Find UGC NET Paper-II December 2024 (Law) Solved Paper on Legal Bites.

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UGC NET Paper-II December 2024 (Law) Solved Paper | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

1. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Act)

List-II (Provision on Penalties)

(A) Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980

(I) Section 15

(B) Wildlife Protection Act, 1972

(II) Section 3A and 3B

(C) The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

(III) Section 26

(D) NGT Act, 2010

(IV) Section 51

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  2. (A)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

2. Which of the Articles of the United Nations Charter sets out the principles on which the United Nations is based?

  1. Article 1
  2. Article 2
  3. Article 52
  4. Article 10

3. Which of the following is Schedule II of the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010?

  1. List of the Acts Repealed
  2. List of the Acts Amended
  3. Heads under which compensation or relief for damage may be claimed
  4. Rules to be followed by NGT

4. Which of the following international treaty deals with access to published works for visually impaired and print-disabled people?

  1. Marrakesh Treaty
  2. Beijing Treaty
  3. Rome Treaty
  4. Geneva Treaty

5. What is the official language of the International Court of Justice (ICJ)?

  1. English only
  2. French only
  3. Both Spanish and English
  4. Both French and English

6. Which of the following statement is not correct as per Austin on Law and Morality?

(A) Positive Laws are set by political superiors and are proper subject matter of jurisprudence

(B) Laws by analogy are laws improperly so called

(C) Command, Duty, Sanction, and Morality are inseparable

(D) Laws are of two types: laws properly so called and laws improperly so called

(E) Austin's conception of law takes into account positive law and positive morality

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B) Only
  2. (B), (C) Only
  3. (E), (D) Only
  4. (C) Only

7. The word 'jurisprudence' owes its origin from the term 'jurisprudentia,' which is given by:

  1. Greeks
  2. Romans
  3. British Jurists
  4. American Jurists

8. Which theory in Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) is based on the value that the law should not reward creators whose intellectual works harm life, health, liberty, or society generally?

  1. Moral Right Theory
  2. Human Right Theory
  3. Creative Destruction Theory
  4. Moral Desert Theory

9. Which of the following is a guide to the International Court of Justice to decide disputes submitted to it by State parties?

  1. Non-binding international conventions
  2. Principles of engagement laid down by the permanent members of the United Nations Security Council
  3. The general principles of law recognized by civilized nations
  4. Previous decisions of the International Court of Justice

10. The limitation of the doctrine of constructive notice is known as which of the following?

  1. Doctrine of indoor management
  2. Lifting the corporate veil
  3. Oppression and mismanagement
  4. Doctrine of ultra vires

11. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Case Law)

List-II (Theme)

(A) Birma v. State of Rajasthan

(I) Safeguard interest of working women

(B) NHRC v. State of Arunachal Pradesh

(II) Enforcement of rights under international conventions

(C) Vishaka v. State of Rajasthan

(III) Employment of children in construction work

(D) People's Union for Democratic Rights v. Union of India

(IV) Rights of refugees

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

12. The fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution are grouped under various heads. Mention which of the groups below is not adequately placed as per the articles.

(A) Right to Equality (Art. 14–18)

(B) Right to Constitutional Remedies (Art. 32–35A)

(C) Right to Freedom of Religion (Art. 25–28)

(D) Right to Freedom (Art. 19–21A)

(E) Right Against Exploitation (Art. 23–24)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) and (B) Only
  2. (C) and (A) Only
  3. (B) and (D) Only
  4. (E) Only

13. Which of the following sections do not deal with internet/cyber/computer crime?

(A) Section 50A of Indian Copyright Act

(B) Section 354D of IPC

(C) Section 111 of Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

(D) Section 66F of Information Technology Act

(E) Section 11A of Patent Act

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (C) and (E) Only
  2. (A) and (B) Only
  3. (C) and (D) Only
  4. (A) and (E) Only

14. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (IPR Theory)

List-II

(A) Personhood Theory

(I) John Locke

(B) Natural Rights Theory

(II) Joseph Schumpeter

(C) Incentive Theory

(III) Immanuel Kant

(D) Creative Destruction Theory

(IV) William Nordhuas

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)

15. "The knowledge derived from authoritative books specified in the First Schedule to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940" means what as per the definition in the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023?

  1. Traditional Knowledge
  2. Sacred Knowledge
  3. Codified Knowledge
  4. Codified Traditional Knowledge

16. Which of the following statements are true in the context of the form of government in the USA and India?

(A) The USA Constitution Sec. 7 gives the President veto power over the bills passed by Congress, which can be further countered by a 2/3 majority in both Houses.

(B) The U.S. and India strictly follow the doctrine of separation of powers.

(C) The U.S. President is more powerful as compared to the Indian Prime Minister.

(D) The removal method of the U.S. President and the Indian Prime Minister is technical and difficult.

(E) The U.S. President is not a member of the legislature.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (C) Only
  2. (A), (C), (E) Only
  3. (B), (E), (D) Only
  4. (A), (B), (C), (D) Only

17. The minimum number of directors in a One Person Company is:

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

18. Which one of the following is not part of "Specified Dower" in Muslim Law?

  1. Prompt Dower
  2. Deferred Dower
  3. Dower Stipulated in Marriage Contract
  4. Proper Dower

19. The Chairperson of the National Green Tribunal shall be appointed by whom?

  1. Central Government alone
  2. Central Government in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
  3. Central Government in consultation with the outgoing Chairperson of the Tribunal
  4. Central Government in consultation with the President and Chief Justice of India

20. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Titles of the Articles)

List-II (Articles of Indian Constitution)

(A) National Judicial Appointment Commission

(I) Article 126

(B) Appointment of Acting Chief Justice

(II) Article 131

(C) Supreme Court to be a Court of Record

(III) Article 124A

(D) Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court

(IV) Article 129

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)

21. Which of the following does not truly describe the nature of administrative law?

(A) The main thrust of administrative law is on the study of procedure by which official action is reached.

(B) Administrative law deals with the relationship of individuals with organized power.

(C) Administrative law does not include a control mechanism against arbitrariness.

(D) Administrative law seldom addresses reconciliation of power with liberty.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) and (B) Only
  2. (A) and (C) Only
  3. (C) and (D) Only
  4. (B) and (C) Only

22.
Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Geneva Convention)

List-II (Provisions Relating to State Responsibility)

(A) Geneva Convention I

(I) Wounded and sick in armed forces in the field

(B) Geneva Convention II

(II) Wounded and sick in armed forces at sea

(C) Geneva Convention III

(III) Treatment of prisoners of war

(D) Geneva Convention IV

(IV) Protection of civilians in wartime

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

23. Arrange the following in order (section-wise) as stated in Chapter XVII of the Indian Penal Code, 1860:

(A) Mischief

(B) Stolen property

(C) Making preparation to commit dacoity

(D) Dacoity with murder

(E) Assembling for the purpose of committing dacoity

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)
  2. (E), (C), (D), (B), (A)
  3. (D), (E), (C), (A), (B)
  4. (D), (C), (E), (B), (A)

24. Arrange the following provisions related to 'void agreements' in chronological order, as provided under the Indian Contract Act:

(A) Agreement in restraint of marriage

(B) Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings

(C) Agreement in restraint of trade

(D) Agreement without consideration

(E) Agreement which is ambiguous and uncertain

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (D), (A), (C), (B), (E)
  2. (C), (A), (B), (E), (D)
  3. (B), (A), (D), (C), (E)
  4. (A), (C), (E), (D), (B)

25. The functions of the National Commission for minorities is provided for under which section of the relevant statute?

  1. Section 3
  2. Section 5
  3. Section 7
  4. Section 9

26. Which of the following are Consumer Protection Redressal Agencies under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?

(A) Consumer Disputes Redressal Forum

(B) Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

(C) Consumer Disputes Redressal Committee

(D) National Disputes Redressal Committee

(E) National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C) Only
  2. (D), (A), (C) Only
  3. (A), (B), (D) Only
  4. (A), (B), (E) Only

27. Which book of John Rawls was published in the year 1971?

  1. The Concept of Law
  2. The Republic
  3. Justice: What is the Right Thing to Do?
  4. The Theory of Justice

28. Which of the following is true with respect to the WTO?

(A) WTO is headquartered in The Hague.

(B) There have been 9 rounds of trade negotiations since the Second World War.

(C) The Doha Round is the latest round of negotiations for trade for WTO members.

(D) WTO has 154 members.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (B) and (C) Only
  2. (A) and (D) Only
  3. (C) and (D) Only
  4. (A) and (C) Only

29. Arrange the following grounds in chronological order where a Hindu wife is entitled to claim maintenance while living separately from her husband as stated in the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956:

(A) If he is guilty of desertion.

(B) If he has any other wife living.

(C) If he has ceased to be a Hindu.

(D) If he keeps a concubine in the same house.

(E) If any other cause justifies her living separately.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
  2. (A), (D), (B), (C), (E)
  3. (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)
  4. (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

30. The jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice is based upon which principle?

  1. The principle of deferential treatment
  2. The principle of functionalism
  3. The principle of compulsory participation
  4. The principle of consensual basis

31. In which of the following cases were victims/wife of bigamous marriages allowed to get maintenance under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code?

  1. Shayara Bano v. Union of India
  2. Dharmendra Kumar v. Usha Kumar
  3. Badshah v. Sou. Urmila Badshah Godse
  4. Saroj Rani v. Sudarshan Kumar

32. Which of the following can be considered as the first case of its kind in India involving issues relating to the environment and ecological balance, which brought the issue of conflict between development and conservation into sharp focus with the Supreme Court emphasizing the need for reconciling the two in the larger interest of the country?

(A) R.L. and E Kendra, Dehradun v. State of UP

(B) Goa Foundation v. Konkan Railway Corporation

(C) T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India

(D) Tarun Bharat Sangh v. Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) Only
  2. (B) Only
  3. (C) Only
  4. (D) Only

33. Arrange the following provisions of the Trade Marks Act, 1999, in its correct order as appearing in the Act pertaining to the trademark registration process:

(A) Relative grounds of refusal

(B) Withdrawal of acceptance

(C) Opposition to registration

(D) Absolute grounds

(E) Honest concurrent use

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
  2. (D), (A), (E), (B), (C)
  3. (E), (B), (C), (A), (D)
  4. (B), (C), (E), (A), (D)

34. What is the effect of the acceptance of an offer in the context of the formation of a contract?

  1. A contract is created only after an offer is accepted.
  2. A contract is created only after an offer is rejected.
  3. A contract is not created after an offer is accepted.
  4. A contract is created only after an offer is revoked.

35. Arrange the following grounds for dissolution of marriage in chronological order as stated in the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939:

(A) Husband has failed to provide for her maintenance for 2 years.

(B) Husband has been insane for a period of 2 years.

(C) Husband was impotent at the time of marriage and continues to be so.

(D) Husband attempts to force her to lead an immoral life.

(E) Husband associates with women of evil repute.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
  2. (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
  3. (A), (D), (E), (C), (B)
  4. (D), (E), (A), (B), (C)

Q.36. Arrange the following provisions as per the correct order in the Indian Constitution:

(A) Executive Power of State

(B) Term of Office of Governor

(C) Appointment of Governor

(D) Qualifications for Appointment as Governor

(E) Governor of State

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (E), (A), (C), (B), (D)
  2. (C), (D), (E), (B), (A)
  3. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
  4. (E), (C), (D), (A), (B)

37. What items are included in the definition of biological resources according to the Biological Diversity (Amendment) Act, 2023?

(A) Plants and Animals

(B) Microorganisms or parts of their genetic material

(C) Human genetic material

(D) Plants, animals, microorganisms, or parts of the derivatives, including their value-added products

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) and (C) Only
  2. (B) and (C) Only
  3. (A) and (B) Only
  4. (B) and (D) Only

38. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Concepts/Doctrines)

List-II (Cases)

(A) Lifting the corporate veil

(I) Nash v. Lynde

(B) Invitation to public in the context of prospectus

(II) Ashbury Rly Carriage and Iron Co. Ltd. v. Riche

(C) Doctrine of ultra vires

(III) Royal British Bank v. Turquand

(D) Doctrine of indoor management

(IV) Salomon v. Salomon

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  4. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

39. 'Hazardous Substance' is defined under which of the following Acts?

  1. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
  2. The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  3. The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
  4. The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980

40. Who amongst the below mentioned, has the power to make provisions of preparation of electoral rolls, delimitation of constituencies, with respect to elections to State Legislatures?

  1. Election Commission of India
  2. President of India
  3. Parliament by Law
  4. Governor, in consultation with the Chief Minister of the respective State

41. "Implied conditions as to quality or fitness of goods" are given under which section of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

  1. Section 14
  2. Section 15
  3. Section 16
  4. Section 17

42. Which of the declarations of the Hague Convention Concerning Expanding Bullets, 1899, prohibits the use of dumdum bullets?

  1. Declaration I
  2. Declaration II
  3. Declaration III
  4. Declaration IV

43. The word 'Secular' was added by which of the following amendments in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

  1. 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
  2. 44th Amendment Act, 1978
  3. 24th Amendment Act, 1971
  4. 72nd Amendment Act, 1992

44. Arrange the following schools of thought in chronological order:

(A) J. Bentham and the origins of utilitarian jurisprudence

(B) Thomas Hobbes and the origins of the imperative theory of law

(C) John Austin and legal positivism

(D) Classical Greece and the idea of natural law

(E) Lon Fuller and the idea of legalism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
  2. (D), (A), (B), (C), (E)
  3. (B), (D), (E), (A), (C)
  4. (D), (B), (A), (C), (E)

45. Under Public International Law, the Nottebohm case is of great relevance in relation to which of the given options?

  1. Tortious liability
  2. Cybercrime across borders
  3. Drug trafficking and money laundering
  4. Nationality

46. The case of Vardhaman Kaushik v. Union of India, decided in 2014-15, is considered unique in the context of resolving the menace of air pollution in Delhi because:

(A) The National Green Tribunal rejected the petition for want of locus standi for the petitioner.

(B) The National Green Tribunal adopted the pragmatic "consultative and deliberated" approach in this case.

(C) The National Green Tribunal rejected the petition for want of jurisdiction in the matter.

(D) The National Green Tribunal permitted the burning of crop remnant in agricultural fields falling in NCR Delhi.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (D) Only
  2. (C) Only
  3. (B) Only
  4. (A) Only

47. Match List-I with List-II

List-I (Maxims)

List-II (Principle/Meaning)

(A) Qui facit per alium facit per se

(I) Let the principal be liable

(B) Volenti non fit iniuria

(II) Damage without the violation of a legal right

(C) Damnum sine iniuria

(III) Voluntary consent to suffer some harm

(D) Respondeat superior

(IV) The act of an agent is the act of the principal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

48. Arrange the following International Conventions/Agreements in the chronological order of their adoption:

(A) Additional Protocols to the Geneva Conventions

(B) International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of all Migrant Workers and Members of their Families

(C) Convention Relating to the Status of Refugees

(D) Agreement establishing the World Trade Organization

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (C), (A), (B), (D)
  2. (A), (C), (B), (D)
  3. (B), (C), (D), (A)
  4. (D), (C), (B), (A)

49. Arrange the following punishments in chronological order as mentioned under Section 53 of the IPC, 1860:

(A) Fine

(B) Forfeiture of property

(C) Imprisonment for life

(D) Death

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (D), (C), (B), (A)
  2. (A), (B), (C), (D)
  3. (D), (A), (B), (C)
  4. (B), (A), (C), (D)

50. Personality is derived from the Greek word 'persona,' which means:

  1. Human Beings
  2. Mask
  3. Animals
  4. Slaves

51. Match List - I with List - II

List - I (Offence)

List - II (Punishment)

(A) Gang rape

(I) Any fine imposed shall be paid to the victim

(B) Dacoity

(II) Punishable with death or imprisonment for life

(C) Kidnapping for ransom

(III) Not less than 7 years but may extend to imprisonment for life

(D) Dowry death

(IV) Imprisonment for life

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)

52. In Canada, which document outlines the division of power between the Federal and Provincial governments?

  1. Statute of Westminster, 1931
  2. Meech Lake Accord, 1987
  3. British North America Act, 1867
  4. Charter of Rights and Freedoms, 1982

53. Match List - I with List - II

List - I (Provisions)

List - II

(A) Provision for early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years

(I) Article 21A

(B) Promotion of educational and economic interests of SC, ST and other weaker sections

(II) Article 46

(C) State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6-14 years

(III) Article 45

(D) Special provision for the advancement of any economically weaker sections of citizens

(IV) Article 15

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)

54. Match List - I with List - II

List - I (Article of the UN Charter)

List - II (Purposes of the UN)

(A) Article 1.1

(I) To develop friendly relations among nations

(B) Article 1.2

(II) To achieve international cooperation in solving international problems

(C) Article 1.3

(III) To maintain peace and security

(D) Article 1.4

(IV) To be a centre for harmonizing the actions of nations in the attainment of common ends

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  4. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

55. Arrange the following rules in chronological order made under the Environment Protection Act, 1986:

(A) The Construction and Demolition Waste Management Rules

(B) The Wetland (Conservation and Management) Rules

(C) The Chemical Accidents Rules

(D) The Batteries (Management and Handling) Rules

(E) The Manufacture, Storage and Impacts of Hazardous Chemical Rules

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (E), (C), (D), (A), (B)
  2. (E), (D), (C), (A), (B)
  3. (E), (D), (B), (A), (C)
  4. (D), (E), (C), (A), (B)

56. In which of the following cases was it held that "an agreement by a minor is void"?

  1. Damodara Mudaliar v. Secretary of State for India
  2. Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose
  3. Dharmodas Ghose v. Brahmo Dutt
  4. Damodardass v. R. Badrilal

57. The Consumer Protection Act, 1986 has been repealed and replaced by which of the following Acts?

  1. The Consumer Protection Act, 2017
  2. The Consumer Protection Act, 2018
  3. The Consumer Protection Act, 2019
  4. The Consumer Protection Act, 2020

58. In the context of refugees, which of the following options provides the analogous Article of the EU Charter of Fundamental Rights corresponding to Article 3 of the ECHR?

  1. Article 3
  2. Article 4
  3. Article 5
  4. Article 6

59. Which of the following are consequences of Breach of Contract?

(A) Damages in the ordinary course

(B) Remote damages and ordinary damages

(C) If stipulation by way of penalty is given in the contract, then penalty is a consequence

(D) In quantifying damages, the inconvenience of non-performance has to be considered

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C) Only
  2. (A), (C), (D) Only
  3. (D), (B), (C) Only
  4. (B), (C), (D) Only

60. As per the Supreme Court of India in the Oleum Gas Leak Case, the nature of duty owed by an enterprise engaged in a hazardous industry posing a potential threat to health and safety of persons residing in the surrounding area is:

(A) Inherent duty

(B) Imperative and non-derogable duty

(C) Absolute and delegable duty

(D) Resolute duty

(E) Absolute and non-delegable duty

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A) and (B) Only
  2. (B) and (C) Only
  3. (E) Only
  4. (C) and (D) Only

61. Which of the following is not considered "fair dealing" under the Copyright Act?

  1. Private use
  2. Research purpose
  3. Reporting current affairs
  4. Commercial use

62. Which of the following analyses is NOT true for the 5th-century BC Greek play Antigone by Sophocles?

(A) Antigone followed and supported natural law over legal positivism, that is, the right to bury.

(B) Duties towards family v. State.

(C) An early and undeveloped site of civil disobedience.

(D) Irrationality of women's arbitrary subjectivity v. male state expressed through the duty to formal law.

(E) Antigone was excused by the State on a humanitarian basis.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (E) Only
  2. (B), (C) Only
  3. (C), (E) Only
  4. (A), (D) Only

63. What is the meaning of the following maxim?
"Ex turpi causa non oritur actio"

  1. From an immoral cause no action arises
  2. From an immoral cause an action arises
  3. From a moral cause an action arises
  4. From a moral cause no action arises

64. Who among the following is currently (January, 2025) serving as a Judge of the International Court of Justice?

  1. D. Y. Chandrachud
  2. Ruchira Kamboj
  3. Dalveer Bhandari
  4. Harish Salve

65. Which of the following are true for adjudicating officers under the Information Technology Act, 2000?

(A) Has the powers of Civil Court which are conferred on the Appellate Tribunal.

(B) All proceedings before it deemed to be judicial proceedings U/ss Sections 193 and 228 of IPC.

(C) Deemed to be a Civil Court for the purpose of Order XXI of the CPC, 1908.

(D) Deemed to be a Civil Court for the purpose of Sections 340 and 341 of the CrPC, 1973.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C) Only
  2. (C), (D) Only
  3. (A), (C) Only
  4. (B), (C), (D) Only

66. Which statement is generally understood to mean the essence of the Estrada Doctrine?

  1. Recognition of government is unnecessary once the state has been recognized.
  2. Recognition of government is an imperative for recognition of the state.
  3. Recognition of government provides legality to a state.
  4. A state is a legal person under international law only if recognized by the United Nations.

67. Which statements are true about theories of corporate personality?

(A) Fiction theory says only human beings can be properly called persons.

(B) Concession theory states that corporate bodies have legal personality only if granted by law.

(C) Fiction theory is also called 'Organic Theory.'

(D) Symbolist or Brackets Theory says members of corporations are the only persons who have rights and duties.

(E) Savigny, Salmond, and Dicey support Fiction Theory.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (C), (D), (E) Only
  2. (B), (C), (D) Only
  3. (A), (B), (C) Only
  4. (A), (B), (D), (E) Only

68. Which of the following are the dates when India signed and ratified the 1949 Geneva Conventions?

  1. Signed on 10th December 1949 and ratified on 13th November 1950
  2. Signed on 15th August 1949 and ratified on 26th January 1950
  3. Signed on 16th December 1949 and ratified on 9th November 1950
  4. Signed on 1st January 1949 and ratified on 10th December 1950

69. Match List - I with List - II

List - I (Provision/Concept)

List - II (Sections under the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881)

(A) Dishonour of cheque for insufficiency of funds

(I) Section 9

(B) Holder in due course

(II) Section 5

(C) Promissory Note

(III) Section 138

(D) Bill of Exchange

(IV) Section 4

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

70. Match List - I with List - II

List - I (Conference/Treaty/Convention/Protocol)

List - II

(A) UN Conference on Environment and Development

(I) 1987

(B) Kyoto Conference on Global Warming

(II) 1992

(C) Paris Agreement

(III) 1997

(D) Montreal Protocol

(IV) 2015

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  2. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)

71. Which of the following statutes define "person interested"?

  1. Patent Act, 1970
  2. Copyright Act, 1957
  3. Industrial Designs Act, 2000
  4. Geographical Indication (Registration and Protection) Act, 2000

72. Which of the following cases are related to Restitution of Conjugal Rights according to the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

(A) T. Sareetha v. Venkatasubbaiah

(B) Parkash v. Parmeshwari

(C) Tirath v. Kripal Singh

(D) Harvinder Kaur v. Harmander Singh

(E) Sureshtha Devi v. Om Prakash

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D) Only
  2. (A), (B), (E) Only
  3. (C), (D), (E) Only
  4. (A), (B), (D) Only

73. In which case, did the Supreme Court hold that Passive Euthanasia can be allowed under exceptional circumstances under strict monitoring of the Court?

  1. Aruna Ramchandra Shanbaug v. Union of India
  2. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
  3. P. Rathinam v. Union of India
  4. Arayakkamdy v. State

74. Which one of the following is not a ground for Fasid Marriages under Sunni Law?

  1. Marriage with fifth woman
  2. Unlawful conjugation
  3. Marriage with a woman undergoing iddat
  4. Marriage in violation of conditions of fosterage

75. Which kind of encumbrance on property gives a right for the limited use of a piece of land to a person/persons without giving them possession of the land?

  1. Securities
  2. Lease
  3. Servitudes
  4. Trust

76. The doctrine of separation forms the basis of the American constitutional structure. Which of the following provisions of the U.S. Constitution exemplify the concept of separation of powers?

  1. Article I
  2. Articles I and II
  3. Articles I, II, and III
  4. Articles II, III, and V

77. In order to constitute a "marz-ul-maut", which of the following conditions must be satisfied?

(A) The malady or illness must result in death.

(B) The illness must cause reasonable apprehension of death in the mind of the donor.

(C) There should be some external indicia of a serious illness.

(D) There must be an apprehension of death in the mind of the physician.

(E) Delivery of possession must be given to the donee.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (B), (C), (D), (E) Only
  2. (A), (B), (C), (D) Only
  3. (A), (C), (D), (E) Only
  4. (A), (B), (C), (E) Only

78. Match List - I with List - II

List - I (Concept)

List - II (Cases)

(A) Vicarious Liability

(I) State Bank of India v. Shyama Devi

(B) Absolute Liability

(II) Rylands v. Fletcher

(C) Strict Liability

(III) Peninsular and Oriental Steam Navigation Company v. Secretary of State for India

(D) Vicarious Liability of the State

(IV) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(III), (D)-(IV)
  2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)-(II)

79. Arrange the following in the order of sections in which they appear in the Lieber Code:

(A) Martial Law

(B) Public and Private Property of the Enemy

(C) Deserters

(D) Partisans

(E) Spies

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
  2. (B), (C), (D), (E), (A)
  3. (C), (D), (E), (A), (B)
  4. (D), (E), (A), (B), (C)

80. Which of the following statements are correct in the context of the rule laid down in the case of Rylands v. Fletcher?

(A) Some dangerous thing must have been brought by a person on his land.

(B) The thing brought or kept by a person on his land must not escape.

(C) It must not be non-natural use of land.

(D) The thing brought or kept by a person on his land must escape.

(E) It must be non-natural use of land.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (E), (A), (B) Only
  2. (B), (C), (A) Only
  3. (D), (B), (C) Only
  4. (A), (D), (E) Only

81. The definition of Tortious Liability:

"Tortious liability arises from the breach of a duty primarily fixed by the law: this duty is towards persons generally and its breach is redressable by an action for unliquidated damages"

— is given by which of the following jurists?

  1. Salmond
  2. Winfield
  3. Fraser
  4. Puchta

82. Arrange the following provisions of the Hague Convention, 1907, in the numerical order in which they appear:

(A) The Pacific Settlement of International Disputes

(B) The Limitation of Employment of Force for Recovery of Contract Debts

(C) The Opening of Hostilities

(D) The Laws and Customs of War on Land

(E) The Rights and Duties of Neutral Power and Persons in case of War on Land

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
  2. (A), (E), (D), (C), (B)
  3. (B), (D), (C), (E), (A)
  4. (B), (C), (A), (D), (E)

83. For what purpose is the Wednesbury Test applied?

  1. To determine the irrationality of administrative action
  2. To determine the proportionality of administrative action
  3. To determine procedural impropriety of administrative action
  4. To determine the abuse of jurisdiction by administrative action

84. Arrange the following fundamental duties in the order as mentioned under Article 51A of the Indian Constitution:

(A) To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

(B) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom

(C) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

(D) To develop the scientific temper, humanism, and spirit of inquiry and reform

(E) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (C), (D), (B), (E), (A)
  2. (B), (E), (A), (D), (C)
  3. (A), (B), (C), (E), (D)
  4. (B), (E), (C), (A), (D)

85. Which of the following states is NOT included in Part XXI: Temporary, Transitional, and Special Provisions of the Indian Constitution?

  1. Nagaland
  2. Assam
  3. Telangana
  4. Haryana

86. Match List - I with List - II

List - I (Statute)

List - II (Year)

(A) Statute of the International Criminal Tribunal for the former Yugoslavia

(I) 1998

(B) Statute of the International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda

(II) 2002

(C) Statute of the International Criminal Court

(III) 1994

(D) Statute of the Special Court for Sierra Leone

(IV) 1993

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
  2. (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
  3. (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

87. Arrange the following cases in their chronological order:

(A) Legal consequences of the continued presence of South Africa in Namibia (South-West Africa) notwithstanding Security Council Resolution (Advisory Opinion)

(B) Texaco Overseas Petroleum Co. v. Govt. of the Libyan Arab Republic

(C) Fisheries Jurisdiction (United Kingdom v. Iceland)

(D) Western Sahara Case (Advisory Opinion)

(E) Voting Procedure on Questions Relating to Reports and Petitions Concerning the Territory of South-West Africa (Advisory Opinion)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (C), (D), (B), (E)
  2. (E), (A), (C), (D), (B)
  3. (D), (B), (C), (A), (E)
  4. (B), (E), (A), (D), (C)

88. Arrange the following conventions/treaties in their chronological order:

(A) Hague Conventions (on humanitarian law)

(B) European Convention on Human Rights

(C) Geneva Conventions

(D) Tokyo Convention (on hijacking)

(E) Universal Declaration of Human Rights

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (C), (B), (D), (E), (A)
  2. (A), (C), (B), (D), (E)
  3. (A), (E), (C), (B), (D)
  4. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

89. Which of the following acts are exempted from criminal liability under the Indian Penal Code?

(A) Act likely to cause harm done without criminal intent to prevent other harm

(B) Act causing slight harm

(C) Act of a child above 7 and under 12 years, but of immature understanding

(D) Act likely to cause harm done with criminal intent

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A), (B), (C) Only
  2. (B), (C), (D) Only
  3. (A), (B), (D) Only
  4. (C), (D), (A) Only

90. Match List - I with List - II

List - I (Relief under IPR suits)

List - II (Concept)

(A) Anton Piller Order

(I) Legal action against unknown parties

(B) Mareva Injunction

(II) Right to search premises and seize evidence without prior warning

(C) John Doe Order

(III) Injunction order against all mirror websites

(D) Dynamic Injunction

(IV) Freezing of defendant's assets

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
  2. (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
  3. (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
  4. (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)

Comprehension Questions (Q.91 to Q.95)

Read the following passage and answer the questions below:

Under copyright laws of different jurisdictions world-over, software is considered a literary work, written down, recorded or otherwise reduced to mathematical form, and entails protection. Copyright protects the expression (form) of an idea and not the idea itself. It also cannot be used to protect the procedure, process, system, method of operation, concept, principle or discovery. Copyright law is not supposed to create monopolies. Copyright subsists in original works that are capable of being reproduced from a fixed medium. It is granted for movies, musical compositions, paintings and for many other creative expressions. Article 10(1) of the Agreement on Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) provides copyright protection to computer programmes. The copyright is a bundle of rights, which entitles the owner of the copyright to take action against its violation. It is, thus, a negative right that enables the author to prevent any other person from dealing with the copyrighted material. Copyright subsists in a computer programme provided sufficient effort or skill has been expended to give it a new and original character. But a computer programme which only produces the multiplication tables or the alphabets, cannot lay claim to copyright protection, because the amount of skill or efforts to bring out such a work is too trivial to term it new and of original character.

91. How do copyright laws of different jurisdictions consider software?

  1. It is considered a literary work.
  2. It is considered an artistic work.
  3. It is considered a non-copyrightable work.
  4. It is considered a monopoly work.

92. Can copyright subsist in a computer programme?

  1. No, since computer programmes are only readable by machines.
  2. No, since all computer programmes have nothing original about them.
  3. Yes, since all computer programmes are works of art.
  4. Yes, if sufficient effort or skill has been expended to give it a new and original character.

93. Which provision of the Agreement on Trade-Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) provides copyright protection to computer programs?

  1. Article 1(1)
  2. Article 2(10)
  3. Article 10(1)
  4. Article 10(10)

94. Can a computer programme be granted copyright if it produces only the multiplication tables?

  1. Yes, because a multiplication table is a work of art.
  2. Yes, because there is creativity involved in it.
  3. No, because the skill or effort to bring out such works is too trivial to term it new and of original character.
  4. No, because it is just a discovery and not an invention.

95. Where does copyright subsist?

  1. Copyright subsists in original works incapable of being reproduced.
  2. Copyright subsists in non-original works capable of being reproduced.
  3. Copyright subsists in original works capable of being reproduced.
  4. Copyright subsists in all works irrespective of their capacity to be reproduced.

Comprehension Questions (Q.96 to Q.100)

Read the following passage and answer the questions below:

Besides providing for a functional government and consequential growth in the administrative process, the Constitution has also provided for an elaborate control mechanism so that the water may not overrun its banks. Under Articles 32 and 226, the Supreme Court and the various High Courts have been invested with powers to issue writs of certiorari, mandamus, quo warranto, prohibition and habeas corpus to check the excesses of the government and the administrative agencies. Article 300 gives a right to individuals to file a suit against the government for torts committed by its servants. Article 311 protects government servants from arbitrary actions of the government in the matters of dismissal, termination and reduction in rank. In the same manner, Article 136 confers power on the Supreme Court to grant special leave to appeal from any judgement, decree, determination, sentence or order passed or made by any court or tribunal in India. Article 227 further invests the High Courts with the power of superintendence over all courts and tribunals within their jurisdiction. All legislative actions of the administration have been expressly brought by the Constitution within the purview of Article 13 by defining "law" as including "order", "bye-law", rule" and "notification", etc. having the force of law.

96. How were all legislative actions of the administration brought under the purview of Article 13?

  1. By conferring on the Supreme Court power to grant special leave to appeal
  2. By defining law in a narrow perspective under Article 13
  3. By vesting power to issue writs on the Supreme Court and High Courts
  4. By giving a wide definition of law under Article 13

97. Which of the following authorities is vested with the power of superintendence over tribunals?

  1. Administrative agencies
  2. Government agencies
  3. High Court
  4. Supreme Court

98. Which of the following Articles in the Constitution provide mechanisms to check the excesses of administrative and government agencies?

  1. Article 32 and 226
  2. Article 300, 311, and 227
  3. Article 13 and 136
  4. Article 13 and 32

99. What was the reason for the growth of the administrative process?

  1. The Constitution did codify the administrative process.
  2. The Constitution conferred power on the Supreme Court alone to grant special leave to appeal.
  3. The Constitution provided for a functional government.
  4. The Constitution provided no control mechanism against arbitrary action by administrative agency.

100. What is the relevance of the control mechanism under the Constitution?

  1. To enable administrative agencies to exercise unfettered authority.
  2. To check the excesses of administrative actions.
  3. To make the Supreme Court and High Court more powerful.
  4. To enable the people and government servants to absolutely control administrative agencies.

ANSWER KEY

1

[4]

26

[4]

51

[4]

76

[3]

2

[2]

27

[4]

52

[3]

77

[4]

3

[3]

28

[1]

53

[1]

78

[3]

4

[1]

29

[4]

54

[1]

79

[1]

5

[4]

30

[4]

55

[1]

80

[4]

6

[4]

31

[3]

56

[2]

81

[2]

7

[2]

32

[1]

57

[3]

82

[1]

8

[4]

33

[2]

58

[2]

83

[1]

9

[3]

34

[1]

59

[2]

84

[2]

10

[1]

35

[2]

60

[3]

85

[4]

11

[2]

36

[1]

61

[4]

86

[2]

12

[3]

37

[3]

62

[1]

87

[2]

13

[4]

38

[1]

63

[1]

88

[3]

14

[4]

39

[2]

64

[3]

89

[1]

15

[4]

40

[3]

65

[1]

90

[3]

16

[2]

41

[3]

66

[1]

91

[1]

17

[1]

42

[3]

67

[4]

92

[4]

18

[4]

43

[1]

68

[3]

93

[3]

19

[2]

44

[4]

69

[1]

94

[3]

20

[2]

45

[4]

70

[1]

95

[3]

21

[3]

46

[3]

71

[1]

96

[4]

22

[1]

47

[2]

72

[1]

97

[3]

23

[4]

48

[1]

73

[1]

98

[1]

24

[1]

49

[1]

74

[4]

99

[3]

25

[4]

50

[2]

75

[3]

100

[2]

Disclaimer: Answers are subject to change as they are based on the provisional answer key provided by NTA, and the official final answer key is yet to be released.

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