UGC NET Paper-II December 2025 (Law) Solved Paper | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

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UGC NET Paper-II December 2025 (Law) Solved Paper | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

1. “Doctrine of Common Employment” has the origin in which of the following case?

1. Priestley vs Fowler

2. Brochle Bank vs Noor Ahmed

3. Governor General in Council vs Zena Wells

4. Secretary of State vs Rukmani Ben

2. In educational institutions, reservations of seats in favour of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes is governed by which Article of the Constitution of India?

1. Article 21-A

2. Article 19

3. Article 15

4. Article 16

3. Mark the incorrect statements about the circumstances in which Limited Liability Partnership (LLP) may be wound up by the tribunal.

A. Where for a period of more than three months the number of partners is reduced to below two

B. If the LLP has acted against the interest of the sovereignty and integrity of India

C. If the LLP has made a default in filing with the Registrar the statement of account and solvency or Annual Return for any two consecutive financial years

D. If LLP is unable to pay its debts

Options:

1. B, D only

2. A, C only

3. C, D only

4. A, B only

4. Which of the following case primarily deals with the concept of Uniform Civil Code?

1. Seema vs Ashwani Kumar

2. Sarla Mudgal vs Union of India

3. Dipanwita Roy vs Ronobroto Roy

4. Pratibha Rani vs Suraj Kumar

5. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: United States of America is a recognized example of entrenched constitutional tradition.

Reason R: US Constitution is the oldest still functioning and longest written Constitution of the world.

Options:

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

6. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

Options:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

3. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

7. National Commission for Minority Educational Institution Act was enacted by the Parliament in which year?

1. 1992

2. 1995

3. 2002

4. 2004

8. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The owner in possession of the thing has the right to exclude all others from the possession and enjoyment of it.

Reason R: The right to maintain or recover possession of a thing as against all others is an essential part of ownership.

Options:

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

9. Who among the following defines legal right as “a legally protected interest”?

1. Thibaut

2. Allen

3. Ihering

4. Austin

10. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Doctrine)

A. Doctrine of Pith and Substance

B. Doctrine of Territorial Nexus

C. Doctrine of Repugnancy

D. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation

LIST-II (Case Law)

I. K C G Narayan Dev. vs State of Orissa

II. M. Karunanidhi vs Union of India

III. P. K. Mukherjee vs Bank of Khulna

IV. Wallace vs Income Tax Commissioner

Options:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

11. Which of the following are true with respect to the decision in State of Maharashtra Vs Praful B. Desai (2003) 4 SCC 601?

A. The law must adopt to the change in society and should accept the new technology

B. The evidence in a criminal trial can be both oral and documentary; and electronic record including video conferencing

C. Video conferencing does not constitute evidence as defined in Section 3 of Indian Evidence Act

D. Presence under Section 273 Cr.P.C. cannot include presence through video conferencing

Options:

1. A and D only

2. B and C only

3. A and B only

4. C and D only

12. Which of the following case illustrates the patent bargain metaphor which is an application of social contract theory?

1. Universal Oil Products vs Globe Oil & Refining Co.

2. Georgia vs Public Resource Org. Inc.

3. Fogerty vs Fantasy Inc.

4. Fourth Estate Public Benefit Corpn. vs Wall-street.Com., LLC

13. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. The idea of three branches of government was advocated by Montesquieu

B. The US Supreme Court decided the case of Marbury Vs Madison in the year 1803

C. Article 3 of the US Constitution is identified with independence of the judiciary

D. The Ninth Amendment to the US Constitution provides prohibitions against cruel and unusual punishment

E. The Eight Amendment to the US Constitution provides for rights retained by the people

Options:

1. A, C and E only

2. B, D and E only

3. A, B and C only

4. B, C and D only

14. Arrange the following grounds of Divorce in the order of their appearance under Section 13(1) of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

A. Suffering from venereal disease in a communicable form

B. Ceased to be a Hindu by conversion

C. Renounced the world by entering any religious order

D. Has not been heard of as being alive for a period of seven years or more

E. Cruelty

Options:

1. D, C, A, B, E

2. A, E, B, C, D

3. B, E, C, D, A

4. E, B, A, C, D

15. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: In England, due to historical reasons British Parliament is a judicial as well as legislative body.

Reason R: There is no written Constitution to limit the authority of the Parliament in Britain.

Options:

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

16. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R

Assertion A: Article 30 of Constitution of India confers a right on all minorities to establish and administer educational institutions.

Reason R: The right to establish and administer educational institutions by the minorities is based solely on religion.

Options:

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

17. Arrange the following cases chronologically (starting from earliest to the latest)

A. Minerva Mills Ltd. vs Union of India

B. Samsher Singh vs State of Punjab

C. S. P. Anand vs H. D. Deve Gowda

D. U.N.R. Rao vs Smt. Indira Gandhi

Options:

1. D, B, A, C

2. D, B, C, A

3. C, B, A, D

4. A, B, C, D

18. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Exception to Murder)

A. Exception-2

B. Exception-3

C. Exception-4

D. Exception-5

LIST-II (Corresponding Provision)

I. Act of Public Servant

II. Exceeding the right of private defence

III. Sudden fight

IV. Death by consent

Options:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

3. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

19. Arrange the following provisions from the Information Technology Act, 2000 in the ascending order of their appearance in the Act.

A. Validity of contracts formed through electronic means

B. Use of electronic records and electronic signatures in Government and its agencies

C. Retention of electronic records

D. Publication of rules, regulation etc. in electronic Gazette

Options:

1. A, B, C, D

2. D, C, A, B

3. B, C, D, A

4. C, D, B, A

20. Which of the following case decided by the Supreme Court of India primarily deals with the maintenance to be paid in case of Live-in relationships?

1. Lata Kamat vs Vilas

2. Veena Rani vs Ramesh Kumar

3. Pushpa Devi vs Radheyshyam

4. Chanmuniya vs Virendra Kumar Singh Kushwaha

21. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Feature)

A. Executive Legislation

B. Collective Responsibility

C. Quasi-Judicial Function

D. Independence of Judiciary

LIST-II (Application)

I. Appointment and removal of Judges

II. Administrative adjudication

III. Parliamentary form of government

IV. Ordinance

Options:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

22. Under which doctrine a person is liable if he intended to kill ‘X’ but kills ‘Z’ whose death he neither intended nor knows to be likely to cause?

1. Doctrine of res-judicata

2. Doctrine of mens rea

3. Doctrine of transfer of malice

4. Doctrine of absolute necessity

23. Which of the following statements are correct about e-rickshaw and e-cart as per the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988?

A. It is battery powered vehicle

B. Power is not exceeding 4000 Watt

C. It has three wheels for carrying passengers only

D. Not a special purpose vehicle

Options:

1. C, D only

2. A, B only

3. B, C only

4. A, D only

24. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court declared that till a law is made by the Parliament, the appointment to the posts of Chief Election Commissioner of India and Election Commissioner shall be done by the President of India on the basis of the advice tendered by a Committee?

1. S.S. Dhanoa v. Union of India

2. T.N. Seshan v. Union of India

3. Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India

4. In Re Presidential Reference, 2002

25. Which of the following cases deal with the interpretation of the ‘personal liberty’ under Article 21 of the Constitution of India?

A. Kharak Singh v. State of U.P.

B. Mohini Jain v. State of Karnataka

C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

D. A.K. Gopalan v. Union of India

Options:

1. A, B, C only

2. A, B only

3. A, C, D only

4. B, C, D only

26. Which of the following right is not available under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 to the Unpaid Seller notwithstanding that the property in the goods may have passed to the buyer?

1. A lien on the goods for the price while he is in possession of them

2. In case of insolvency of the buyer, a right of stopping the goods in transit after he has parted with the possession of them

3. A right of re-sale as limited by the Act

4. A right of withholding delivery

27. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court of India directed the Courts and Tribunals to ensure that all uploaded judgments and orders are signed using digital signatures and not as scanned copies of printed version?

1. Ameena Begum v. State of Telangana (2023)

2. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal (1997)

3. State Bank of India v. Ajay Kumar (2021)

4. Virbhadra Singh v. Enforcement Directorate (2017)

28. Who amongst the following are included in definition of ‘Manufacturer’ in the Consumer Protection Act, 2019?

A. Maker of goods or parts

B. One who assembles goods or parts

C. Who puts his own mark on goods made by others

D. One who sells goods

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B, C only

2. B, C, D only

3. A, C, D only

4. A, B, D only

29. Certain principles to distinguish obligatory from recommendatory injunctions can be found in which of the following ancient Indian texts?

1. Jijnyasa

2. Mimansa

3. Rashtrayani

4. Garuda Nyaya

30. Arrange the following in the order in which they appear in the Preamble to the Indian Constitution:

A. Equality

B. Justice

C. Liberty

D. Fraternity

Choose the correct answer:

1. A, B, C, D

2. B, C, D, A

3. B, C, A, D

4. C, B, D, A

31. Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Holland remarked that international law is the vanishing point of jurisprudence

B. Holland was an analytical jurist

C. The Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties provides that a treaty may be binding on third States as well

D. Grotius and Vattel were positivists

E. The International Court of Justice recognises the sources of international law under Article 36 (1)(c) of its statute

Choose the correct answer:

1. B, D and E only

2. A, B and C only

3. A, C and E only

4. C, D and E only

32. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Concept under Indian Contract Act, 1872)

A. Payment by interested person

B. Payment made under mistake or coercion

C. Liability of pay for non-gratuitous acts

D. Supply of necessaries

LIST-II (Corresponding Sections)

I. Section 69

II. Section 72

III. Section 68

IV. Section 70

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

2. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

3. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

33. Arrange the following cases relating to extradition in their chronological order:

A. Soering v. United Kingdom

B. Chitat v. Canada

C. United States v. Rauscher

D. Daya Singh Lahoria v. Union of India

E. Kindler v. Canada

Choose the correct answer:

1. C, A, E, B, D

2. B, D, C, E, A

3. A, B, C, D, E

4. E, C, D, A, B

34. National Green Tribunal Act came into force on which date?

1. 18 Oct 2010

2. 18 Nov 2010

3. 8 Oct 2010

4. 8 Nov 2010

35. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Basic Feature)

A. Independence of the judiciary

B. Federal system

C. Secularism

D. Parliamentary system of government

LIST-II (Judge and the case)

I. Fazal Ali – S.P. Gupta v. Union of India

II. Bachawat – Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

III. Reddy – Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

IV. Khanna – Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

2. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

3. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II

4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

36. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Article from the Indian Constitution)

A. Article 325

B. Article 326

C. Article 327

D. Article 329

LIST-II (Corresponding Provisions)

I. One general electoral roll

II. Adult Suffrage

III. Bar to interference by courts in electoral matters

IV. Power of Parliament to make provisions w.r.t. elections to legislatures

Choose the correct answer:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

37. Which of the following is NOT correct about the nature of limited liability partnership?

1. It is a body corporate incorporated under the Act

2. It is a legal entity separate from its partners

3. It enjoys the benefit of perpetual succession

4. It follows the principle of unlimited liability

38. Which Article of the Constitution of India provides that “Government of India can be sued in the name of Union of India and State Government may be sued in the name of State”?

1. Article 300(1)

2. Article 270

3. Article 1

4. Article 110

39. Setting up of the State Human Rights Commission is provided under which Chapter of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?

1. Chapter X

2. Chapter II

3. Chapter V

4. Chapter IV

40. Who among the following opines that historical sources of law pertain to legal history and not to legal theory?

1. Salmond

2. Blackstone

3. Pollock

4. Gray

41. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Sources of Hindu Law)

A. Dharma Sutras

B. Mayukha

C. Dayabhaga

D. Dharma Shastras

LIST-II (Authors)

I. Jimuta Vahana

II. Narada

III. Vasistha

IV. Nilkantha

Options:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

42. Arrange the following rights as they appear in Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 (ascending order):

A. Rights relating to Freedom

B. Rights relating to Liberties of people

C. Rights relating to Rule of Law

D. Economic Rights

Options:

1. C, B, A, D

2. A, B, C, D

3. B, A, C, D

4. C, A, B, D

43. Which of the following is NOT a subject matter of copyright as per Section 13 of the Copyright Act, 1957?

1. Cinematographic films

2. Dramatic work

3. Performance of performers

4. Sound recording

44. Arrange the following IPR Treaties in the chronological order of their adoption (ascending order):

A. Beijing Treaty on Audio-Visual Performances

B. Singapore Treaty on Law of Trademarks

C. Madrid Agreement (Marks)

D. Madrid Protocol (Marks)

Options:

1. A, B, D, C

2. C, D, B, A

3. C, B, D, A

4. B, C, D, A

45. Which of the following case decided by the Supreme Court of India deals with the concept of ‘Public Wrong’ under Tort?

1. Sebastian M v. Union of India

2. Kasturi Lal v. State of UP

3. Carew & Co. Ltd. v. Union of India

4. Union of India v. Ashok Kumar

46. Under which condition, a widowed daughter-in-law cannot claim the right of maintenance from the father-in-law as per Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956?

1. If she is unable to maintain herself out of her own earnings

2. If father-in-law has coparcenary property in his possession and she has not obtained a share

3. If she has ceased to be a Hindu

4. If she is unable to obtain maintenance from the estate of her husband

47. Arrange the following in order of their coming into being/adoption/enactment (ascending order):

A. UN Convention on Rights of Persons with Disabilities

B. Americans with Disabilities Act

C. United Kingdom Disability Discriminations Act

D. The Persons with Disability Act (India)

Options:

1. B, C, D, A

2. A, B, C, D

3. C, B, D, A

4. A, C, D, B

48. Which Amendment to American Constitution explicitly declared that powers not specifically delegated to Federal Government were part of sovereign authority of State Government?

1. Fifteenth

2. Sixth

3. Tenth

4. Fourth

49. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (Theory)

A. Pigeon Hole Theory

B. Neighbour Rule

C. Tort is Social Engineering

D. Use of phrase ‘Law of Tort’

LIST-II (Propounder)

I. William Prosser

II. Wenfield

III. Lord Atkin

IV. Salmond

Options:

1. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

2. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I

4. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

50. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: A Waqf under Muslim law is essentially a religious and pious obligation.
Reason R: Provision is sometimes made in a Waqf for charities and for the benefits of oneself, one’s children and descendants.

Options:

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

51. Which statements are incorrect with respect to the Indian Patent Act, 1970?

A. Invention relating to atomic energy are not patentable.

B. Originality and novelty are pre-requisites for patentability.

C. IPAB deals with all types of IPR disputes currently in India.

D. A patent is valid for 20 years.

Options:

1. C and D only

2. A and B only

3. A and D only

4. B and C only

52. Under Clause (3)(a) of Article 13 of the Constitution of India, “Law” includes:

1. Rule, regulation, bye-law, order, notification, custom or usage

2. Act, ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage

3. Ordinance, order, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage

4. Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage

53. What is the role of Secretary General of NHRC as reflected under Section 3 of the Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993?

1. Advisor of NHRC

2. Technical Member of NHRC

3. Chief Executive Officer of NHRC

4. Legal Member of NHRC

54. The Central Government is empowered to appoint which agency under Section 70B of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

1. Indian Electronic Emergency Response Team

2. Indian Digital Security Response Team

3. National Cyber Security Response Team

4. Indian Computer Emergency Response Team

55. Which of the Articles of the Constitution of India mentions Union List, Concurrent List and State List?

1. Article 245

2. Article 246

3. Article 246A

4. Article 249

56. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II

LIST-I (WIPO-administered IPR Treaties)

A. Patent Law Treaty

B. Riyadh Design Law Treaty

C. WIPO Copyright Treaty

D. Nairobi Treaty

LIST-II (Year of Adoption)

I. 2024

II. 2000

III. 1981

IV. 1996

Options:

1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

3. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III

4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

57. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Culpable homicide is genus and murder is specie.
Reason R: All murders are culpable homicide but not vice-versa.

Options:

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

58. Arrange the following in the order of their appearance in the relevant Article under the Charter of the United Nations:

A. Negotiation

B. Enquiry

C. Mediation

D. Conciliation

E. Arbitration

Options:

1. A, C, D, E, B

2. E, C, D, A, B

3. A, B, C, D, E

4. B, D, C, A, E

59. The Supreme Court of India, stating the historical background and sanctity of Guru Granth Sahib, held it to be a juristic person in which of the following cases?

1. Masjid Shahid Ganj v. Shiromani Gurdwara Prabandhak Committee

2. State of Punjab v. Mahinder Singh Chawla

3. Union of India v. W.N. Chadha

4. Shiromani Gurdwara Prabandhak Committee v. Somnath Das

60. Which of the following offence is most severally punishable?

1. Unlawful assembly

2. Rioting

3. Affray

4. Assault

61. Which of the following is not a condition for a valid adoption under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956?

1. If the adoption is of a son, the adoptive father or mother must not have a Hindu son living at the time of adoption

2. If the adoption is by a female and the person to be adopted is a female, the adoptive mother is at least twenty-one years older than the person to be adopted

3. The same child may not be adopted simultaneously by two or more persons

4. The child to be adopted must be actually given and taken in adoption by parents/guardians

62. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: While TRIPS Agreement goes on to outline certain standards of protection for Geographical Indications (GIs), it does not prescribe a particular form of protection so long as these standards are met.
Reason R: Viewed in the historical context, it is unsurprising that while TRIPS reflects the relatively stable referent for trademarks, for GIs the definition is more fluid.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

63. What is the nature of the question where the provocation was grave and sudden enough to prevent the offence from amounting to murder?

1. Mixed question of fact and law

2. Question of law

3. Question of fact

4. Question of criminal law

64. Which of the following says that the purpose of law is to grant the individual the means of self-expression or self-assertion?

1. The Will theory

2. The Atomic theory

3. The theory of Liberty/Personality

4. The theory of Natural Law

65. The case for possession of Arantzazu Mendi before the House of Lords was between which of the following parties?

1. De jure Government of the United Kingdom and de facto Government of Denmark

2. De jure Government of Spain and de facto Nationalist Government of Spain

3. De jure Government of France and de facto Nationalist Government of France

4. De jure Government of Belgium and de facto Nationalist Government of Belgium

66. Arrange the following cases in their chronological order:

A. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India

B. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

C. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab

D. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

E. Waman Rao v. Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D, E

2. E, D, C, B, A

3. A, B, D, C, E

4. D, E, A, B, C

67. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Every company having net worth of rupees five hundred crores or more or turnover of rupees one thousand crore or more or a net profit of rupees five crore or more during the immediately preceding financial year shall constitute a Corporate Social Responsibility Committee (CSRC).

Reason R: The CSR Committee monitors CSR policy of the company.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

68. Which provision of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 provides that “everyone has the right to a nationality”?

1. Article 10

2. Article 15

3. Article 7

4. Article 21

69. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: A written Constitution is intended to operate as a limitation upon the powers of the various organs of a State.

Reason R: Under those Constitutions where judicial review exists, the guardianship of the Constitution belongs to the courts.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct but R is not correct

4. A is not correct but R is correct

70. Developed mostly by German scholars, which of the following schools sought for a universal doctrine of historical evolution of the whole world (rather than being limited only to a particular race) and its laws from some universal and metaphysical source?

1. Historical school

2. Metaphysical school

3. Sociological school

4. Comparative school

71. In the context of Standard Form Contracts, which Rule will apply if there is any doubt as to the meaning and scope of excluding terms and to resolve the ambiguity against the party who has inserted it?

1. Purposive Interpretation Rule

2. Removal Simpliciter Rule

3. Contra Proferentem Rule

4. Escalation Clauses Rule

72. Arrange the following provisions in the order in which they appear in the Constitution of India.

A. Provision as to Financial Emergency

B. Suspension of provisions of Article 19 during emergencies

C. Provision in case of failure of constitutional machinery in States

D. Effect of Proclamation of Emergency

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C, D

2. A, B, D, C

3. D, B, A, C

4. D, C, B, A

73. Which of the following Section in the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 prescribes for Benefit sharing fee and royalties?

1. Section 6

2. Section 10A

3. Section 30

4. Section 16

74. Arrange the following Class-II legal heirs in the order of their appearance in the Schedule in the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.

A. Son’s daughter’s son

B. Daughter’s son’s son

C. Daughter’s son’s daughters

D. Son’s daughter’s daughter

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, D, B, C

2. D, A, C, B

3. A, C, B, D

4. C, B, D, A

75. In every listed public company, how many of the total number of directors shall be independent directors?

1. One-fourth

2. One-third

3. One-fifth

4. One-tenth

76. Arrange the following as they appear in the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 (ascending order):

A. Motor Vehicle Accident Fund

B. Claims Tribunal

C. Recall of Motor Vehicles

D. Necessity of Permits

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D, C, B, A

2. D, B, A, C

3. B, C, D, A

4. C, A, B, D

77. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

LIST-I (Particulars)

A. Entry into force of the UN Convention on the Status of Refugees

B. Entry into force of the Protocol to the UN Convention on the Status of Refugees

C. Second time when the UN High Commissioner for Refugees won the Nobel Peace Prize

D. Formation of the UN Commission on Refugees

LIST-II (Year)

I. 1967

II. 1954

III. 1981

IV. 1950

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

4. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV

78. Which of the following are correct in the context of guidelines laid down in S. R. Bommai v. Union of India?

A. Presidential proclamation under Art. 356 is not subject to judicial review

B. If a state government works against secularism, President Rule can be imposed

C. State assembly can be dissolved only after the approval of Parliament

D. Power under Art. 356 is not an absolute power

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. A, B, C only

2. B, C, D only

3. C and A only

4. B and D only

79. When did India and the United Kingdom (U.K.) formally sign the Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA)?

1. 24 July 2025

2. 31 December 2024

3. 15 January 2025

4. 1 July 2024

80. Arrange the following concepts as per their order of appearance in the Indian Contract Act, 1872:

A. Continuing guarantee

B. Care to be taken by bailee

C. Compensation for loss or damage caused by breach of contract

D. Claims for necessaries supplied to person incapable of contracting

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. D, B, C, A

2. D, C, A, B

3. C, D, B, A

4. B, A, C, D

81. Arrange the following in the order of their appearance in Section 2 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872.

A. Proposal

B. Consideration

C. Agreement

D. Promise

E. Contract

Options:

1. A, B, D, C, E

2. D, B, A, E, C

3. A, D, B, C, E

4. B, D, A, E, C

82. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Once Rule of Law is acknowledged as a constitutional law superior to the express provision in Article 21, it is only one step further to assert that Rule of Law is a ‘basic feature’ of the Indian Constitution, which is beyond the pale of the express provision in Article 368.

Reason R: It is not unimaginable to conceive that the enacted provisions of a written Constitution would be nullified by invoking some unwritten principle of law of higher ethical value.

Options:

1. Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of A

2. Both A and R are correct, but R is NOT the correct explanation of A

3. A is correct, but R is not correct

4. A is not correct, but R is correct

83. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

LIST-I (Case Law)

A. Cox v/s Hickman

B. Stekel v/s Ellice

C. Lachhman Das v/s CIT

D. Smith v/s Anderson

LIST-II (Related Concept)

I. Business must be taken in a practical sense

II. Partnership between Karta and Coparcener

III. Salaried partner

IV. Mutual Agency

Options:

1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

2. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III

3. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

4. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I

84. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

LIST-I (Case Law)

A. Ashby v/s White

B. Rylands v/s Fletcher

C. Olga Tellis v/s Bombay Municipal Corp.

D. Allen v/s Flood

LIST-II (Concept)

I. Poverty as an involuntary act under Tort

II. Violation of absolute right

III. Strict liability

IV. Motive is irrelevant in Tort

Options:

1. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

85. Under which of its provisions does the Draft Convention on Territorial Asylum adopted by the General Assembly of the United Nations in 1974 recognize that the grant of asylum is a sovereign right of a State?

1. Article 1

2. Article 2

3. Article 3

4. Article 5

86. Which of the following is a landmark case on ‘attempt to commit offences’?

1. Dashrath Paswan v/s State of Bihar

2. K.M. Nanavati v/s State of Maharashtra

3. Abhayanand Mishra v/s State of Bihar

4. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v/s Emperor

87. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

LIST-I (Statement)

A. Justice is the first virtue of social institutions

B. Natural justice is species of political justice

C. Equality of respect and concern

D. Human Dignity is the foundation of Human Rights

LIST-II (Propounder)

I. Immanuel Kant

II. Aristotle

III. Dworkin

IV. John Rawls

Options:

1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I

2. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV

3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

4. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

88. Which of the following is not a type of prospectus under the Companies Act, 2013?

1. Shelf Prospectus

2. Deemed Prospectus

3. Yellow (Herring) Prospectus

4. Abridged Prospectus

89. Which is correct with regard to In Re Right to Privacy of Adolescents (2025 INSC 778)?

A. Not a suo-motu judgment of the Supreme Court of India

B. Victim-centric sentencing under Article 142

C. Held that non-compliance with Section 19(6) of POCSO Act does not violate Article 21

D. Supreme Court refused to further sentence a man convicted under POCSO Act after considering victim’s wishes

Options:

1. A and C only

2. B and D only

3. A and B only

4. C and D only

90. Match the LIST-I with LIST-II.

LIST-I (Concept in the Biological Diversity Act, 2002)

A. National Biodiversity Authority

B. State Biodiversity Fund

C. National Biodiversity Fund

D. Biodiversity Heritage Sites

LIST-II (Corresponding Section)

I. Section 32

II. Section 37

III. Section 8

IV. Section 27

Options:

1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II

3. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

Comprehension (91-95)

“While interpreting the Articles of the Indian Constitution, the Court should remember that it is not construing a petrified legal parchment but reading the lucent lines of a human text with a national mission. The Court must never forget that the life of the Supreme Lex is nourished by the social setting, that juridical abstractions and theoretical conceptions may be fascinating forensics but jejune jurisprudence if the raw Indian realities are slurred over. The Constitution of a nation is being expounded whose people hunger for a full life for each, and therefore, a perception of the signature of social justice writ on it is imperative. ‘Nothing is more certain in modern “society”, declared the American Supreme Court at mid-century ‘than the principle that there are no absolutes. Legal Einsteinism guides the Court, not doctrinal absolutes.”

91. Why is a perception of the signature of social justice writ on the Constitution an imperative for its exposition?

1. Because it is a human text to be read with a national mission

2. Because it is a juridical abstraction making for fascinating forensics

3. Because it is jejune jurisprudence slurring over raw Indian realities

4. Because it is expounded for a nation whose people hunger for a full life for each

92. What must the Court never forget, according to the author?

1. That the life of the Supreme Lex is nourished by juridical abstractions

2. That the life of the Supreme Lex is nourished by theoretical conceptions

3. That the life of the Supreme Lex is nourished by fascinating forensics

4. That the life of the Supreme Lex is nourished by the social setting

93. What should the Court remember while interpreting the Articles of the Indian Constitution?

1. That it is constructing a petrified legal parchment

2. That they are reading the luscent lines of a human text with a national mission

3. That they are interpreting it for future generations

4. That it is their national mission to petrify the legal parchment

94. Which is the most certain principle in modern society?

1. The principle that there are no certainties

2. The principle that there are no principles

3. The principle that there are no absolutes

4. The principle that social justice is not an absolute

95. As per the American Supreme Court, what guides the Court?

1. Legal Einsteinism guides the Court

2. Lucent lines guide the Court

3. Doctrinal absolutes guide the Court

4. Jejune jurisprudence guides the Court

Comprehension (95-100)

As remarked by Dias, “no other firmament of legal or political theory is, so bejewelled with star as that of ‘Natural Law’ for it has engaged the attention of some of the greatest thinkers of all ages.” The credit of giving birth to natural law goes to Greeks. After the Greeks, it was further developed and elaborated by the Romans. The early and original law of Romans was called ‘Jus Civil’. Later on, the Romans developed another legal system called ‘Jus gentium’ which was considered to be the law of universal application. In the republican era of Rome ‘Jus gentium’ was reinforced by natural law or ‘Jus natural’ as it was commonly called. As pointed out by Brierly, by “jus natural” the Romans meant “the sum of those principles which ought to control human conduct because founded in the very nature of man as a rational and social being.” The law of nature is the expression of what is just against what is merely expedient at a particular time and place, it is what is reasonable against what is arbitrary, what is natural against, what is convenient and what is for social good against the personal will.” Thus natural law was based on the rational and reasonable needs of a man’s nature. According to Roman, natural law embodied the elementary principles of justice which were the dictate of rights and reason. In other words, those principles were in accordance with nature and were unalterable and eternal.

96. According to Roman what does Natural Law embody?

1. Social laws

2. Principle of human conduct

3. Elementary principle of justice

4. Company law principle

97. Which of the following is not a characteristic of natural law?

1. Convenience

2. Just and fair

3. Reasonable

4. Social good

98. Which of the following has Universal Application?

1. Jus Civil

2. Jus Gentium

3. Jus Natural

4. Jus Cognito

99. Natural Law is based upon which of the following?

1. Rational and reasonable needs of man

2. Personal will

3. Human conduct

4. Supernatural powers

100. Jus gentium was enforced in which era of Rome?

1. Dictatorship

2. Democratic era

3. Republican era

4. Dark age

Important Link

Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary, and Entrance Exams