Find UGC NET Paper [December 2021 and June 2022 (merged cycles)], 2022 (Law) Solved Paper on Legal Bites.

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UGC NET Paper (Law) [December 2021 and June 2022 (merged cycles)], 2022

1) Who said that there are two elements of possession (a) Corpus possessions and (b) Animus domain?

1. Ihering

2. Paton

3. Savigny

4. Salmond

2) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Hart deals with primary rules of obligation and secondary rules of recognition.

Statement II: Hart has nothing to do with the reformulation of analytical positivism.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

1. Both statements I and Statement II are correct.

2. Both statements I and Statement II are incorrect.

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

3) Trade secrets do not cover the following information:

1. Commercially valuable

2. Production methods

3. Business plans

4. Information discovered by revenue engineering

4) Article 13 of the Constitution India does not apply to:

1. Any legislation made by the Parliament under Article 245 of the Constitution.

2. Any legislation made by the Parliament under Article 253 of the Constitution giving effect to international agreements.

3. Any amendment of the Constitution made under Article 368.

4. Custom and Usage.

5) Under which article of the Constitution of India, is it the duty of the Union to protect every State against external aggression and internal disturbance and to ensure that the government of every state is carried on, in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution of India?

1. Article 353

2. Article 354

3. Article 355

4. Article 356

6) Every decision of the Goods and Services Tax Council shall require it to be taken at a meeting:

1. By a majority of not less than two-thirds of the weighted votes of the members present.

2. By a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted notes of the members present.

3. By a majority of not less than two-thirds of the weighted notes of all the members of the Council.

4. By a majority of not less than three-fourths of the weighted notes of all the members of the council.

7) Which of the following is/are NOT administrative actions?

1. Internment, Externment and Deportation

2. Functions of selection committee

3. Fact- finding action

4. Forming an opinion on objective satisfaction

8) Every state and every local authority within the state is required to provide adequate facilities for instruction in the mother tongue at the primary stage of education to children belonging to linguistic minority groups under:

1. Article 350

2. Article 350 A

3. Article 350 B

4. Article 351

9) Ordinarily, delegated legislation can be given

1. prospective effect only

2. retrospective effect only

3. both, prospective and retrospective effect

4. effect, as the Court may decide

10) In which one of the following cases, Legal aid was held as a fundamental right?

1. Sunil Batra case

2. M.H. Hoskot case

3. Prem Shankar Shukla case

4. Keshvananda Bharathi case

11) The Hicklin test under Article 19(2) is related to:

1. Defamation

2. Decency and morality

3. Integrity of India

4. Negligence

12) In the Constitution of India, the principle of Rule of Law is mainly embodied in

1. Article 14

2. Article 32

3. Article 226

4. Article 227

13) Which of the following is NOT correct under the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act 1999.

1. Producer, in case of agricultural goods, includes the person who produces the goods.

2. Producer, in case of agricultural goods, includes the person who packages such goods

3. Producer, in case of natural goods, includes the person who exploits such goods

4. Producer, in case of handicrafts, includes the person who packages such goods

14) Which of the following can be registered as a Trade Mark?

1. Mark devoid of distinctive character

2. A distinctive mark

3. A mark causing confusion

4. Oval shape for medicinal tablet

15) Who defined ownership as plenary control over an object?

1. Roscoe Pound

2. Holmes

3. Holland

4. Paton

16) Who said, "A legal person, is any subject matter other than a human being to which law attributes personality"?

1. Salmond

2. Holmes

3. Jerome Frank

4. Pound

17) In the light of the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013 which of the following statements are correct?

1. The word rape in section 375 (PC has been replaced with sexual assault

2. Rape is now a gender-neutral offence

3. The Amendment has fixed the age for consensual sex as 16 years

4. The Amendment has fixed the age for consensual sex as 18 years

18) The doctrine, res-ipsa loquitur, was applied by the Supreme Court in

1. Alka v. Union of India

2. Asa Ram v. Municipal Corporation of Delhi

3. Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Subhagwanti

4. Jasbir Kaur v. State of Punjab

19)The test of reasonable foresight in determining the remoteness of damages was first applied in

1. Re: Polerris

2. Wagon Mound Case

3. Doughty v. Turner Manufacturing Co.Ltd

4. SCM (United Kingdom) Ltd. v. WJ.Whittal & Sons

20)The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, talks about direct selling, e-commerce and electronic service provider

1. True

2. False

3. Consumer Protection Act, 1986 did not provide about this.

4. Both 1 and 3

21) In order to establish a cartel, what is NOT necessary?

1. There should be an agreement

2. It should be between an association of producers, sellers, distributors, traders or service providers.

3. The objective should be limit, control or attempt to control the product distribution, sale or price of or trade in goods or provisions of services

4. Cartels are very good for competition.

22) Which one of the following is NOT one of the modes of termination of agency?

1. Insolvency of principal

2. Principal or agent's death

3. General Lien

4. Revocation

23) Voluntarily has been defined as an effect caused by means, whereby a person intended to cause it or by means, at the time of employing those means, to know or had reason to believe to be likely to cause it under

1. Section 35 IPC

2. Section 36 IPC

3. Section 30 IPC.

4. Section 40 IPC

24) Arrange the following cases chronologically (starting from the earliest to the latest)

A. National Legal Service Authority v. U.O.I

B. Naz Foundation v. Govt. of NCT

C. Navtej Singh Johar v. U.O.I

D. Suresh Kaushal v. Naz foundation

E. The cases of Navtej Singh Johar and Suresh Kaushal were decided in the same

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. C, E, B, D

2. D, B, A, C

3. B, D, A, C

4. E, D, A, B

25) ______________ has to provide by making regulations for any class or class of companies which may file a shelf prospectus with the Registrar at the stage of first offer of securities

1. NCLT

2. SEBI

3. IBBI

4. Director of a company

26) Every partner of a partnership firm is liable for all the acts of the firm done while he is a partner. This doctrine is called:

1. The doctrine of holding out

2. The doctrine of restitution

3. The doctrine of estoppel

4. The doctrine of proportionality

27) When an unmarried woman adopts a child and subsequently marries, the person who she subsequently marries shall be the

1. adoptive father of the child

2. stepfather of the child

3. natural father of the child

4. Either 1 or 2

28) Which of the following is NOT a ground of divorce available to wife under section 13(2) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

1. Pre-Act bigamous marriage of the husband

2. Repudiation of manage

3. Cruelty by husband

4. Husband guilty of rape, sodomy and bestiality

29) The children born out of a void Hindu marriage are in the eyes of law

1. illegitimate

2. legitimate

3. illegitimate, having no rights in the ancestral property

4. legitimate but having right of inheritance limited to their parent's property only

30) Restitution of Conjugal rights has its genesis under the

1. English Law

2. Indian Law

3. Jewish Law

4. Swedish Law

31) Among the Muslims, Sariri is the stage

1. when the boy or the girl is below 10 years of age

2. when the boy or the girl is above seven years but below fifteen years

3. when the boy or the girl is above fifteen years of age

4. when the boy or the girl is above 10 years of age

32) The law relating to armed conflicts of non-international character is governed by

1. Common Article 3 of the Geneva Convention, 1949 or the Additional Protocol I, 1977

2. Common Article 3 of the Geneva Convention 1949 or the Additional Protocol II, 1977

3. Additional Protocols, I and II, 1977

4. Only Additional Protocol 1977

33) Nottebohm's case deals with Nationality by

1. Naturalisation

2. Birth

3. Resumption

4. Subjugation

34) Which of the following doctrines is called as Doctrine of Non-recognition?

1. Estrada Doctrine

2. Hallestein Doctrine

3. Franco Doctrine

4. Stimson Doctrine

35) Pacta Terties Nec Nocent Nec Prosunt means

1. Multilateral treaties prevail over bilateral treaties

2. Treaties are not binding in case of situations of emergency

3. Only parties to an international treaty are bound by it

4. The right of innocent passage cannot be thwarted by bilateral treaties

36) "General principles of law recognized by civilized states, as a source of international law has been applied in following case:

1. Corfu Channel case

2. Asylum case

3. Mavrommatis Palestine Concessions case

4. Reparations case

37) Which of the following is incorrect?

1. An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be voidable

2. An agreement enforceable by law is a contract

3. Every promise and every set of promises forming the consideration for each other is an agreement

4. An agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void

38) Which of the following is false?

1. A contract is frustrated where the actual and specific subject matter of the contract has ceased to exist

2. A contract will frustrate where circumstances arise which make the performance of the contract impossible in the manner contemplated

3. A contract which required personal performance by promisor is frustated on the death of the promisor

4. Ceasing of subject matter of contract does not frustrate the contract

39) Which one of the following is correct?

1. A public company can be formed with a minimum of nine persons

2. A private company can be formed with two or more persons

3. Memorandum of Association is not required for registration of a company

4. Articles of Association is not required for registration of a company

40) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: A master is liable for all tortious acts of his servants done in the course of employment

Reason R: The representatives of the dead person are, in certain cases, liable for the acts of the deceased

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

41) The Competition Act, 2002, provides for which of the following?

A. Establishment of a Commission to prevent practices having effect on competition

B. To promote and sustain competition in markets

C.To protect the interests of consumers

D.To ensure freedom of trade carried on by the other participants in the markets

E. To establish NCLT and NCLAT to decide various matters

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. A, B, C, D and E

2. B, C and D only

3. C, D and E only

4. A, B, C and D only

42) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: The President of India is a mere constitutional head

Reason R: In the parliamentary form of government, the Prime Minister is the head

In light of the above statements: choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

43) Given below are two statements

Statement I: For Judicial review. irrationality means that the decision is so outrageous in its defiance of logic or accepted moral standards, that no sensible person could have arrived at such a decision

Statement II: For judicial review, unreasonableness means either the facts do not warrant the conclusion reached by the authority or the decision is partial and unequal in its operation

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement is correct but statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

44) Given below are two statements

Statement I: The power of legislation carries with it the power to delegate and unless the legislature has completely abdicated or effaced itself, there is no restriction on delegation of legislative powers

Statement II: Parliament can abdicate or efface itself by creating a parallel legislative body

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement is correct but Statement Il is incorrect

4. Statement is incorrect but Statement II is correct

45) Given below are two statements

Statement I: A contract which ceases to be enforceable by law becomes void when it ceases to be enforceable

Statement II: An agreement in restraint of trade is voidable In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement and Statement II are true

2. Both Statement and Statement II are false

3. Statement is true but Statement II is false

4. Statement is false but Statement Il is true

46) Given below are two statements

Statement I: It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislations

Statement II: it is the duty of the Prime Minister to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for legislation, as the President may call for

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement Il are true

2. Both Statement I and Statement I are false

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false

4 Statement I is false but Statement II is true

47) Given below are two statements

Statement I: An appeal shall lie in the Supreme Court from any judgment. final order or sentence in a criminal proceeding of a High Court in the territory of India. if the High Court has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person and sentenced him to death

Statement II: An appeal shall lie in the Supreme Court from any judgement, final order or sentence in a criminal proceeding of a High Court in the territory of India if the High Court has withdrawn from trial before itself any case from any court subordinate to its authority and has in such a trial convicted the accused person and sentenced him to death

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement Il are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement Il is correct

48) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Imperative law means "a concept of the rule of action imposed upon men by some authority which enforces obedience to it

Statement II: Natural law signifies the principles of natural right and wrong

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement is incorrect but Statement is correct

49) Given below are two statements

Statement I: "All human beings are not legal persons"

Statement II: "State is a juristic person"

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

50) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Holland defines ownership as 'plenary control over an object'

Statement II: Ownership is either vested or contingent

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement II is incorrect but Statement II is correct

51) A. An agreement without consideration is a void contract

B. An agreement in restraint of marriage is a voidable contract

C. An unmeaning agreement is a void contract

D. An agreement to do impossible acts is a voidable contract

E. An agreement in restraint of legal proceedings is a void contract

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. A and C only

2. B and D only

3. A. C and E only

4. E only

52) A. Freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse is covered in Article 301

B. Restrictions on legislative powers of the Union and States with regard to trade and commerce are covered in Article 302

C. Power of Parliament to impose Restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse is covered in Article 302

D. Restrictions on trade, commerce and intercourse among states are covered in Article 304

E. Appointment of authority for carrying out the purposes of Article 301-304 is enshrined in Article 306.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. A, C and D only

4. B, D and E only

53) A. Courts cannot review the question as to what "aid and advice" is given by the Council of Ministries to the President

B. The question of "aid and advice" by the Council of Ministers is a justifiable issue

C. Article 14 cannot be invoked against discrimination made by constitutional provisions

D. The question of "aid and advice" by the Council of Ministers is a non-justifiable issue

E. Article 14 can be worked against discrimination made by constitutional provisions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. A, C and D only

3. B, C and D only

4. C, D and E only

54) The institution of Ombudsman was first developed in

1. India

2. UK

3. France

4. Sweden

55) A car was sold on 'as is' basis and without any warranty or guarantee whatever. After 5 days of the contract, the engine of the car blew up. Discuss the liability of the seller.

1. He is liable for the damages due to the doctrine of fundamental breach of standard form of contract

2. The seller is not liable because the car was sold on 'as is' basis and without any warranty or guarantee

3. The buyer should take care if he buys a second-hand car

4. Under standard form contract, in this case, contributory negligence is applicable

56) Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Theory of JusticeI. David Hume
B. Idea of JusticeII. John Rowls
C.Nicomachean EthicsIII. Amartya Sen
D. An Enquiry Concerning the principles of moralsIV. Aristotle

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

4. A-II, C-I, B-III, A-IV

57) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence.

Reason R: Z is carried off by a tiger. A fires at the tiger knowing that the shot may kill Z. His shot gives Z a mortal wound. A has not committed any offence.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

58) Arrange the following in chronological order starting from earlier to later years:

A. The Trade Marks Act

B. The Patents Act

C. The Design Act

D. The Copyright Act

E. The Protection of Plant Varieties and Farmers' Rights Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. A, B, C, D, E

2. B. D. A, E, C

3. D. B. A, C, E

4. A, B, C, E, D

59) National Commission for Backward Classes has been created through which Amendment to the Constitution of India?

1.100th Amendment

2. 101st Amendment

3. 102nd Amendment

4.103 Amendment

60) Under Article 338(5) of the Constitution of India, National Commission for Scheduled Castes has:

1. the power to issue caste certificates

2. the power to revoke caste certificates’

3. the power to decide validity of caste certificates

4. no power to issue/revoke certificates and has no power to decide upon the validity of caste certificates

61) Arrange the following Protocols/Declarations in the correct chronological sequence

A. Kyoto Protocol

B. Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety

C. Montreal Protocol

D. Nagoya Protocol

E. Rio Declaration on Environment and Development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. E. A, B, C D

2. E, B, C, D, A

3. E, CA, B. D

4. E, D, C, B. A

62) The National Green Tribunal Act. 2010 came into force on

1.10 May 2010

2.18 August 2010

3.10 December 2010

4.18 October 2010

63) Read the following principles of the Rio Declaration on Environment and Development (1992) and select the correct answer from the given options:

A. Principle 1: Human beings are at the centre of concerns for sustainable development

B. Principle 16: In order to protect the environment, the precautionary approach shall be widely applied by states according to their capabilities

C. Principle 14: Environmental Impact Assessment...shall be undertaken for proposed activities that are likely to have a significant adverse impact on the environment

D. Principle 20 Women have a vital role in environmental management and development

E. Principle 24: Peace, development and environmental protection are interdependent and indivisible

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and D only

2. B and C only

3. C and E only

4. B and E only

64) The word "Environment" has been defined under which of the section of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

1. Section 2(a)

2. Section 2(e)

3. Section 2(d)

4. Section 2(b)

65) Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Application of the Act to electronic cheque and truncated chequeI. Sec.3A
B. Electronic SignatureII. Sec. 81 A
C. Secure Electronic RecordIII. Sec.15
D. Validity of contracts formed through electronic meansIV. Sec. 10 A

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

4. A-IV, C-III, B-II, A-I

66. Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Voluntarily causing grievous hurt by use of acidI. 354-A, IPC
B. Voluntary throwing or attempting to throw acidII. 326-B, IPC
C. Sexual Harassment and punishment for sexual harassmentIII. 354-D, IPC
D. StalkingIV. 326-A, IPC

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

2. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

3. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

4. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

67) Match List I with List II

List IList II

A. Solomon v. Solomon

I. Voting Rights
B. Royal British Bank v. TurquandII. Corporate Personality
C. Ashbury Railway Carriage & Iron v. Riche (Ashbury)III. Doctrine of Ultra-Vires
D. Vodafone International Holdings v. UOIIV. Doctrine of Indoor Management

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

4. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I

68) Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Judicial ReviewI. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narayan
B. Free and Fair ElectionII. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
C. Balance between Part III and IV of the ConstitutionIII. S. R. Bommai v. Union of India
D. SecularismIV. Minerva Mills Ltd. v. Union Of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

3. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

69) Match List I with List II

List IList II

Doctrine of Pith and Substance

I. What cannot be done directly, cannot be done indirectly

Doctrine of Incidental encroachment

II. The Part of Statute which is bad cannot be severed from the rest

Doctrine of Severability

III. A Law is not invalid even though trenched incidentally to another list.

Doctrine of Colourable legislation

IV. True nature and character of the legislation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

70) Match List I with List II

List IList II
A. Post ModernismI. Grund Norm
B. Source of LawII. Ratio Decidendi
C. Authority of a decision as a precedentIII. Critical Legal Studies
D. Analytical SchoolIV. Volkgeist

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

4. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

71) Greenhouse effect means:

Increase in atmospheric temperature due to the concentration of greenhouse

1. gases in the atmosphere

2. Growing vegetables and flowers in increased temperature

3. Growing food crops in glass houses

4. Photosynthesis in plants grown in sunlight received in the glass house

72) Match List I with List II

List IList II
ProvisionSection
A. Void marriageI. Section 27, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
D. Divorce by mutual consentII. Section 24, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
C. Maintenance pendente liteIII. Section 13-B, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
D. Disposal of PropertyIV. Section 11, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

73) Match List I with List II

List I

List II

A. Mersey Dock’e v. Proctor

i. Statutory Authority

B. Metropolitan Asylum District

ii. Vicarious liability

C. Nichols v. Marsland

III. Inevitable accident

D. Holmes

IV. Act of God

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

2. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV

3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

4. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

74) Match List I with List II

List I

List II

A. Bonn Convention

I. Protection of the ozone layer

B. Vienna Convection

II. Control of transboundary movements of hazardous wastes and their disposal

C. Basel Convention

III. Conservation of migratory species of wild animals

D. Rotterdam Convention

IV. Prior informed consent procedure for certain hazardous chemicals and pesticides in international trade.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

2. A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV

3. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III

4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

75) Match List I with List II

List I

List II

A. Ramsar Convention

1992

B. Convention on Biological Diversity

1994

C. Minamata Convention

1991

D. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification

2013

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

4. A-II, B-I , C-IV, D-III

76) Arrange in chronological order the case laws pertaining to cruelty under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 (year-wise from beginning till the latest)

A. Durga Prasanna Tripathy v. Arundhati Tripathy

B. Bhagwat v. Bhagwat

C. Parveen Mehta v. Inderjeet Mehta

D. Swapan Kumar Das v. Maya Rani Dutta

E. Satendra Kumar Gupta v. Kanchan Gupta & Ors

Choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. B, C, A, D, E

2. A, C, B, D, E

3. C, D, A, B, E

4. D, C, B, A, E

77) In case of theft under IPC, the following ingredients are necessary

A. Dishonest intention to take the property

B. The property can be movable or immovable

C. Property should be taken without the consent of the person

D. There must be some removal of the property

E. The property must be movable property

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, D and C only

2. B, C, D and E only

3. A CD and E only

4. A, B, C and E only

78) The following is/are the exceptions to the principle of strict liability

A. Act of God

B. Consent of the plaintiff

C. Intention of the defendant

D. Act of third party

E. Minority

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A and B only

2. A, B and D only

3. A, C and D only

4. B and E only

79) Which of the following are true with regard to the desertion of spouse under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

A. Factum of Separation

B. Animus deserendi

C. Prescribed period of 2 years must have passed before presentation of petition

D. With reasonable cause

E. Without the consent of the petitioner

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, C, D and E only

2. B, C and D only

3. A, B, C and E only

4. A, B and D only

80) Choose the correct chronological order of the emergence of the schools of Jurisprudence (earliest to the latest):

A. Natural Law School, Historical, Analytical Positivism, Realist

B. Historical, Natural, Realist, Analytical Positivism

C. Analytical Positivism, Historical, Realist, Natural Law School

D. Realist, Historical, Analytical Positivism, Natural Law School

E. Realist, Natural, Historical, Analytical Positivism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A only

2. B only

3. C only

4. D only

81) Choose the correct chronological order of the jurists from the earliest to the latest:

A. Austin, Bentham, Pound, Holmes

B. Bentham, Holmes, Austin, Pound

C. Bentham, Austin, Pound, Holmes

D. Holmes, Austin, Bentham, Pound

E. Bentham, Holmes, Pound, Austin

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B only

2. Either A or B

3. C only

4. E only

82 ) The following can be appointed as the Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).

1. Only a person who has been the Chief Justice of the Supreme court

2. A person who has been the Chief Justice of the Supreme court or a Judge of the Supreme court

3. A person who has been the Chief Justice of a High court

4. A person who has been a Judge of the High court

83) Select the right answer from the given options:

A. COP 26: Glasgow Climate Change Conference

B. COP 25: Lima Climate Change Conference

C. COP 24: Marrakesh Climate Change Conference

D. COP 22: Katowice Climate Change Conference

E. COP 21: Paris Climate Change Conference

Choose the correct answers

1. A and E only

2. B and C only

3. B and D only

4. C and D only

84) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: A bigamous marriage is void under Hindu Law

Reason R: A child born out of void marriage is legitimate child of his parents

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. 2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. 3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

85) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Personal rights are inheritable

Statement II: Legal rights are recognized and enforced by law

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

86) Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: The ex post-facto laws are laws which voided and punished an act that had been lawful when done

Reason R: Imposing or increasing a penalty with retrospective affect for violation of a taxing statute does not infringe Article 20(1)

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below

1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is true but R is false

4. A is false but R is true

87) Given below are two statements

Statement I: A negotiable instrument' means a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque payable either to order or to bearer

Statement II: Holder means any person who for consideration became the possessor of a promissory note, bill of exchange or cheque, if payable to bearer or the payee or endorsee

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement is incorrect but Statement II is correct

88) Given below are two statements

Statement I: A childless stepmother is entitled to claim maintenance under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act. 1956

Statement II: Under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act. 1956, if the son is to be adopted, the adoptive father or mother should not have a Hindu Son, Son's Son or Son's Son's Son (whether by legitimate blood relationship or by adoption) living at the time of adoption

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

89) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Every public company shall have at least three directors and every private company shall have at least two directors.

Statement II: There can be a maximum of 15 directors and for having more than 15 directors, the company may pass a special resolution.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

90) Given below are two statements

Statement I: A becomes surety to C for B's conduct as a manager in C's bank. Afterwards, B and C contract, without A's consent that B's salary shall be raised and that he shall become liable for one-fourth of the losses on overdrafts. B allows a customer to overdraw and the bank loses a sum of money.

Statement II: A is liable to make good the loss as he is a surety to C for B's conduct.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

91) Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

The binding force of international law is based on the supreme fundamental norm or principle known as Pacta sunt servanda. This means that agreements entered into by States will be respected and followed by them in good faith. This is a well established and recognised custom of international law. The customary principle of international law has now been codified and finds mention in Article 26 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969

The principle of Pacto sunt servanda is also based on the actual practice of the States. It emphasises the importance of the agreement entered into by States and regards them as the basis of international law.

There is a view that to assert the binding force of international law is based only on the principle of Pacta sunt servanda is far from the truth. It fails to explain the binding force of customary rules of international law which are not based on agreement between States. The realisation that international customary law does not rest on agreements and that the tenet. Pacta sunt servanda is itself a rule of customary law, led to new formulations of the basic norm.

Kelsen has decided on a formula which takes into account usage, as the fact which is the origin of the rules of international law - States ought to behave as they have customarily behaved.

Which of the following is correct?

1. Pacta sunt servanda is an absolute principle

2. Pacta sunt servanda covers unequal treaties also

3. Pacta sunt servanda is not an absolute principle as it fails to explain the binding force of customary rules of international law

4. Pacta sunt servanda explains the binding force of customary rules of international law.

92) Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

The binding force of international law is based on the supreme fundamental norm or principle known as Pacto sunt servanda. This means that agreements entered into by States will be respected and followed by them in good faith. This is a well-established and recognised custom of international law. The customary principle of international law has now been codified and finds mention in Article 26 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969

The principle of Pacto unt servando is also based on the actual practice of the States. It emphasises the importance of the agreement entered into by States and regards them as the basis of international law.

There is a view that to assert the binding force of international law is based only on the principle of Pacta sunt servanda is far from the truth. It fails to explain the binding force of customary rules of international law which are not based on agreement between States. The realisation that international customary law does not rest an agreements and that the tenet. Pacta sunt servanda is itself a rule of customary law, led to new formulations of the basic norm.

Kelsen has decided on a formula which takes into account usage, as the fact which is the origin of the rules of international law "States ought to behave as they have customarily behaved.

The codification of Pacta sunt servanda finds a mention in which Article of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969?

1. It does not find mention in the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969

2. Article 26

3. Article 2

4. Article 47

93) Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

The binding force of international law is based on the supreme fundamental norm or principle known as Pacta sunt servanda. This means that agreements entered into by States will be respected and followed by them in gooot faith. This is a well established and recognised custom of international law. The customary principle of international law has now been codified and finds mention in Article 26 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969

The principle of Pacta sunt servando is also based on the actual practice of the States. It emphasises the importance of the agreement entered into by States and regards them as the basis of international law.

There is a view that to assert the binding force of international law is based only on the principle of Pacta sunt servanda is far from the truth. It fails to explain the binding force of customary rules of international law which are not based on agreement between States. The realisation that international customary law does not rest on agreements and that the tenet, Pacta sunt servanda is itself a rule of customary law, led to new formulations of the basic norm.

Kelsen has decided on a formula which takes into account usage, as the fact which is the origin of the rules of international law - "States ought to behave as they have customarily behaved.

The literal meaning of Pacta sunt servanda is

1. Pacts are sacred

2. Pacts are good servants

3. Pacts need not be observed

4. Agreements must be observed

94) Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

The binding force of international law is based on the supreme fundamental norm or principle known as Pacta sunt servanda. This means that agreements entered into by States will be respected and followed by them in good faith. This is a well established and recognised custom of international law. The customary principle of international law has now been codified and finds mention in Article 26 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969

The principle of Pacta sunt servando is also based on the actual practice of the States. It emphasises the importance of the agreement entered into by States and regards them as the basis of international law.

There is a view that to assert the binding force of international law is based only on the principle of Pacta sunt servanda is far from the truth. It fails to explain the binding force of customary rules of international law which are not based on agreement between States. The realisation that international customary law does not rest on agreements and that the tenet. Pacta sunt servanda is itself a rule of customary law, led to new formulations of the basic norm.

Kelsen has decided on a formula which takes into account usage, as the fact which is the origin of the rules of international law - States ought to behave as they have customarily behaved.

To which docs the passage give primacy. Pacta sunt servanda or the principles of customary international law?

1. Pacts sunt servanda

2. Principles of customary international law

3. Both Pacta sunt servando and the principles of customary international law

4. Neither Pacta sunt servanda nor principles of customary international law

95) Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

The binding force of international law is based on the supreme fundamental norm or principle known as Pacta sunt servanda. This means that agreements entered into by States will be respected and followed by them in good faith. This is a well éstablished and recognised custom of international law. The customary principle of international law has now been codified and finds mention in Article 26 of the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties, 1969

The principle of Pacta sunt servanda is also based on the actual practice of the States. It emphasises the importance of the agreement entered into by States and regards them as the basis of international law.

There is a view that to assert the binding force of international law is based only on the principle of Pacta sunt servanda is far from the truth. It fails to explain the binding force of customary rules of international law which are not based on agreement between States. The realisation that international customary law does not rest on agreements and that the tenet, Pacta sunt servanda is itself a rule of customary law, led to new formulations of the basic norm.

Kelsen has decided on a formula which takes into account usage, as the fact which is the origin of the rules of international law - States ought to behave as they have customarily behaved.

Kelsen focuses on

1. Primacy of Pacta sunt servanda

2. State behaviour being in conformity with customary international law

3. Pacta sunt servanda being responsible for the growth of customary international law

4. Pacta sunt servanda being independent of the principles of customary international law

96) Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

"In England justice goes to the people; in India the people had to come to justice (The litigant) had to find his way to this strange tribunal in an unknown land as best he could, in charge of the police, whose tender mercies he dreaded, or alone.

If he went alone, it was not for long. Around the Courts were swarms of petty lawyers who had their touts on the roads and in the villages. Longer he came within hail of the Court he had been fastened upon by several of these, and persuaded that his only chance of success was to put himself in their hands; say what they bade him; pay what, when, and to whom they told him; and above all, to beware of telling the truth; it would never be believed.

In those strange cases there was no common ground. What-ever one side asserted that other denied; all the witnesses were tutored; and whether true or not to begin with the case as presented on both sides was invariably concocted for one came to the conclusion that nearly all, save a few of the graver cases, were episodes in some dispute not before the Court. The parties were not the real parties, but puppets of others, who remained in the back ground paying for and directing the proceedings. Most of the genuine disputes never reached our Courts at all, but were settled at some earlier stage in other ways.

While we dispensed justice as best as we could to those who carne before us, we knew that an enormous number of injured persons never came to us at all. Many were deterred by difficulties in the way, many dared not come for fear of offending the local despot, who by threats of injuries threats which he could carry out was able to prevent them from complaining and to stop the mouths of their witness"

What are the challenges for a litigant to seek justice in India and England? Choose the best option from the following:

1. There are no challenges. The passage is silent about this.

2. There are many challenges that are difficult to summarise

3. In England, Justice goes to the people. In India, the litigant faces many difficulties in approaching the strange tribunal to seek justice

4. The way to the tribunal is easy and the litigant in India need nor dread at all

97) Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

"In England justice goes to the people; in India the people had to come to justice (The litigant) had to find his way to this strange tribunal in an unknown land as best he could, in charge of the police, whose tender mercies he dreaded, or alone.

If he went alone, it was not for long. Around the Courts were swarms of petty lawyers who had their touts on the roads and in the villages. Longer he came within hail of the Court he had been fastened upon by several of these, and persuaded that his only chance of success was to put himself in their hands; say what they bade him; pay what, when, and to whom they told him; and above all, to beware of telling the truth; it would never be believed.

In those strange cases there was no common ground. Whatever one side asserted that other denied: all the witnesses were tutored; and whether true or not to begin with the case as presented on both sides was invariably concocted.

I for one came to the conclusion that nearly all, save a few of the graver cases, were episodes in some dispute not before the Court. The parties were not the real parties, but puppets of others, who remained in the background paying for and directing the proceedings. Most of the genuine disputes never reached our Courts at all, but were settled at some earlier stage in other ways.

While we dispensed justice as best as we could to those who carne before us, we knew that an enormous number of injured persons never came to us at all. Many were deterred by difficulties in the way, many dared not come for fear of offending the local despot, who by threats of injuries - threats which he could carry out was able to prevent them from complaining and to stop the mouths of their witness

What are the chances of success of any litigant? Choose the most appropriate answer:

1. The chance of success work only if he puts the hands of petty lawyers and touts.

2. He need not beware of telling the truth.

3. Cases on both sides were usually not concoted.

4. There were no difficulties and the injured person could approach the court easily.

98) Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

In England justice goes to the people; in India the people had to come to justice (The litigant) had to find his way to this strange tribunal in an unknown land as best he could, in charge of the police, whose tender mercies he dreaded, or alone.

If he went alone, it was not for long. Around the Courts were swarms of petty lawyers who had their touts on the roads and in the villages. Longer he came within hail of the Court he had been fastened upon by several of these, and persuaded that his only chance of success was to put himself in their hands; say what they bade him; pay what, when, and to whom they told him; and above all, to beware of telling the truth; it would never be believed.

In those strange cases there was no common ground. Whatever one side asserted that other denied; all the witnesses were tutored; and whether true or not to begin with the case as presented on both sides was invariably concocted.

I for one came to the conclusion that nearly all, save a few of the graver cases, were episodes in some dispute not before the Court. The parties were not the real parties, but puppets of others, who remained in the background paying for and directing the proceedings. Most of the genuine disputes never reached our Courts at all, but were settled at some earlier stage in other ways. While we dispensed justice as best as we could to those who carne before us, we knew that an enormous number of injured persons never came to us at all. Many were deterred by difficulties in the way, many dared not come for fear of offending the local despot, who by threats of injuries - threats which he could carry out was able to prevent them from complaining and to stop the mouths of their witness"

Whether, in the strange cases, there were any common grounds?

1. There was no common ground

2. All grounds were common

3. Witnesses were not tutored

4. All witnesses were tutored

99) Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

"In England justice goes to the people; in India the people had to come to justice (The litigant) had to find his way to this strange tribunal in an unknown land as best he could, in charge of the police, whose tender mercies he dreaded, or alone.

If he went alone, it was not for long. Around the Courts were swarms of petty lawyers who had their touts on the roads and in the villages. Longer he came within hail of the Court he had been fastened upon by several of these, and persuaded that his only chance of success was to put himself in their hands, say what they bade him; pay what, when, and to whom they told him; and above all, to beware of telling the truth; it would never be believed.

In those strange cases there was no common ground. What-ever one side asserted that other denied; all the witnesses were tutored; and whether true or not to begin with the case as presented on both sides was invariably concocted.

I for one came to the conclusion that nearly all, save a few of the graver cases, were episodes in some dispute not before the Court. The parties were not the real parties, but puppets of others, who remained in the back ground paying for and directing the proceedings. Most of the genuine disputes never reached our Courts at all, but were settled at some earliest stage in other ways.

While we dispensed justice as best as we could to those who carne before us, we knew that an enormous number of injured persons never came to us at all. Many were deterred by difficulties in the way, many dared not come for fear of offending the local despot, who by threats of injuries threats which he could carry out was able to prevent them from complaining and to stop the mouths of their witness"

In the passage, it is said that all the genuine disputes never reached the courts.

Choose the correct answer :

1. Most of the genuine disputes never reached the courts

2. Parties to the cases were not the real parties in many cases

3. Many witnesses are not the real witnesses

4. Real parties were puppets of others and not the real parties

100) Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow

"In England justice goes to the people: in India the people had to come to justice (The litigant) had to find his way to this strange tribunal in an unknown land as best he could, in charge of the police, whose tender mercies he dreaded, or alone.

If he went alone, it was not for long. Around the Courts were swarms of petty lawyers who had their touts on the roads and in the villages. Longer he came within hail of the Court he had been fastened upon by several of these, and persuaded that his only chance of success was to put himself in their hands; say what they bade him; pay what, when, and to whom they told him; and above all, to beware of telling the truth: it would never be believed. In those strange cases there was no common ground. Whatever one side asserted that other denied: all the witnesses were tutored; and whether true or not to begin with the case as presented on both sides was invariably concocted.

I for one came to the conclusion that nearly all, save a few of the graver cases, were episodes in some dispute not before the Court. The parties were not the real parties, but puppets of others, who remained in the back ground paying for and directing the proceedings. Most of the genuine disputes never reached our Courts at all, but were settled at some earlier stage in other ways.

While we dispensed justice as best as we could to those who came before us, we knew that an enormous number of injured persons never came to us at all. Many were deterred by difficulties in the way, many dared not come for fear of offending the local despot, who by threats of injuries - threats which he could carry out was able to prevent them from complaining and to stop the mouths of their witness

Many injured persons never came to the courts because of the following reason:

1. They were deterred by difficulties in the way

2. They had no interest

3. They were not sure to win

4. They could not arrange witnesses 

General Paper

1) The following table shows the percentage(%) of colleges offering the four IT courses on Python, Java, Multimedia and AI in four Indian States A-D, in a certain year. The table also presents the percentage-wise distribution of the number of colleges in the four states. The total number of colleges in the four states is 4000. Based on the data in the table, answer the questions 1-5.

State-wise Percentage of colleges offering IT Courses

% of College Offering

State

Python

Java

Multimedia

AI

% Distribution of Number of colleges

A

86%

74%

59%

54%

35%

B

80%

92%

82%

84%

15%

C

74%

88%

84%

86%

20%

D

68%

64%

68%

70%

30%

1)The number of colleges offering the Python course is more than 460

1. All the four states

2. Only three states

3. Only two states

4. Only one State

2) The total no. of college offering AI in all four States is

1.2784

2.2816

3.2864

4.2952

3) If M and N represent the total number of college offering Python and Java respectively in all the four States then M-N=

1.64

2.96

3.48

4.32

4) Ratio of number of colleges offering Multimedia in State C to that of State D is:

1.2:3

2.11:13

3.14:17

4.13:16

5) The number of. Colleges offering java in State B is…..% of the number of colleges offering AI in State

1.78.15

2.80.23

3.82.25

4.84.52

1). Which of the following Developmental areas of individual differences will be effected, if a Child opts for frequent out bursts and throws tantrums?

1. Social

2. Mental

3. Emotional

4. Physical

2) Which of the following is outside the Teacher Centric Method?

1. Demonstration

2. Team teaching

3. Inquiry approach

4. Lecture method

3) Which aspect indicates to be the most relevant in decision making process according to Kohlberg's theory of moral development?

1. The age of the Child.

2. Knowledge of Law

3. Influence of friends and siblings

4. How the child arrives at Conclusion

4) Which among the following are the MOOCs, Platforms?

A. Google Meet

B. Courses

C. Zoom

D. Future Learn

E. Turnitin

5) Match List I with List II

List IList II
Types of LearningMeaning
Factual Learning

I. This learning is used to organize information in logical structure

Association Learning

II. This learning is used to develop personality and think coherently

Conceptual Learning

III. This learning is used to organize sequence of activities to achieve a goal

Procedural LearningIV. This learning is used to connect with information more deeply and accurately.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, D and E only

2. B, D and E only

3. B and D only

4. C and D only

6) One of the aims of qualitative data analysis is to

1. Expand the Selected text or material

2. Analyse the researcher's credentials

3. Describe a phenomenon

4. Focus on binary dissection

7) Virtual ethnography is located in a/an

1. Natural environment

2. Technical environment

3. Political environment

4. Economic environment

8) The major ethical aspects of survey based research are:

A. Protection of Participants from any kind of harm.

B. Publicise the engagement of participants

C. Distinguish between different Strata of People.

D. Not to affect individual Privacy.

E. Use individual Privacy for Private Profit.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. A, C and E only

4. A and D only

9) Which of the following are advantages of content analysis? It is a :

A. Transparent research method

B. Non-reactive method

C. Flexible Method

D. Method that does not need a coding manual

E. Method that is free of any kind of framework

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. C, D and E only

4. A, D and E only

10) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Positivism Says that Sciences need not be free from Speculative and metaphysical approaches

Statement II: Positivism is Suitable for natural Sciences

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

11) Media messages consist of various layers of

1. Rationalisation

2. Complex resistance

3. Polymorphic meaning

4. Restrictive rituals

12) A source of Communicative inefficiency is

1. Desire for Personal gratification

2. Implications of familiar relations

3. Peer Pressure

4. Limited Knowledge

13) Which of the following are elements of congenial classroom atmosphere?

A. Creating a conducive atmosphere

B. Engaging in individual efforts

C. Supportive teamwork

D. Negotiable movement inside the classroom

E. Immersive listening.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and E only

2. A, C and E only

3. B, C and D only

4. C, D and E only

14) Which of the following can be categorised as non-verbal communication?

A. Pleasant Voice

B. Postures

C. Gestures

D. Facial expressions

E. Vociferous greetings.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. A, B and C only

2. B. C and E only

3. C, D and E only

4. B, C and D only

15) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Most of the time, communication is loaded with power value.

Statement II: Those who do not have the power of communication always seek to possess it.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

16) One day a man left his home for a morning walk and went 12 km southwards. He then turned right and walked 8 km. Again turned right and walked 12 km, turned left and walked 10 km. How many kilometres the man has to walk to reach straight to his home?

1. 22km

2.18 km

3. 20km

4. 24 km

17) The price of a jewel, passing three hands, rises on the whole by 65%. If the first and second sellers earned 20% and 25% profit respectively, find percentage profit earned by the third seller.

1.10 %

2.15 %

3.16%

4.12 %

18) In an examination 42% students failed in Mathematics and 52% failed in Science. If 17% failed in both the subjects, find the Percentage of those Who Passed in both the subjects.

1. 23%

2. 25%

3. 27%

4. 30 %

19) A 729 ml of a mixture contains milk and water in the ratio of 7 : 2. How much more water is to be added to get a new mixture containing milk and water in the ratio of 7:37

1.81ml

2.90ml

3.85ml

4.75 ml

20) Find the next term in the series given below.

124, 148, 196, 268, 364,?

1. 484

2. 584

3. 464

4. 268

21) Which of the following statements are logically equivalent?

A. No P is S

B. Some S are non-P

C. Some non-P are not non-S

D. Some S are not P

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B and C only

2. C and D only

3. B, C and D only

4. A, B, C and D

22) "Considering the Speech given by the School Principal today, I would conclude that he is not a good Public Speaker." Identify the informal fallacy committed in the above argument.

1. Slippery Slope

2. Ad hominem

3. Appeal to force

4. Hasty Generalisation

23) Which of the following is true regarding Inductive argument?

1. If all the premises are true, the conclusion must be true.

2. IT claims to support its conclusion only with some degree of probability

3. It claims to Support its conclusion conclusively

4. Conclusion is completely contained already in the premises

24) When inference is based not on causation but on uniformity of co-existence, what is it called as per Classical Indian School of Logic?

1. Kevalanvayi

2. Samanyatodṛṣṭa

3. Purvavat

4. Seşavat

25) Which of following is true regarding Classical Indian School of logic?

A. It is deductive

B. It is inductive

C. It is formal

D. It is material

E. It always leads from universal to particular only

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

1. A, B, C and D only

2. B and C only

3. A and D only

4. A, B, C, D and E

26) MIDI is associated with the storage of music files. MIDI is an acronym for

1. Musical Interactive Digital Interface

2. Musical Instructions Device Interpreter

3. Mask Iterative Display Instance

4. Musical Instrument Digital Interface

28) Which of the following are web search engines?

A. DuckDuckGo

B. Google

C. Yahoo search

D. Bing

E. Pinterest

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. B. C and D only

2. A, B, C and D only

3. B and E only

4. A, C, D and E only

30) Given below are two statements

Statement I: ROM is temporary memory that can be written to or read from and the contents of the memory can be changed.

Statement II: RAM is permanent memory that can only be read from and contents of memory cannot be changed.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement is incorrect but Statement II is correct

31) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Concentration of Volatile Organic Chemicals is generally 100-1000 times higher in surface water than underground water.

Statement II: The most common method of treatment of Volatile Organic Chemicals is to aerate them to atmosphere.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

32) Pyrolysis helps in addressing the Problem of

1. Air Pollution

2. Water Pollution

3. Municipal Solid Wastes

4. Electronic Wastes

33) The period of Sendai framework for disaster risk reduction is

1. 2015-2030

2. 2020-2040

3. 2015-2025

4. 2020-2030

34) Given below are two statements

Statement I: To address problem of climate change it is essential for the world to have 'Net Zero' carbon emissions by the year 2050.

Statement II: There is zero carbon emission associated with the production of gray-hydrogen.

In light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are true.

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are false.

3. Statement I is true but Statement II is false.

4. Statement I is false but Statement II is true.

35) Given below are two statements

Statement I: Acute exposure to a chemical is a long term continuous exposure by that chemical

Statement II: Chronic exposure to a chemical is a short term exposure to that chemical

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below

1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

36) Community Colleges are supposed to offer courses that are a mix of

1. Fine Arts and Life Skills

2. School and College Education

3. Technical and Traditional Skills

4. Knowledge, Technical and Soft Skills

37) The major terms of reference for the National Knowledge Commission were

A. Challenge developed countries in Knowledge creation

B. Westernise the Indian educational system

C. Promote creation of Knowledge in science and technology laboratories

D. Promote Knowledge applications in agriculture and industry

E. Build excellence in education system to meet the challenges of the twenty-first century

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B and C only

2. B, C and D only

3. C, D and E only

4. A, B and E only

38) The acronym 'SANKALP, introduced by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, stands for :-

1. Skill Awareness and Knowledge Assessment of Livelihood Promotion

2. Skill Addition and Knowledge Assessment of Livelihood Promotion

3. Skill Acquisition and Knowledge Awareness of Livelihood Promotion

4. Skill Attainment and Knowledge Awareness of Livelihood Promotion

39) Where is Chanakya said to have composed his Arthashastra?

1. Sarnatha

2. Takshashila

3. Nalanda

4. Vikramshila

1) Read the following passage and answer questions 46 to 50:

Gandhi's speech in Banaras in February 1916 was, at one level, merely a statement of fact namely, that Indian nationalism was an elite phenomenon, a creation of lawyers and doctors and landlords. But, at another level, it was a statement of intent-the first public announcement of the returning expatriate's own desire to make Indian nationalism more properly representative of the Indian people. In the last month of that year, Gandhi was presented with an opportunity to put his precepts into practice. At a meeting held in Lucknow in December 1916, he was approached by a peasant from Champaran in Bihar. The peasant told him about the harsh treatment of peasants by British Indigo planters. Gandhi was to spend most of 1917 in Champaran. He was seeking to obtain for the peasants security of tenure as well as the freedom to cultivate the crops of their choice. In 1918, Gandhi was involved in two campaigns in his home State of Gujarat. First, he intervened in a labor dispute in Ahmedabad to better the conditions of textile mill workers. Then he joined peasants in Kheda for remission of taxes on peasants following the failure of their harvest. These initiatives marked Gandhi as a nationalist with sympathy for the poor. These were local struggles. During the World War I, the British had instituted press censorship and permitted detention without trial. The Rowlatt committee recommended the continuation of these tough measures. Gandhiji's call for a countrywide campaign brought life to standstill in north and west India.

Which was the Statement of fact in the Speech of Mahatma Gandhi at Banaras?

1. Lawyers, doctors and landlords sided with the British

2. The Indian nationalism was elitist

3. Nationalism was of another level in India

4. The existing Indian nationalism was highly effective.

2) Read the following passage and answer questions 46 to 50:

Gandhi's speech in Banaras in February 1916 was, at one level, merely a statement of fact namely, that Indian nationalism was an elite phenomenon, a creation of lawyers and doctors and landlords. But, at another level, it was a statement of intent-the first public announcement of the returning expatriate's own desire to make Indian nationalism more properly representative of the Indian people. In the last month of that year, Gandhi was presented with an opportunity to put his precepts into practice. At a meeting held in Lucknow in December 1916, he was approached by a peasant from Champaran in Bihar. The peasant told him about the harsh treatment of peasants by British Indigo planters. Gandhi was to spend most of 1917 in Champaran. He was seeking to obtain for the peasants security of tenure as well as the freedom to cultivate the crops of their choice. In 1918, Gandhi was involved in two campaigns in his home State of Gujarat. First, he intervened in a labor dispute in Ahmedabad to better the conditions of textile mill workers. Then he joined peasants in Kheda for remission of taxes on peasants following the failure of their harvest. These initiatives marked Gandhi as a nationalist with sympathy for the poor. These were local struggles. During the World War I, the British had instituted press censorship and permitted detention without trial. The Rowlatt committee recommended the continuation of these tough measures. Gandhiji’s call for a countrywide campaign brought life to standstill in north and west India.

Gandhiji's speech expressed the intention of

1. Making Indian nationalism more representative

2. Announcing the desire of expatriates to become politically active

3. Criticising the activities of Indian nationalists

4. Launching a new nationalist movement

3) Read the following passage and answer questions 46 to 50:

Gandhi's speech in Banaras in February 1916 was, at one level, merely a statement of fact namely, that Indian nationalism was an elite phenomenon, a creation of lawyers and doctors and landlords. But, at another level, it was a statement of intent-the first public announcement of the returning expatriate's own desire to make Indian nationalism more properly representative of the Indian people. In the last month of that year, Gandhi was presented with an opportunity to put his precepts into practice. At a meeting held in Lucknow in December 1916, he was approached by a peasant from Champaran in Bihar. The peasant told him about the harsh treatment of peasants by British Indigo planters. Gandhi was to spend most of 1917 in Champaran. He was seeking to obtain for the peasants security of tenure as well as the freedom to cultivate the crops of their choice. In 1918, Gandhi was involved in two campaigns in his home State of Gujarat. First, he intervened in a labor dispute in Ahmedabad to better the conditions of textile mill workers. Then he joined peasants in Kheda for remission of taxes on peasants following the failure of their harvest. These initiatives marked Gandhi as a nationalist with sympathy for the poor. These were local struggles. During the World War I, the British had instituted press censorship and permitted detention without trial. The Rowlatt committee recommended the continuation of these tough measures. Gandhiji’s call for a countrywide campaign brought life to standstill in north and west India.

Gandhiji could put his precept into practice during

1. The Lucknow meeting

2. The talks with landlords

3. The Champaran campaign

4. The interaction with nationalist leaders

4) Read the following passage and answer questions 46 to 50:

Gandhi's speech in Banaras in February 1916 was, at one level, merely a statement of fact namely, that Indian nationalism was an elite phenomenon, a creation of lawyers and doctors and landlords. But, at another level, it was a statement of intent-the first public announcement of the returning expatriate's own desire to make Indian nationalism more properly representative of the Indian people. In the last month of that year, Gandhi was presented with an opportunity to put his precepts into practice. At a meeting held in Lucknow in December 1916, he was approached by a peasant from Champaran in Bihar. The peasant told him about the harsh treatment of peasants by British Indigo planters. Gandhi was to spend most of 1917 in Champaran. He was seeking to obtain for the peasants security of tenure as well as the freedom to cultivate the crops of their choice.

In 1918, Gandhi was involved in two campaigns in his home State of Gujarat. First, he intervened in a labor dispute in Ahmedabad to better the conditions of textile mill workers. Then he joined peasants in Kheda for remission of taxes on peasants following the failure of their harvest. These initiatives marked Gandhi as a nationalist with sympathy for the poor. These were local struggles. During the World War I, the British had instituted press censorship and permitted detention without trial. The Rowlatt committee recommended the continuation of these tough measures. Gandhiji's call for a countrywide campaign brought life to standstill in north and west India.

Which issue propelled Gandhiji to the national stage for a wider movement?

1. Labour dispute of textile mill workers in Ahmedabad

2. Agitation peasants in Kheda

3. The revolt against British Indigo planters

4. The Rowlatt Act

5) Read the following passage and answer questions 46 to 50:

Gandhi's speech in Banaras in February 1916 was, at one level, merely a statement of fact namely, that Indian nationalism was an elite phenomenon, a creation of lawyers and doctors and landlords. But, at another level, it was a statement of intent-the first public announcement of the returning expatriate's own desire to make Indian nationalism more properly representative of the Indian people. In the last month of that year, Gandhi was presented with an opportunity to put his precepts into practice. At a meeting held in Lucknow in December 1916, he was approached by a peasant from Champaran in Bihar. The peasant told him about the harsh treatment of peasants by British Indigo planters. Gandhi was to spend most of 1917 in Champaran. He was seeking to obtain for the peasants security of tenure as well as the freedom to cultivate the crops of their choice. In 1918, Gandhi was involved in two campaigns in his home State of Gujarat. First, he intervened in a labour dispute in Ahmedabad to better the conditions of textile mill workers. Then he joined peasants in Kheda for remission of taxes on peasants following the failure of their harvest. These initiatives marked Gandhi as a nationalist with sympathy for the poor. These were local struggles. During the World War I, the British had instituted press censorship and permitted detention without trial. The Rowlatt committee recommended the continuation of these tough measures. Gandhiji's call for a countrywide campaign brought life to standstill in north and west India.

The main intent of the passage is to describe

1. The British atrocities in India

2. The different facets of Indian national movement

3. The various campaigns against the British in India

4. The emergence of Gandhiji as a representative national leader 

Answer

1) 3

2) 3

3) 4

4) 3

5) 3

6) 2

7) 4

8) 2

9) 1

10) 2

11) 2

12) 1

13) 4

14) 2

15) 3

16) 1

17) 4

18) 3

19) 2

20) 4

21) 4

22) 3

23) 3

24) 3

25) 2

26) 1

27) 2

28) 3

29) 4

30) 2&3

31) 2

32) 2

33) 1

34) 4

35) 3

36) 3

37) 1

38) 4

39) 2

40) 2

41) 4

42) 2

43) 1

44) 3

45) 3

46) 1

47) 1

48) 1

49) 1

50) 1

51) 3

52) 3

53) 2

54) 4

55) 1

56) 3

57) 3

58) 3

59) 3

60) 4

61) DROP

62) 4

63) 1

64) 1

65) 2

66) 1

67) 4

68) 2

69) 4

70) 1

71) 1

72) 2

73) 1

74) 2

75) Drop

76) 1

77) 3

78) 2

79) 3

80) 2

81) 3

82) 2

83) 1

84) 2

85) 4

86) 3

87) 3

88) 1

89) 1

90) 3

91) 3

92) 2

93) 4

94) 2

95) 2

96) 3

97) 1

98) 1

99) 1

100) 1

101) 1

102) 2

103) 4

104) 3

105) 2

106) 3

107) 3

108) 4

109) 3

110) 1

111) 3

112) 2

113) 4

114) 1

115) 4

116) 3

117) 4

118) 2

119) 4

120) 1

121) 2

122) 1

123) 1

124) 1

125) 1

126) 3

127) 4

128) 2

129) 2

130) 1

131) 4

132) 3

133) 2

134) 2

135) 2

136) 4

137) 3

138) 1

139) 3

140) 2

141) 4

142) 3

143) 3

144) 2

145) 2

146) 2

147) 1

148) 3

149) 4

150) 4

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Updated On 14 March 2023 2:11 PM GMT
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