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A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A and thereby induces B to buy and pay for it. Land afterwards becomes the property of A and A seeks to set aside the sale on the ground that at the time of sale he had no title. Will he be allowed to prove his want of title?
by Mayank Shekhar 11 Nov 2023 1:28 PM IST

What is the purpose and scope of the doctrine of part-performance?
by Mayank Shekhar 7 Nov 2023 6:22 PM IST
