Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Examination 2020 Solved Paper | Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

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Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Examination

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Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims 2020 Question Paper | Click Here to Download PDF

Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Paper

2020

1. Which of the following is an essential part of ‘Rule of Law’ and ‘Independence of Judiciary’?

  1. Judicial Review
  2. Impartial appointment of Judges
  3. Impeachment
  4. Original Jurisdiction of Supreme Court.

Answer: (a)

2. According to Clause 1 of Article 25 of the Indian Constitution, the freedom of religion is subject to the interest of:

  1. Public order
  2. Morality
  3. Health
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

3. Which among the following has the power to extend the functions of the State Public Service Commission?

  1. The Governor
  2. The State Legislature
  3. The Chief Minister
  4. The Advocate General.

Answer: (b)

4. Which of the following Amendment Act of the Constitution provides for the appointment of one person as Governor of two or more states?

  1. 2nd
  2. 3rd
  3. 5th
  4. 7th.

Answer: (d)

5. Power to constitute new states and determination of its boundaries vests in:

  1. Parliament
  2. President
  3. Governor
  4. Supreme Court of India.

Answer: (a)

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6. The words “Unity and Integrity of the Nation” were incorporated in the Preamble of The Constitution of India by which Amendment?

  1. 41
  2. 42
  3. 43
  4. 44.

Answer: (b)

7. Right to property is a:

  1. Fundamental Right
  2. Legal Right
  3. Social Right
  4. Directive Principle of the State.

Answer: (b)

8. Which of the following is not mentioned in Directive Principles of State Policy under The Constitution of India?

  1. Right to adequate means of livelihood
  2. Right to equal pay for equal work
  3. Promotion of international peace and security
  4. Free and compulsory education for children up to fourteen years of age.

Answer: (d)

9. Article 340 of the Indian Constitution deals with:

  1. Backward Classes Commission
  2. Election Commission
  3. Union Public Service Commission
  4. Finance Commission.

Answer: (a)

10. Joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament is chaired by:

  1. President of India
  2. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

11. Under the Constitution of India, the procedure for the removal of a Supreme Court Judge is given in:

  1. Article 126
  2. Article 127
  3. Article 124(4)
  4. Article 124(6).

Answer: (c)

12. Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with:

  1. Election Commission
  2. Finance Commission
  3. Proclamation of Emergency
  4. Union Public Service Commission.

Answer: (c)

13. In a suit against the Central Government the authority to be named as defendant is:

  1. The President
  2. The Prime Minister
  3. The Minister of the concerned department
  4. The Union of India.

Answer: (d)

14. Under Section 100 of Civil Procedure Code 1908, the second appeal lies to the High Court from every decree passed in appeal by any subordinate Court to the High Court if it involves:

  1. Question of Law
  2. Question of Fact
  3. Mixed Question of Law and Fact
  4. Substantial Question of Law.

Answer: (d)

15. The maximum amount which a Court may order for payment of compensatory cost in case of false or vexatious claims or defence under Civil Procedure Code 1908 is:

  1. 10,000/-
  2. 3,000/-
  3. 5,000/-
  4. 25,000/-

Answer: (b)

16. Under which provision of the Civil Procedure Code, Attachment before Judgment is provided?

  1. Order 26 Rule 04
  2. Order 39 Rule 02
  3. Order 38 Rule 05
  4. Order 40 Rule 01.

Answer: (c)

17. Order 5 of the Civil Procedure Code 1908 provides for:

  1. Admission
  2. Summoning and attendance of a witness
  3. Issue and service of summons
  4. Pleadings.

Answer: (c)

18. Pleading can be amended under which of the provisions of Civil Procedure Code 1908:

  1. Before the trial Court only
  2. Before the first Appellate Court only
  3. Before the second Appellate Court only
  4. Before either the trial Court, first Appellate Court or second Appellate Court.

Answer: Question Deleted

19. Attachment of a portion of salary can be continued as a provision of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 for a maximum period of:

  1. 6 months
  2. 12 months
  3. 24 months
  4. 36 months.

Answer: (c)

20. Preliminary decree can be passed in a suit:

  1. For partition
  2. For possession and mesne profit
  3. For partnership
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

21. The period of detention in civil imprisonment as a consequence of disobedience or breach of any injunction shall not exceed:

  1. One month
  2. Three months
  3. Six months
  4. One year.

Answer: Question Deleted

22. A suit in respect of Public Charities is provided under:

  1. Section 41 of CPC
  2. Section 92 of CPC
  3. Section 100 of CPC
  4. Section 91 of CPC.

Answer: (b)

23. Where a party dies after the conclusion of the hearing and before pronouncement of the judgment:

  1. The suit shall abate
  2. The suit shall not abate
  3. It will be deemed that the judgment has been pronounced before the death of the party
  4. None of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

24. If a party who has obtained an order to amend the pleadings under Civil Procedure Code, if not amended after, expiration of how many days shall not be permitted to amend the same without the leave of the Court?

  1. 14 days
  2. 15 days
  3. 30 days
  4. 45 days.

Answer: (a)

25. What is estoppel?

  1. Prohibition from proving a certain fact
  2. Prohibition from claiming a certain property
  3. To stop a person
  4. None of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

26. Thirty years old document if produced from a proper custody:

  1. Court shall presume its execution
  2. Court may presume its execution
  3. Presumption not involved
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

27. Which of the following is not included in Section 8 of the Indian Evidence Act?

  1. Motive
  2. Intention
  3. Preparation
  4. Conduct.

Answer: (b)

28. Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act, a public servant shall not be compelled to disclose communications made to him in official confidence?

  1. Section 123
  2. Section 124
  3. Section 125
  4. Section 126.

Answer: (b)

29. Which of the following section of the Indian Evidence Act does not deal with criminal matters?

  1. Section 25
  2. Section 23
  3. Section 53
  4. Section 30.

Answer: (b)

30. The Court can presume about the legality of digital signature on the electronic record under the Indian Evidence Act when it is:

  1. 30 years old
  2. 03 years old
  3. 05 years old
  4. 06 years old.

Answer: (c)

31. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

  1. Opinions of experts – Sec. 45 of the Evidence Act
  2. Secondary Evidence – 62 of the Evidence Act
  3. Leading Question – Sec. 141 of the Evidence Act
  4. of witness – Sec. 134 of the Evidence Act.

Answer: (b)

32. Under which section of the Indian Evidence Act the principle of “Res Gestae” is given:

  1. Section 60
  2. Section 25
  3. Section 24
  4. Section 06.

Answer: (d)

33. Indian Evidence Act does not expressly mention about:

  1. Oral Evidence
  2. Documentary Evidence
  3. Secondary Evidence
  4. Circumstantial Evidence.

Answer: (d)

34. What is a private document?

  1. Document executed in a family
  2. Secret document
  3. Document in custody of private person
  4. Document other than a public document.

Answer: (d)

35. When under section 161 of the code of criminal procedure is a statement recorded by the Police?

  1. During trial
  2. Before investigation
  3. During inquiry
  4. During investigation.

Answer: (d)

36. The procedure for trial before a Court of the session is provided under Section ______ of the code of Criminal Procedure.

  1. 262 to sec. 265 of CrPC
  2. 238 to sec. 250 of CrPC
  3. 251 to sec. 269 of CrPC
  4. 225 to sec. 237 of CrPC.

Answer: (d)

37. What is the maximum period an Executive Magistrate may authorize the detention of an accused in custody?

  1. Not exceeding 24 hours
  2. Not exceeding 3 days
  3. Not exceeding 7 days
  4. Not exceeding 15 days.

Answer: (c)

38. For the purpose of taking cognizance of an offence, what period of limitation is prescribed for an offence carrying punishment not exceeding one year by the court:

  1. 6 months
  2. 1 year
  3. 3 years
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

39. Under which section of CrPC. a magistrate may direct a local investigation?

  1. Section 133
  2. Section 139
  3. Section 145
  4. Section 146.

Answer: (b)

40. A statement recorded under which section of CrPC need not be signed by the maker?

  1. 164
  2. 313
  3. 161
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

41. A person can be summoned as a witness under section 160 of the CrPC by:

  1. Any police officer
  2. The police officer investigating the case
  3. The station house officer
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

42. The prosecution of Judges and public servants are provided in:

  1. Section 179 CrPC
  2. Section 192 CrPC
  3. Section 197 CrPC
  4. Section 297 CrPC.

Answer: (c)

43. An accused person may be a competent witness in his own defence under the code of Criminal Procedure 1973:

  1. Section 312
  2. Section 313
  3. Section 315
  4. Section 316.

Answer: (c)

44. Under section 190(2) of CrPC who may empower any Magistrate of the second class to take cognizance of offences?

  1. High Court
  2. Court of sessions
  3. Chief Judicial Magistrate
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

45. Under which one of the following sections of CrPC., Magistrate second class can conduct the summary trial?

  1. Section 260
  2. Section 261
  3. Section 262
  4. Section 263.

Answer: (b)

46. Treatment of the victim has been incorporated under CrPC by Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013, under:

  1. Section 357(A)
  2. Section 357(B)
  3. Section 357(C)
  4. Section 357.

Answer: (c)

47. Which are the two essential elements of an offence?

  1. Motive and Act
  2. Motive and Conviction
  3. Motive and Injury
  4. Preparation and Punishment.

Answer: Question Deleted

48. For the offence of abduction of a person, abducted must be:

  1. Minor
  2. Major
  3. Minor or major
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

49. Under which section of IPC attempt to commit Robbery is punishable?

  1. Section 392
  2. Section 393
  3. Section 395
  4. Section 396.

Answer: (b)

50. Which provision of the Indian Penal Code says, “Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under 7 years of age”?

  1. Section 79
  2. Section 80
  3. Section 82
  4. Section 85.

Answer: (c)

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51. Which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code relates to “Criminal Force”?

  1. Section 349
  2. Section 350
  3. Section 351
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

52. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for counterfeiting currency notes or Banknotes?

  1. Section 489A
  2. Section 489B
  3. Section 489C
  4. Section 489D.

Answer: (a)

53. If a police officer arrested and detained a person in the lockup despite producing the bail order from the Court, a police officer is guilty of:

  1. Abduction
  2. Wrongful restraint
  3. Wrongful Confinement
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

54. A demand or request for a sexual favor from a woman is a punishable offence under the Indian Penal Code Under:

  1. Section 354(A)
  2. Section 354(B)
  3. Section 354(C)
  4. Section 354(D).

Answer: (a)

55. Under which section of the IPC, Gang rape is punishable?

  1. Section 376(A)
  2. Section 376(B)
  3. Section 376(C)
  4. Section 376(D).

Answer: (d)

56. Under section 499 of the Indian Penal Code, how many exceptions are provided for the offence of defamation?

  1. 5
  2. 8
  3. 9
  4. 10.

Answer: (d)

57. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for voluntarily causing hurt on provocation?

  1. Section 324
  2. Section 332
  3. Section 334
  4. Section 323.

Answer: (c)

58. Which one of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code relates to punishment for mischief?

  1. Section 426
  2. Section 427
  3. Section 428
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

59. Under which section of the Transfer of Property Act “Transfer of Property” is defined?

  1. Section 5
  2. Section 6
  3. Section 7
  4. Section 8.

Answer: (a)

60. If the donee dies before the acceptance of the gift, the gift is:

  1. Illegal
  2. Valid
  3. Void
  4. Voidable.

Answer: (c)

61. Section 12 of the Transfer of Property Act is not applicable:

  1. Where the transfer is by way of sale
  2. Where the transfer is by way of gift
  3. Where the transfer is by way of lease
  4. Where the transfer is by way of exchange.

Answer: (c)

62. Which one of the following is not an essential condition for the application of Rule of “Lis Pendens” under section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act?

  1. Pendency of a suit or Proceeding
  2. Pendency in a competent court
  3. The suit must be collusive
  4. Alienation must affect the rights of the other party.

Answer: (c)

63. Which of the following is not an actionable claim?

  1. Right to a Provident Fund Account
  2. Promise to pay Rs. 5000/- if the promisee succeeds in LL.B. Examination
  3. Agreement to pay Rs. 2000/- if the promisee marries a particular woman
  4. Right to claim the benefit of a contract coupled with a liability.

Answer: Question Deleted

64. Any application for which no period of application is provided can be filed within:

  1. 3 years
  2. 1 year
  3. 6 months
  4. At any time.

Answer: (a)

65. The period of limitation for a suit for damages on account of malicious prosecution is:

  1. 3 years
  2. 1 year
  3. 2 years
  4. 5 years.

Answer: (b)

66. The law of limitation runs from the:

  1. Date the plaint is returned
  2. Date of the order which plaint is directed to be returned.
  3. Depends upon the circumstances
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

67. Section 17 of the Limitation Act takes within its ambit:

  1. Fraud
  2. Mistake
  3. Concealment
  4. All the above.

Answer: (d)

68. Which of the following sections of the Limitation Act deals with the effect of substituting or adding a new plaintiff or defendant?

  1. Section 18
  2. Section 19
  3. Section 20
  4. Section 21.

Answer: (d)

69. Which section of the Contract Act defines “Sub Agent”?

  1. Section 190
  2. Section 191
  3. Section 192
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

70. The nature of an agreement made under the provisions of Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act would be:

  1. Valid
  2. Invalid
  3. Void
  4. Voidable.

Answer: (c)

71. “Contract of Indemnity” is defined in which section of the Indian Contract Act?

  1. Section 124
  2. Section 125
  3. Section 126
  4. Section 127.

Answer: (a)

72. Under Section 24 of the Indian Contract Act which one of the following agreements is void?

  1. If caused by fraud
  2. If caused by coercion
  3. If consideration is unlawful
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

73. The liability of the surety is co-extensive with that of the principal debtor. It has been provided under Indian Contract Act:

  1. In Section 126
  2. In Section 127
  3. In Section 128
  4. In Section 129.

Answer: (c)

74. The Rent controller shall be not below the rank of:

  1. Tahsildar
  2. Assistant Superintendent
  3. Deputy Collector
  4. Civil Judge.

Answer: (c)

75. The right available to a tenant under the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act 2011 is provided in:

  1. Schedule 1 of the Act
  2. Schedule 2 of the Act
  3. Schedule 3 of the Act
  4. Schedule 4 of the Act.

Answer: Question Deleted

76. Which of the following sections of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011 defines “Habitual defaulter”?

  1. Section 2(1)
  2. Section 2(3)
  3. Section 2(4)
  4. Section 2(5).

Answer: (c)

77. Which of the following is compulsorily registrable under the provision of the Registration Act 1908?

  1. Will
  2. Deed of Adoption
  3. Debenture
  4. Gift deed of immovable property.

Answer: (d)

78. Section 17 of the Registration Act provides for:

  1. Documents that are not at all registrable
  2. Documents that are compulsorily registrable
  3. Documents the registration of which is optional
  4. Both (a) & (c).

Answer: (b)

79. Under Registration Act 1908, a Will can be ‘Presented for Registration’ within:

  1. Four months of its execution
  2. Six months of its execution
  3. Two months of its execution
  4. At any time.

Answer: (d)

80. Under Registration Act 1908; on Re-Registration, the Registration shall be effective:

  1. From the date of its original Registration
  2. From the date of Presentation for Re-Registration
  3. From the date of Re-Registration
  4. From the Date which the Registrar fixes.

Answer: (a)

81. According to section 7(10) of the Court Fee Act, the court fee in the suit for specific performance would be:

  1. According to the amount of consideration
  2. According to the desire of the plaintiff
  3. Upon discretion of the court
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

82. Section 19 of the Court Fee Act 1870 relates to:

  1. Refund of Court fee
  2. Remission of Court fee
  3. Exemption of Court fee
  4. Exemption of Court fee of a certain document.

Answer: (d)

83. Which section of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code deals with the appointment of ‘Kotwar’?

  1. Section 225
  2. Section 229
  3. Section 230
  4. Section 234.

Answer: (c)

84. According to Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code 1959, who is not a Revenue officer?

  1. Collector
  2. Settlement officer
  3. Superintendent of Land Records
  4. Revenue Inspector.

Answer: (d)

85. “Agriculture Year“, as defined in section 2(c) of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code 1959 commences:

  1. From 1st January
  2. From 1st April
  3. From 1st July
  4. From 1st September.

Answer: (c)

86. Which one of the following sections of the Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code 1959 provides for remission or suspension of Land Revenue on the failure of crops?

  1. Section 142
  2. Section 143
  3. Section 144
  4. Section 145.

Answer: (c)

87. As per Chhattisgarh Land Revenue Code 1959, who shall make the assessment of “Land Revenue” on all lands on which the assessment has not been made?

  1. Tahsildar
  2. Sub Divisional Officer
  3. Collector
  4. Commissioner.

Answer: (c)

88. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act 1915 who has the power to declare as to what shall be deemed to be country liquor and Foreign liquor?

  1. Central Government
  2. State Government
  3. Chief Revenue Authority
  4. Excise Officer.

Answer: (b)

89. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act 1915 Tari means:

  1. The fermented juice is drawn from any kind of palm tree
  2. Unfermented juice is drawn from any kind of palm tree
  3. Both a and b above
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

90. Provision for enhanced punishment in case of subsequent conviction for certain crimes punishable under Chhattisgarh Excise Act 1915 is provided under:

  1. Section 34(1)
  2. Section 34(2)
  3. Section 36
  4. Section 45.

Answer: Question Deleted

91. Section 66 of the Chhattisgarh Excise Act 1915 relates to:

  1. Limitation of suits
  2. Recovery of Government dues
  3. Power of State Government to exempt from the provisions of the Act
  4. Power to search without a warrant.

Answer: (c)

92. When is an offence under Section 138 of Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 compoundable?

  1. If the cheque amount is up to Rs. 5,00,000/-
  2. If the cheque amount is Rs. 10,00,000/-
  3. If the cheque amount is up to Rs. 20,00,000/-
  4. The cheque for any amount.

Answer: (d)

93. The term ‘a Cheque in the electronic form’ is defined in the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881 under:

  1. Section 6(a)
  2. Section 6(b)
  3. Explanation 1(a) of Section 6
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

94. Under Section 138 of the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, the maximum punishment prescribed is:

  1. Imprisonment up to one year and fine up to the amount of cheque
  2. Imprisonment up to Two years and fine up to the amount of cheque
  3. Imprisonment up to Two years and fine up to the twice the amount of cheque
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

95. As per the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881, a ‘Bill of Exchange’ is:

  1. A Conditional promise to pay
  2. An Unconditional order to pay
  3. An Unconditional promise to pay
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

96. A ‘Demand Draft’ is defined under section ________ of the Negotiable Instruments Act 1881.

  1. Section 17
  2. Section 18(B)
  3. Section 85(A)
  4. Section 7.

Answer: Question Deleted

97. A suit for possession of the immovable property under section 6 of the Specific Relief Act can be filed within:

  1. 6 months of dispossession
  2. 1 year of dispossession
  3. 3 years of dispossession
  4. 12 years of dispossession.

Answer: (a)

98. Under which Section of Specific Relief Act 1963, the provision for partial cancellation of an instrument is made:

  1. Section 31
  2. Section 27
  3. Section 32
  4. Section 29.

Answer: (c)

99. A declaration made under Chapter 6 of Specific Relief Act 1963, is binding on:

  1. The parties to the suit
  2. The person claiming through the Parties to the suit
  3. Both a and b above
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

100. Which of the following sections of the Specific Relief Act 1963, deals with cases where an injunction may be refused?

  1. Section 38
  2. Section 39
  3. Section 41
  4. Section 42.

Answer: (c)

Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims 2020 Question Paper | Click Here to Download PDF


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