitable sharing of the benefits arising out of the use of biological resources and knowledge associated with it.

[A] Only I is True

[B] Only II is True

[C] Both I & II are True

[D] Neither I nor II is True

Q.48) Which of the following Acts of environment and ecology is associated with 'law applies to every municipal authority responsible for the collection, segregation, storage, transportation, processing, and disposal of municipal solid wastes'?

[A] Municipal Solid Wastes (Management and Handling) Rules

[B] Environment (Siting for Industrial Projects) Rules

[C] Ozone Depleting Substances (Regulation and Control) Rules

[D] Batteries (Management and Handling) Rules

Q.49) Consider the following statement (s) related to the Public Liability Insurance Act and Rules and identify which is correct.
I. It was drawn up to provide public liability insurance for the purpose of providing immediate relief to the persons affected by the accident while handling any hazardous substance.
II. This law puts regulations on various activities, including construction, are regulated. It gives some protection to the backwaters and estuaries.

[A] Only I

[B] Only II

[C] Both I & II

[D] Neither I nor II

Q.50) The NGT Tribunal has banned the use of non-biodegradable plastic bags less than ____ microns in the entire capital city of Delhi.

[A] 50

[B] 60

[C] 70

[D] 80

Q.51) Which of the following statements is/are correct about National Green Tribunal (NGT)?
1. Establishment of NGT made National Environment Appellate Authority defunct.
2. Mumbai is one of the places of sitting of the Tribunal.

[A] Only I

[B] Only II

[C] Both I & II

[D] Neither I nor II

Q.52) Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of UP is related to:

[A] Polluter Pays principle

[B] Precautionary principle

[C] Public Trust doctrine

[D] None of the above

Q.53) The Environment Protection Act, 1986 has been made under which provision of the constitution?

[A] Article 253

[B] Article 252

[C] Article 249

[D] Article 246

Q.54) Which of the following Environment-related Acts is/are correctly mentioned?

1. Environment Protection Act, 1986

2. Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

3. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981

4. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974

[A] Only (1) and (2)

[B] Only (3) and (4)

[C] Only (1), (2) and (3)

[D] Only (1), (2) and (4).

Q.55) Which committee was setup to evaluate the cleanliness of various fuels on April 27, 2001?

[A] Bhure Lal committee

[B] Santhanam committee

[C] Malimath committee

[D] Madanlal committee

Q.56) Which of the following is True about lakes as well as other water bodies:

[A] Young lake supports more life compared to Old Lake

[B] Young lake supports less life compared to Old Lake

[C] Support to life is similar in Young as well as Old Lake

[D] None of the above.

Q.57) NGT has banned open defecation and dumping of wastes in the floodplains of which river?

[A] Yamuna

[B] Ganga

[C] Godavari

[D] Mahanadi

Q.58) The Environment (Protection) Act of India was enacted in which of the following year?

[A] 1974

[B] 1980

[C] 1986

[D] 2002

Q.59) Which of the following animals are found in the wild animals list under the Wildlife Protection Act in India?

[A] Chimpanzee

[B] Gorilla

[C] Cheetah

[D] Snow Leopard

Q.60) Which of the following legislations does not come within the jurisdiction of NGT?

[A] Environment Protection Act

[B] Wildlife Protection Act

[C] AIR Act

[D] Public Liability Insurance Act

Q.61) NGT has banned kite strings made of which material?

[A] Nylon

[B] Plastic

[C] Synthetic

[D] All of the above

Q.62) Consider the following statements about CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species):
1. CITES is an intergovernmental organisation, restricting international trade of endangered fauna and flora.
2. CITES drafted a resolution adopted at the general conference of UNESCO.
3. CITES is legally binding on the states ratifying the agreement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

[A] Only 1

[B] Only 2 & 3

[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1,2 & 3

Q.63) Consider the following fauna of India:
1. Tiger
2. Lions
3. Rhino
4. Elephants
Currently, the Government of India has sanctioned special protection forces for which of the above?

[A] Only 1 & 3

[B] Only 1 & 2

[C] Only 1, 3 & 4

[D] 1,2,3, & 4

Q.64) Which of the following is/are correct statements regarding the “Protected Forests” in India?
I. No public entry is allowed for collection of timber or grazing of cattle in protected forests.
II. Protected forests are under full control of the government

[A] Only I

[B] Only II

[C] Both I & II

[D] Neither I nor II

Q.65) Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provides punishment for the illegal hunting and trade of wildlife. A tiger which has turned into a man eater can be hunted only if approval comes from ___?

[A] Authorities of the concerned national park/sanctuary

[B] Chief Minister of the state

[C] Environment Ministry, Government of India

[D] Chief wildlife warden of the concerned state

Q.66) The National Green Tribunal (NGT) on 28 September 2015 sought a response from the Union Government on a plea that challenged the construction which the 300 MW multi-purpose project being built by Uttarakhand Jal Vidyut Nigam Limited (UJVNL).

[A] Lakhwar

[B] Bhakra Nangal

[C] Hirakud

[D] None of the above

Q.67) The famous Kigali Amendment is related to:

[A] Phase out the use of hydro fluorocarbons (HFCs)

[B] New global treaty to reduce green house gases emission

[C] International agreement for transboundary movements of genetically modified organisms (GMOs)

[D] International disaster risk reduction plan

Q.68) Consider the following statements about the Paris Agreement:
I. The objective of the agreement is to keep the global average temperature increase below 2 degrees.
II. India has signed as well as ratified the Paris Agreement. Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

[A] Only I

[B] Only II

[C] Both I & II

[D] Neither I nor II

Q.69) National Initiative on Climate Resilient Agriculture (NICRA) is an initiative to enhance the resilience of Indian agriculture covering crops, livestock and fisheries.

[A] True

[B] False

[C] Partly True

[D] Partly False

Q.70) I. Green bond provides issuers access to a specific set of global investors who invest only in green ventures
II. Both private and public sector organizations can raise capital with the help of Green bonds.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

[A] Only I

[B] Only II

[C] Both I & II

[D] Neither I nor II

Q.71) What is the Full Form of NGCP?

[A] National Green Corridor Program

[B] National Green Corridor Policy

[C] Natural Green Corridor Program

[D] Natural Green Corridor Policy

Q.72) How has the CITES treaty helped protect endangered flora and Fauna?

[A] Listing all species that can be hunted, traded, and used commercially

[B] Listing those species and products whose international trade is controlled

[C] Funding projects for breeding endangered plants and animals

[D] Preventing the hunting of whales and dolphins

Q.73) Which of the following statements are correct with respect to the term ecology?
I. Ecology is the scientific study of interaction between the organisms and their environment.
II. Environment refers to everything that surrounds an organism.

[A] Only I

[B] Only II

[C] Both I & II

[D] Neither I nor II

Q.74) Which of the following coined the term ‘ecology’?

[A] Tansley

[B] Ernst Haeckel

[C] Grinnell

[D] Darwin

Q.75) Which of the following is not the function of Wetlands?

[A] Water purification

[B] Control rate of runoff in urban areas

[C] Source of livelihood to local people

[D] Water Conservation in Rural Areas

Q.76) Which of the following statements are correct regarding estuaries?
I. Estuaries are considered the most productive region as it receives the high amount of nutrients from both fresh and marine water.
II. They are the most heavily populated areas throughout the world, with about 60% of the world’s population living along estuaries and the coast.

[A] Only I

[B] Only II

[C] Both I & II

[D] Neither I nor II

Q.77) Which of the following statements are correct?
I. Estuaries are usually biologically low productive zones.
II. They act as a filter for some dissolved constituents in river water; these precipitate in the zone where river water meets seawater.

[A] Only I

[B] Only II

[C] Both I & II

[D] Neither I nor II

Q.78) The development activities along the Seacoast and tidal-influenced water bodies are regulated by which of the following?

[A] The Coastal Regulation Zone (CRZ)

[B] Exclusive Economic Zone

[C] Island Protection Zone (IPZ)

[D] Both A & C

Q.79) Which of the following is not a status allocated by IUCN to flora & fauna?

[A] Endangered

[B] Critically Endangered

[C] Vulnerable

[D] Critically Vulnerable

Q.80) What is the status of the Tana River red colobus in the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species?

[A] Endangered

[B] Critically Endangered

[C] Threatened

[D] Near Threatened

Q.81) Which of the following statements are correct about the Johannesburg Summit?
1. The Johannesburg Plan of Implementation was agreed upon at the World Summit on Sustainable Development or the Earth Summit 2005.
2. It affirmed UN's commitment to ‘full implementation’ of Agenda 21, alongside the achievement of the Millennium Development Goals and other international agreements. Select the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only 1

[B] Only 2

[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 & 2

Q.82) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Convention on the Conservation of Migratory Species of Wild Animals?
1. Appendix I of the convention lists migratory species that are endangered or threatened with extinction.
2. Appendix II of the convention lists migratory species which have an unfavourable conservation status and which require international agreements for their conservation and management.
Select the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only 1

[B] Only 2

[C] Both 1 & 2

[D] Neither 1 & 2

Q.83) The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act was passed in which of the following years?

[A] 1973

[B] 1974

[C] 1975

[D] 1976

Q.84) The Indian Forest Act, 1927 establishes how many categories of forests.

[A] 2

[B] 3

[C] 4

[D] 5

Q.85) What is the maximum time limit given to the National Green Tribunal to dispose of the cases?

[A] 3 Months

[B] 6 Months

[C] 9 Months

[D] 1 Year

Q.86) Central Zoo Authority was established in which of the following years?

[A] 1991

[B] 1992

[C] 1993

[D] 1994

Q.87) The concept of sustainable development was described by which of the following?

[A] Club of Rome

[B] Agenda 21

[C] Brundtland Commission Report

[D] None of the above

Q.88) Which of the following law allows private rights to use a resource that is, groundwater, by viewing it as an attachment to the land?

[A] Easement Act

[B] Indian Fisheries Act

[C] Factories Act

[D] All of the Above

Q.89) Which of the following is the United Nations (UN) decade of education for sustainable development?

[A] 2005-2014

[B] 2004-2013

[C] 1998-2007

[D] 1993-2002

Q.90) Which of the following gas was leaked in the Bhopal Gas tragedy?

[A] Methyl isocyanate

[B] Methane

[C] Propane

[D] Methyl alcohol

Q.91) Which of the following statements are correct regarding the Wildlife corridor or Green corridor?
1. It is an area of habitat which connects wildlife populations separated by human activities.
2. Wildlife corridors may be both natural or created.
3. These corridors help animals that move between isolated patches on a daily basis and also those that migrate between habitats seasonally.

[A] Only 1 & 2

[B] Only 2 & 3

[C] Only 1 & 3

[D] 1, 2 & 3

Q.92) Which provision of the Wildlife Act deals with the declaration of sanctuaries?

[A] Section 18

[B] Section 18A

[C] Section 18B

[D] Section 18C

Q.93) The Forest Act penalises the offences by the Authorities and Government Department under which provision of the Act:

[A] Section 5A

[B] Section 3B

[C] Section 8A

[D] Section 5B

Q.94) Who is responsible for safe disposal of the generated hazardous waste under the Hazardous Waste Management Rules?

[A] Generator

[B] Receiver

[C] Waste Management Facility


Q.95) The activities of hazardous waste management facility are ________





Q.96) What is the goal of Hazardous Waste Management Unit?

[A] Protect health and environment by risks of HW

[B] Chemical analysis

[C] Import

[D] Export

Q.97) With which activity will you associate the term bycatch?

[A] Poaching

[B] HUnting

[C] Fishing

[D] Deforestation

Q.98) What do you mean by the term Bycatch?

[A] Overfishing of marine species

[B] Fishing of prohibited species

[C] Poaching of aquatic animals

[D] The unintended catch of marine species.

Q.99) In which case did the Supreme Court laid down the Public Trust Doctrine?

[A] M.C. Mehta v. UoI (Taj Trapezium Case)

[B] M.C. Mehta v. Kamal Nath

[C] Rural Entitlement Litigation Kendra v. State of U.P.

[D] Municipal Council, Ratlam v. Shri Vardhichand

Q.100) The Forest (Conservation) Act was enacted in the year

[A] 1974

[B] 1980

[C] 1986

[D] 1990


1) C

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) A

6) C

7) D

8) D

9) A

10) A

11) B

12) D

13) D

14) B

15) A

16) C

17) C

18) A

19) C

20) D

21) D

22) A

23) C

24) D

25) A

26) D

27) C

28) A

29) A

30) D

31) C

32) C

33) D

34) B

35) D

36) C

37) A

38) C

39) C

40) A

41) B

42) C

43) B

44) C

45) B

46) B

47) B

48) A

49) A

50) A

51) A

52) B

53) A

54) A

55) A

56) B

57) A

58) C

59) D

60) B

61) D

62) C

63) A

64) D

65) D

66) A

67) A

68) D

69) A

70) C

71) A

72) B

73) C

74) B

75) D

76) C

77) B

78) D

79) D

80) B

81) B

82) C

83) B

84) B

85) B

86) B

87) B

88) A

89) A

90) A

91) D

92) A

93) B

94) A

95) C

96) A

97) C

98) D

99) B

100) B

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