Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Examination 2019 Solved Paper | Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

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Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Examination

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Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims 2019 Question Paper | Click Here to Download PDF

Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Paper

2019

1. ‘A’ school’s ‘Z’ with the intention of killing him. ‘Z’ dies in consequence. ‘A’ is guilty of:

  1. Murder
  2. Culpable Homicide
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

2. A imports into India or exports therefrom, any counterfeit coin knowing the same to be counterfeit is guilty under section _____ of IPC.

  1. 234
  2. 235
  3. 236
  4. 237.

Answer: (d)

3. Intentional omission to give information of offence by a person legally found to inform is dealt under section:

  1. 202
  2. 203
  3. 204
  4. 205.

Answer: (a)

4. The word “Public Servant” denotes a person falling under:

  1. A commissioned officer in the military
  2. Every Judge empowered by law to do any adjudicatory functions
  3. Every officer of Court of Justice
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

5. Section 29A of I.P.C. is related to:

  1. Documents
  2. Valuable Security
  3. Electronic record
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

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6. ‘A’ a soldier, fires on a mob by the order of his superior officers in conformity with the commands of the law. A has committed no offence, his defence comes under section ________ IPC.

  1. 76
  2. 77
  3. 78
  4. 79.

Answer: (a)

7. When the right of private defence of property extends to causing death?

  1. Robbery
  2. Housebreaking by night
  3. Mischief by fire committed on any building used for human dwelling
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

8. Whoever wages war against the Government of India or attempts to wage such war shall be punished with:

  1. Imprisonment up to 14 years with fine
  2. Death or imprisonment of life with fine
  3. Imprisonment up to 10 years with fine
  4. Imprisonment up to 7 years with fine.

Answer: (b)

9. Which kind of hurt is not grievous hurt?

  1. Emasculation
  2. Privation of any member or joint
  3. Disfiguration of the head or face
  4. Fracture of dislocation or tooth.

Answer: (c)

10. ‘A’ shakes his fist at Z, intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause to believe that A is about to strike Z, A has:

  1. Committed force
  2. Committed Assault
  3. Committed grave provocation
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

11 A lets a house to B at yearly rent of RS 12000/- The rent for the whole of the years 2015, 2016 and 2017 is due and unpaid. A sues B in 2018 only for the rent due for the year 2016. Whether A can afterwards sue for the rent due for the year of 2015 and 2017?

  1. Yes
  2. No
  3. If he shows good cause
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

12. Section 10 of CPC is related to:

  1. Res Judicata
  2. Res Subjudice
  3. Stay of Suit
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

13. Section 96 of CPC applies to appeal from:

  1. Against Injunction order
  2. Original Decree
  3. Restoration order under- order 9 rule 13
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

14. Where a person commits a public nuisance:

  1. He is liable to criminal prosecution under IPC
  2. Suit may be filed against him under section 91 of CPC
  3. Suit for damages may be filed against him
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

15. Time limit for filing written statement is 30 days which may be extended up to 90 days shall be counted from:

  1. Date of filing of the suit
  2. Date of first hearing fixed by the court
  3. Date of service of summon on the defendant
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

16. Principle of Res-judicata does not apply to:

  1. Suits
  2. Execution of decree
  3. Arbitration proceeding
  4. All of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

17. On which ground plaint cannot be rejected?

  1. Where it does not disclose cause of action
  2. Plaint is filed in such court which does not have jurisdiction to try the suit
  3. Where suit appears to be barred by Law
  4. Where plaint is not filed in duplicate.

Answer: (b)

18. Which section of CPC is related to the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court?

  1. 6
  2. 10
  3. 15
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

19. Order 32 of CPC is related to:

  1. Suit by or against minors and persons of unsound mind
  2. Suit by or against trustees’ executors and administrators
  3. Suit related to matters concerning family
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

20. If a right or liability is created by a statute, which of the following situation may arise:

  1. The statute may create a specific forum for its enforcement
  2. If no machinery is provided for enforcement civil court can entertain the suit
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

21. When police may arrest without a warrant?

  1. Who commits in the presence of police officer a cognizable offence
  2. Who has been proclaimed as an offender by state government
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

22. Under which section of CrPC Assistant Public Prosecutor is appointed by the state government?

  1. 24
  2. 25
  3. 26
  4. 29.

Answer: (b)

23. Who is competent to issue a conditional order for removal of nuisance under section 133 of Cr.P.C?

  1. District Magistrate
  2. Sub-Divisional Magistrate
  3. Executive Magistrate
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

24. Cognizance under section 498A of IPC can be taken:

  1. Upon police report
  2. Upon complaint of victim
  3. Upon complaint of parent and brother sister of victim
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

25. Which of the following statements are correct?

  1. Accused person is not a competent witness
  2. Accused can be punished if he gives false answer in examination section 313-Cr P.C.
  3. Conviction can be based upon evidence partly recorded by one magistrate and partly recorded by another magistrate
  4. Compounding of offence under section 320 (8) CrPC does not have effect of acquittal.

Answer: (c)

26. Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass sentence:

  1. Up to death
  2. Up to life imprisonment
  3. Up to 10 years imprisonment
  4. Up to 7 years imprisonment.

Answer: (d)

27. When any person has reason to believe that he may be arrested on an accusation of having committed a non bailable offence he may apply for anticipatory bail under?

  1. Section 436 Cr.P.C.
  2. Section 437 Cr.P.C.
  3. Section 438 Cr.P.C.
  4. Section 439 Cr.P.C.

Answer: (c)

28. Who is not competent to pass an order under section 106 CrPC to take security. For keeping the peace on conviction?

  1. Judicial magistrate first class
  2. Additional session judge
  3. Chief judicial magistrate
  4. Executive magistrate.

Answer: Question Deleted

29. Power of Court to convert summons case into warrant case is provided under:

  1. Section 302 CrPC
  2. Section 259 CrPC
  3. Section 301 CrPC
  4. Section 322 CrPC.

Answer: (b)

30. The provision to tender pardon to an accomplice is given in:

  1. Section 265 CrPC
  2. Section 306 CrPC
  3. Section 280 CrPC
  4. Section 289 CrPC.

Answer: (b)

31. A’ is tried for murder of ‘B’ intensely beating him with a club causing his death, which of the following facts are in issue?

  1. A’s beating ‘B’ with club
  2. A’s causing B’s death by such beating
  3. A’s intention to cause B’s death
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

32. A desires, a court to give judgment that he is entitled to certain land in the possession of B or basis of certain facts. Which ‘B’ denies to be true under section 101 of the Evidence Act?

  1. A cannot prove the existence of those facts
  2. A need not prove the existence of those facts
  3. A must prove the existence of those facts
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

33. Relevant facts to consider a statement under section 32 of Evidence Act are:

  1. When it relates to cause of death
  2. When it relates to existence of relationship
  3. When it is made in will or in deed relating to family affair
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

34. Essential Requirement for application of section 27 of Evidence Act are:

  1. Person giving information must be an accused of any offence
  2. The person must be in police custody
  3. The person may or may not be in police custody
  4. Both a & b.

Answer: (d)

35. When court is to form an opinion regarding electronic signature then opinion of certifying officer who issued electronic signature is?

  1. Not admissible in Evidence
  2. Is relevant
  3. Not relevant
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

36. When any fact is especially within the knowledge of accused, then the burden of proving that fact is upon?

  1. Accused
  2. Prosecution
  3. Either Accused or Prosecution
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

37. Husband and wife are competent witness against each other in:

  1. In civil and criminal cases
  2. Only in civil cases
  3. Only in criminal cases
  4. Only under investigation.

Answer: (a)

38. Presumption as to dowry death is provided in Section ______ of Evidence Act.

  1. 113 A
  2. 113 B
  3. 114 A
  4. 111 A.

Answer: (b)

39. Queen v. Abdulla (1885) All 385 case law is related to:

  1. Conduct
  2. Consequences
  3. Motive
  4. Preparation.

Answer: (a)

40. Whether the following document are public documents?

  1. Relating to acts or records of acts of the sovereign authority
  2. Public record kept in state of private documents
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

41. A owes B Rs 1000 /- but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. A sign a written promise to pay B Rs 500 on account of debt:

  1. This is not a contract
  2. This is a contract
  3. Either a or b
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

42. A agrees to buy from B a certain horse, it turns out that the horse was dead at the time of bargaining though neither party was aware of the fact.

  1. This agreement is void
  2. This agreement is valid for compensation
  3. Either a or b
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

43. A employs b to beat C and agree to indemnify him against all consequences of the Act. B thereupon beats C and pays damages to C for so doing:

  1. A is liable to indemnify B for these damages
  2. A is partially liable to indemnify to those damages
  3. A is not liable to indemnify B for these damages
  4. None of these.

Answer: (c)

44. A for natural love and affection promises to give his son B Rs 100000/- A puts his promise to ‘B’ into writing and register it. This is a:

  1. Contract
  2. Promise only
  3. Proposal
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

45. In order to convert a proposal into a promise the acceptance must:

  1. Be absolute and qualified
  2. Be expressed in some usual and reasonable manner
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

46. Court fees Act defines fees on document filed, etc. in mufassil courts or in public Office under:

  1. Section 5
  2. Section 6
  3. Section 7
  4. Section 8.

Answer: (b)

47. Fee on memorandum appeal against order relating to compensation is provided under:

  1. Section 7
  2. Section 8
  3. Section 9
  4. None of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

48. Under court fees Act the exemption of certain documents from fees include:

  1. Written statement
  2. Plaint and process
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

49. Where the court refers the parties to the suit to the mode of settlement of dispute referred to section 89 of C.P.C. plaintiff shall be entitled to refund of court fees under section __________ of court fees Act.

  1. 16
  2. 17
  3. 18
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

50. Under section 35 of the court fees Act State Government remits the court fees where plaintiffs annual income does not exceed Rs 25000/- to:

  1. Member or Scheduled Castes
  2. Member of Scheduled Tribes
  3. Women
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

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51. Cultivate personally means under the Chhattisgarh land Revenue Code:

  1. By one’s own labour
  2. Industrial labour
  3. Technician
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

52. When a witness fails to comply with the summons __________ may be issued under CG Land revenue code?

  1. Bailable and arrest warrant
  2. To furnish security for appearance
  3. Fine not exceeding Rs 1000/-
  4. All of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

53. The assessment of land revenue on any land shall be made with reference to the use of land.

  1. For education purpose
  2. For industrial purpose
  3. For commercial purpose
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

54. Section 118 of Chhattisgarh land revenue code related to:

  1. Obligation to Furnish information as to title
  2. Presumption as to entries in land records
  3. Dispute regarding entry in Khasra or in any other land record
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

55. Under Chhattisgarh land revenue code define Government’s title to minerals:

  1. Sec 250
  2. Sec 249
  3. Sec 247
  4. Sec 248.

Answer: (c)

56. Chapter 5 of the Chhattisgarh land revenue code is related to:

  1. Appeal
  2. Revision
  3. Review
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

57. The document registration of which is optional have been dealt in:

  1. Section 16 of Registration Act
  2. Section 17 of Registration Act
  3. Section 18 of Registration Act
  4. Section 19 or Registration Act.

Answer: (c)

58. A document executed out of India can be registered if presented within:

  1. Two months of its arrival in India
  2. Four months or its arrival in India
  3. One month of its arrival in India
  4. Six months of its arrival in India.

Answer: (b)

59. Under section 32 of Registration Act a document for registration can be presented:

  1. By the person executing the document
  2. By the representative or the executor
  3. By the agent of the executor authorised
  4. Any of the above.

Answer: (d)

60. The term negotiation of the negotiable instrument act 1881 refers to:

  1. The transfer of a bill of exchange, promissory note or cheque to any person, so as to constitute the person the holder there of
  2. The payment by a bank on a negotiable instrument after due verification of the instrument
  3. The bargaining between the parties to a negotiable instrument
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

61. When presentment for payment is to be made under Section 65 of the Act?

  1. Presentment for payment can be made at any reasonable time
  2. Presentment for payment must be made during the usual hours of business and, if at a banker within banking hours
  3. There is no such stipulation on time for presentment
  4. None of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

62. For what term of imprisonment an offender under section 138 of the negotiable instrument Act can be punished?

  1. For a term which may extend to two years
  2. For a term which may extend to one year
  3. For a term exceeding three years
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

63. At sight under the negotiable instrument Act means:

  1. On presentation
  2. On demand
  3. On coming into vision
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

64. Dishonour of cheque for insufficiency of funds etc. in the account related to:

  1. Section 137 of the Act
  2. Section 138 of the Act
  3. Section 139 of the Act
  4. Section 141 of the Act.

Answer: (b)

65. Section 13 of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act related to:

  1. Passes for import, export or transport
  2. Licence required for manufacture, etc. or intoxicants
  3. Requirement of pass for import, export or transport
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

66. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act the penalty for certain unlawful acts of Licenced vendor is defined:

  1. Section 38
  2. Section 37
  3. Section 36
  4. Section 35.

Answer: (a)

67. On the direction of State Government duty may be levied on excisable articles:

  1. Imported
  2. Exported
  3. Transported
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

68. Prohibition of sale of liquor intoxicating drug to person under age or 21 years provided under:

  1. Section 22 of the CG excise Act
  2. Section 23 of the CG excise Act
  3. Section 24 of the CG excise Act
  4. Section 25 of the CG excise Act.

Answer: (b)

69. Limit of quantity for the possession of intoxicant has been provided in which section of Chhattisgarh Excise Act?

  1. Section 10
  2. Section 16
  3. Section 18
  4. Section 13.

Answer: (b)

70. Section 21 of the specific relief Act is related to:

  1. Power to award compensation in certain cases
  2. Power to grant relief for possession partition refund or earnest money etc.
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

71. The state shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age:

  1. 8-16 year
  2. 6-14 year
  3. 8-18 year
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

72. Which is not related to freedom to manage religious affairs under Constitution of India?

  1. To establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purpose
  2. To manage its own affairs in matter of religion.
  3. To administer such properly in accordance with Law
  4. To payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion.

Answer: (d)

73. Provisions as to the administration of tribal areas in the state of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram is in which schedule of Constitution of India:

  1. Third schedule
  2. Eight schedule
  3. Fifth schedule
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

74. Under which Article the definition of state include the government and parliament of India, Government and Legislature of State and all local authorities in the territory of India?

  1. Article 11
  2. Article 12
  3. Article 13
  4. Article 9.

Answer: (b)

75. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution provides for the protection of right of freedom of speech?

  1. Article 19
  2. Article 20
  3. Article 18
  4. Article 21.

Answer: (a)

76. In which of the contingencies Article 31 A (1) of Indian Constitution applies?

  1. Acquisition of an estate
  2. Extinguishment of right in an estate
  3. Modification of right in an estate
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

77. To remove the president from the post, impeachment can be brought on the ground of:

  1. Violation of Constitution
  2. Misconduct
  3. Corruption
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

78. Vice president may be removed from his post by resolution of members of council of state?

  1. By at least majority of then members and agreed by house of people
  2. By 2/3rd majority or then members
  3. By 3/4th majority or then members
  4. By Supreme court only.

Answer: Question Deleted

79. President’s resignation shall be given to:

  1. Speaker of House of the people
  2. Vice President
  3. Chief Justice of India
  4. Prime Minister.

Answer: (b)

80. What is the maximum age for retirement of president?

  1. 65 Years
  2. 70 Years
  3. 75 Years
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

81. Immovable property does not include:

  1. Standing Timber
  2. Growing crop
  3. Grass
  4. All of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

82. Section 6 of Transfer of Property Act is related to:

  1. Transfer of property
  2. Person competent to transfer
  3. What may be transferred
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

83. Provisions of longer period in the matter of accumulation of property under sec 17 of T.P. Act amounts to:

  1. 18 Years
  2. 20 Years
  3. 22 Years
  4. 25 Years.

Answer: (a)

84. Under transfer of property Act where two or more persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another, neither thing of both things being money only, the transfer is called:

  1. A transfer
  2. An exchange
  3. A lease
  4. An eviction.

Answer: (b)

85. The foundation of doctrine of election under the transfer of property Act is that a person taking the benefit of an instrument:

  1. Must not bear the burden
  2. Burden is not the subject matter of election
  3. Must bear the burden
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

86. Time requisite under the limitation Act means:

  1. Minimum Time
  2. Maximum Time
  3. Actual Time Taken
  4. Absolutely necessary time.

Answer: (c)

87. Legal disability of limitation Act applies in case of:

  1. Illness
  2. Poverty
  3. Insolvency
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

88. Sec 14 of limitation Act will have no application:

  1. Where the suit is dismissed after adjudication on its merits
  2. Where the suit is dismissed because the court was unable to entertain it
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. Neither (a) and (b).

Answer: (a)

89. Under limitation Act applicant includes:

  1. A petitioner
  2. Any person from or through whom an applicant derives his right to apply
  3. Any person whose state is represented by the applicant an executor, administrator of other representative
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

90. Section 6 of the limitation Act is related to:

  1. Bar of limitation
  2. Legal disability
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

91. Sec 2 (14) of the Chhattisgarh rent control Act is related to:

  1. Tenant
  2. Social nuisances
  3. Rent
  4. Municipal Area.

Answer: (d)

92. Constitution of the rent control tribunal is under:

  1. Sec 3
  2. Sec 4
  3. Sec 5
  4. Sec 6.

Answer: (d)

93. Powers and functions of the rent control tribunal does not include:

  1. Reconciling disputes between landlord and tenant
  2. Establishment of rent controller
  3. Functioning as appellate authority
  4. (b) and (c).

Answer: Question Deleted

94. The rent controller shall execute the order through one of more than one mode:

  1. Attachment and sale of the movable or immovable property of the opposite party
  2. Arrest and detention of the opposite party
  3. Attachment of any one or more bank accounts
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

95. Sec 12 of the Chhattisgarh rent control Act is related to:

  1. Procedure to be followed by rent controllers and rent control tribunal
  2. Rights and obligation of landlord and tenants
  3. Repeal and savings
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

96. Which of the following are true about the word “possession” used in sec 5 of the specific relief Act?

  1. It is Prima facie proof of property
  2. It is good title against all who cannot show better title
  3. It is constituted by itself, a limited title to the property
  4. All of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

97. What is remedy where a lease or agreed to sell property to his lease and accepted part of the price?

  1. Specific performance
  2. A suit for eviction
  3. Either a or b
  4. None of these.

Answer: Question Deleted

98. Schedule 1 of the Chhattisgarh rent control Act is related to:

  1. Tenant rights available under the Act
  2. Landlord’s rights available under the Act
  3. Landlord’s obligation under the Act
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

99. Which of the contracts cannot be specifically enforced?

  1. A contract which is in its nature determined
  2. A contract for the nonperformance of which compensation in money is an adequate relief
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

100. Specific performance of a contract cannot be enforced in favour of a person:

  1. Who would not be entitled to recover compensation for its breach
  2. Who has become incapable of performing
  3. Who fails to cover and prove that he has performed
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims 2019 Question Paper | Click Here to Download PDF


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