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U.P. Judiciary Prelims Paper 2016
Paper 1
General Knowledge

1. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I
(a) Finance Commission
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(c) Union Public Service Commission

(d) National Commission for Scheduled Castes and Tribes
List-II
(1) Article 148
(2) Article 280
(3) Article 338
(4) Article 315

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(B) (2) (1) (4) (3)

(C) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(D) (4) (3) (2) (1)

2. The author of the book 'The Accidental Prime Minister' is

(A) Sanjay Baru

(B) Natwar Singh

(C) Sayeed Naqvi

D) Vinod Mehta

3. By which one of the following constitutional amendments, 1/3 (one-third) of the seats in Village Panchayats has been reserved for women in India?

(A) 75th

(B) 74

(C) 73rd

(D) 71st

4. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Coalition governments in India are products of compromises.
Reason (R): Compromises result from circumstances and compulsions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

5. 'Judicial Activism' in India is related to

(A) Judicial Independence

(B) Judicial Review

(C) Public Interest Litigation

(D) Committed Judiciary

6. Which one of the following provisions of the fundamental rights is directly related to the exploitation of children?

(A) Article 17

(B) Article 19

(C) Article 23

(D) Article 24

7. Kaka Saheb Kalelkar Commission was related to

(A) Scheduled Caste

(B) Backward Classes

(C) Scheduled Tribes

(D) Christians

8. The author of the book '2014: The Election that Changed India' is

(A) Rajdeep Sardesai

(B) Sanjay Baru

(C) Vinod Mehta

(D) Sayeed Naqvi

9. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I
(a) Citizenship
(b) Equality before law
(c) Name and territory of the Union
(d) Protection of Interests of minorities
List-II
(1) Article 14
(2) Article 05
(3) Article 29
(4) Article 01

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(B) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(C) (2) (1) (4) (3)

(D) (3) (4) (1) (2)

10. Which one of the following is not a federal feature of the Indian Constitution?

(A) Distribution of powers between the centre and the states

(B) Written Constitution

(C) Single Citizenship

(D) Independent Judiciary

11. Which one of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

(A) Social Justice

(B) Political Justice

(C) Economic Justice

(D) Religious Justice

12. The power to Issue a writ of 'Habeas Corpus' is vested in:

(A) High Courts

(B) Supreme Court

(C) Supreme Court and High Courts

(D) Subordinate Courts

13. Which one of the following terms regarding 'backward class of citizen' is not defined by the Constitution?

(A) Economically backwards

(B) Socially backwards

(C) Educationally backwards

(D) Socially and educationally backwards

14. The rank of India in 'Disaster Risk Index' of the world released in August 2016 is

(A) 66th

(B) 72nd

(C) 77th

(D) 81st

15. The author of the book "India Rising: Fresh Hope, New Fears" is

(A) Shiv K. Kumar

(B) Sanjeev Sanyal

(C) Vishal Anand

(D) Ravi Velloor

16. Consider the following statements about 'Mission Bhagirath' and select the correct answer using the codes given below and statements:

(1) The 'Mission Bhagirath' was launched on 7th August, 2016 at Komatibanda village in Medak district of Telangana.
(2) Its object is to provide safe drinking water.
(3) This project was launched by Telangana Chief Minister K. Chandrashekhar Rao.

Codes:

(A) Only (1) and (2)

(B) Only (2) and (3)

(C) Only (1) and (3)

(D) All of (1), (2) and (3)

17. Consider the following statements about the executive powers of the Indian President according to the Constitution and select the correct statements using the codes given below the statements:

Codes:

(A) (1), (2), (3) & (4)

(B) Only (1), (2) & (3)

(C) Only (2), (3) & (4)

(D) Only (1), (2) & (4)

18. Who among the following acts as the Presiding Officer of the house without being its member?

(A) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

(B) Vice-President of India

(C) Chairman of the Legislative Council

(D) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

19. According to WTO's Report (2016), the rank of India in top 30 exporter countries in the world stands at

(A) 16th

(B) 17th

(C) 18th

(D) 19th

20. Which one of the following countries of the world is the largest consumer of oil?

(A) USA

(B) China

(C) UK.

(D) Saudi Arabia

21. Which one of the following countries is not a member of the Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR)?

(A) India

(B) China

(C) U.S.A.

(D) Luxemburg

22. Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (2) (1) (4) (3)

(B) (3) (2) (1) (4)

(C) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(D) (2) (3) (4) (1)

23. The first Woman General Secretary of SAARC elected in January, 2011 is citizen of:

(A) Bangladesh

(B) Sri Lanka

(C) Maldives

(D) Bhutan

24. In which of the following cities of France terrorists killed 84 persons on its National Day (2016)?

(A) Marseille

(B) Nantes

(C) Toulon

(D) Nice

25. The first state in India to launch 'Crime Criminal Tracking Network System' is

(A) Kerala

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Odisha

(D) Karnataka

26. The newly introduced Gatiman Express train has been designed to run per hour at the speed of

(A) 140 km

(B) 150 km

(C) 160 km

(D) 170 km

27. Which one of the following countries is not a member of OPEC?

(A) Algeria

(B) Indonesia

(C) U.A.E.

(D) China

28. India in February 2011 signed Free Trade Agreement with

(A) Japan

(B) Australia

(C) Indonesia

(D) South Korea

29. 'Operation All Out' of the Indian Army launched in January 2015 is against

(A) Naxalites in Chhattisgarh

(B) Bodo Militants in Assam

(C) Militants in Jammu and Kashmir,

(D) Cross-border infiltration

30. India's first remote sensing satellite was launched from

(A) Cape Kennedy

(B) French Guinea

(C) Baikonour

(D) Sri Harikota

31. Consider the following statements about SAUNI (Saurashtra Narmada Avtaran for Irrigation) project and select the correct answer using the codes given below the statements:

Codes:

(A) Only (1) & (2)

(C) Only (1) & (3)

(B) Only (2) & (3)

(D) All (1), (2) & (3)

32. Who among the following has been elected as the Prime Minister of Nepal in August 2016?

(A) K.P. Sharma Oli

(B) Pushpa Kamal Dahal 'Prachanda'

(C) Jhak Bahadur Mahara

(D) Shive Nandan Kohli

33. Consider the following statements about 'Surrogacy (Regulation) Bill 2016' and select the correct answer using the codes given below the statements:

Codes:

(A) Only (1)

(B) Only (1) & (2)

(C) Only (2) & (3)

(D) All (1), (2) & (3)

34. Consider the following statements about Mother Teresa and select the correct answer using the codes given below the statements:

(1) Mother Teresa has been declared Saint by the Pope Francis of Roman Catholic Church on 4th September, 2016 at Vatican City.
(2) She is the first Indian lady to be declared Saint by Roman Catholic Church.
(3) Mother Teresa was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize in 1979.

Codes:

(A) Only (1)

(B) Only (1) & (3)

(C) Only (2) & (3)

(D) All (1), (2) & (3)

35. Which one of the following Indian states has recently become first to provide free treatment to confirmed cases of Hepatitis-C?

(A) Bihar

(B) Gujarat

(C) Punjab

(D) Rajasthan

36. A commemorative coin of Rs. 100 and a circulative coin of Rs. 10 have been released by the Union Government in May 2016 In memory of

(A) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(B) Maharana Pratap

(C) Swami Chinmayananda

(D) 150th year of Allahabad High Court

37. China has signed an agreement recently to build a Nuclear Reactors in which of the following African countries?

(A) Nigeria

(B) Kenya

(C) Tanzania

(D) Sudan

38. Who among the following won the Gold Medal In the T42 high jump at Rio Paralympics In September 2016?

(A) Mariyappan Thangavelu

(B) Varun Singh Bhati

(C) Sam Grave

(D) Derek Drouin

39. In which one of the following countries, the world's longest and deepest rail tunnel has been officially opened in June 2016?

(A) Switzerland

(B) Germany

(C) Japan

(D) China

40. Which one of the following states has launched 'Right to Public Grievance Redressal Act' In June 2016 to dispose of people's complaints or redressal of grievances by Government officials within a specific time?

(A) West Bengal

(B) Bihar

(C) Gujarat

(D) Tamil Nadu

41. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) Insulin-Hormone

(B) Rayon-Modified starch

(C) Rubber-Natural polymer

(D) Nitrocellulose-Explosive

42. The record number of satellites launched by ISRO In a single mission in June, 2016 from the Sriharikota space centre is

(A) 10

(B) 33

(c) 29

(D) 20

43. Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(B) (4) (1) (2) (3)

(C) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(D) (2) (3) (1) (4)

44. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) National Institute of Wind Energy - Chennai

(B) Central Power Research Institute -Bengaluru

(C) Central Institute of Medicinal and Aromatic Plants -Lucknow

(D) Central Salt and Marine Chemical Research Institute -Porbandar

45. Match List-1 with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (4) (2) (1)

(B) (4) (3) (1) (2)

(C) (2) (1) (3) (4)

(D) (1) (2) (4) (3)

46. The name of solar energy powered aircraft which has recently completed its round the world trip is

(A) Solar impulse

(B) Solar airbus

(C) Solar impulse-2

(D) Solar wings

47. The protein commonly present in hair and wool is

(A) Keratin

(B) Gelatine

(C) Collagen

(D) Gluten

48. Solar energy is produced by

(A) Spontaneous combustion

(B) Nuclear fusion

(C) Nuclear fission

(D) Hydrothermal process

49. Which one of the following India-built fighter aircraft was inducted in the Indian Air force in July 2016?

(A) Pawan

(B) Kshitij

(C) Agni

(D) Tejas

50. Which one of the following North-Eastern states was linked through broad gauge rail with the rest of India in July 2016?

(A) Trilochan

(B) Nayak

(C) Trinetra

(D) Night Vision

51. Which one of the following North-Eastern states was linked through broad gauge rail with the rest of India in July 2016?

(A) Tripura

(B) Meghalaya

(C) Nagaland

(D) Arunachal Pradesh

52. Bones glow in the dark due to

(A) the presence of red phosphorus in bones.

(B) slow combustion of white phosphorus in contact with air.

(C) conversion of white phosphorus into red phosphorus.

(D) conversion of red phosphorus into white phosphorus.

53. The number of satellites launched simultaneously into space with the help of PSLV-C9 by Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on 28 April, 2008 is

(A) 8

(B) 9

(C) 10

(D) 11

54. The name of the first space observatory satellite launched by India in September, 2015 from Sriharikota is

(A) OCEANSAT

(B) EDUSAT

(C) RISAT

(D) ASTROSAT

55. Which one of the following indigenously built Torpedoes has been inducted recently in the Indian Navy?

(A) Jal-astra

(B) Devastra

(C) Varunastra

(D) Agni-astra

56. Kudankulam nuclear power plant completed with the technical co-operation of Russia, was inaugurated in August, 2016. This plant is situated in

(A) Maharashtra

(B) Tamil Nadu

(C) Kerala

(D) Andhra Pradesh

57. Which one of the following gases is mainly present in the atmosphere of planet Mars?

(A) Argon

(B) Oxygen

(C) Carbon dioxide

(D) Nitrogen

58. Which one of the following substances is not required for the formation of bones in the body?

(A) Calcium

(B) Phosphorus

(C) Vitamin D

(D) Sodium

59. Match List-I with List-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(B) (3) (1) (4) (2)

(C) (2) (3) (1) (4)

(D) (3) (2) (4) (1)

60. Which one of the following blood groups is impossible in offspring if blood groups of parents are A and AB?

(A) 'O' blood group

(B) 'AB' blood group

(C) 'A'blood group

(D) 'B' blood group

61. Which one of the following is Gun cotton?

(A) Calcium Phosphate

(B) Cellulose nitrate

(C) Potassium hydroxide

(D) Cellulose sulphate

62. Which one of the following pairs is wrongly matched?

(A) Vitamin A - Rheumatism

(B) Vitamin B - Beri beri

(C) Vitamin C - Bleeding of gums

(D) Vitamin D - Rickets

63. Three Indian companies have been included by American President Barak Obama in 'Computer Science for all' plan on February 1, 2016. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (I), (II) and (IV)

(B) (I), (III) and (IV)

(C) (I), (II) and (III)

(D) (II), (III) and (IV)

64. Which one of the following does not add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the earth?

(A) Respiration

(B) Decay of organic matters

(C) Volcanic action

(D) Photosynthesis

65. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (4) (2) (1)

(B) (1) (2) (4) (3)

(C) (2) (3) (1) (4)

(D) (4) (1) (3) (2)

66. Which one of the following is the purest form of carbon?

(A) Diamond.

(B) Graphite

(C) Carbon black

(D) Wood charcoal

67. Central Rice Research Institute is located at

(A) Dehradun

(B) Cuttack

(C) Shimla

(D) Darjeeling

68. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (3) (1) (2) (4)

(B) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(C) (1) (3) (4) (2)

(D) (2) (4) (3) (1)

69. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) Silvar bromide - Photography

(B) Zinc phosphide - Rat Poison

(C) Ammonia - Greenhouse gas

(D) Silver iodide - Artificial rain

70. Indian Institute of Remote Sensing (IIRS) is located at

(A) Hyderabad

(B) Bengaluru

(C) Dehradun

(D) Ahmedabad

71. Consider the following labour legislations in India:

Codes:

(A) (1), (4), (3), (2)

(B) (1), (2), (3), (4)

(C) (1), (2), (4), (3)

(D) (1), (3), (2), (4)

72. 'Housla Poshan Yojana' of Government of Uttar Pradesh is related to:

(A) provision of nutritious food to pregnant woman and malnourished children.

(B) provision of nutritious food to malnourished poor in the villages

(C) provision of free medical aid to pregnant women

(D) mass immunization of children

73. In which one of the following sectors, expenditure method is used for calculating national Income In India?

(A) Agricultural Sector

(B) Mining Sector

(C) Transportation Sector

(D) Construction Sector

74. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?

(A) Regional Rural Bank - Commercial Bank

(B) Lead Bank - Reserve Bank of India

(C) NABARD -The World Bank

(D) Apex Cooperative- The Asian Bank Development Bank

75. The 'Make of India' Initiative was launched by the Prime Minister on

(A) 26th January, 2015

(B) 15th August, 2014

(C) 25th September, 2014

(D) 11th October, 2014

76. In which one of the following Indian cities, the world's biggest Roof Top Solar Power Plant has been established on 17 May, 2016?

(A) Amritsar

(B) Chandigarh

(C) Ahmedabad

(D) Bhopal

77. Which of the following two minerals are used for transmitting nerve impulses inside the human body?

(A) Sulphur and Sodium

(B) Potassium and Iodine

(C) Iron and Phosphorous

(D) Sodium and Potassium

78. Which one of the following economic subjects does not come in the ambit of Finance Commission of India?

(A) Division and distribution of income tax and other taxes

(B) Grants-in-aid to the states by the union

(C) Any other matter concerning financial relation between Union and States

(D) Devolution of the plan revenue resources

79. Consider the following:

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) Only (1), (2) and (3)

(B) Only (2), (3) and (4)

(C) Only (1), (3) and (4)

(D) Only (1), (2) and (4)

80. The National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) is a restructured version of

(A) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY)

(B) Aam Aadmi Bima Yojana

(C) Jawahar Rozgar Yojana

(D) Swarnajayanti Shahari Rozgar Yojana

81. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) S. Chakravarti Monetary Reform Committee

(B) Abid Hussain Committee - Infrastructure

(C) R. Chelliah - Tax Reform Committee

(D) S. Tendulkar Committee - Poverty estimate

82. The web portal launched by the Reserve Bank of India to Curb illegal money pooling by firms is

(A) Tez

(B) Savdhan

(C) Chetavani

(D) Sachet

83. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Retail Inflation is reported to have eased to a level of 5.05% in August, 2016.
Reason (R): This has been possible due to slower rate of increase in vegetables and food. prices.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

84. Which one of the following is not a natural disaster?

(A) Famines

(B) Fires

(C) Earthquakes

(D) Snowstorms

85. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Non-performing assets of Public Sector Banks are much higher than private sector banks.

Reason (R): Private sector Banks in India are wary of lending at longer maturities. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

86. Which one of the following banks has launched 'I work @ home' programme for its women employees?

(A) Axis Bank

(B) Yes Bank

(C) Exim Bank

(D) ICICI Bank

87. The tagline of 'Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana' (PMUY) launched on May 1, 2016 is:

(A) Swachh Bharat, Swachh Kal

(B) Clean India, Green India

(C) Swachh Indhan, Behtar Jeevan

(D) Eco-friendly Indhan, Behtar Jeevan

88. The limits of investment in plants and machinery in medium manufacturing enterprises is

(A) more than 5 crore rupees but not exceeding 10 crore rupees

(B) more than 10 crore rupees but not exceeding 15 crore rupees (C) more than 1 crore rupees but not exceeding 5 crore rupees

(D) more than 2 crore rupees but not exceeding 5 crore rupees

89. Who among the following was/is associated with the concept of long-term fiscal policy in India?

(A) Manmohan Singh

(B) Indira Gandhi

(C) Vishwanath Pratap Singh

(D) Yashwant Sinha

90. Which one of the following committees has been constituted to tackle the shortage of pulses in India in 2016?

(A) Arvind Subramanian Committee

(B) N.K. Singh Committee

(C) Divakar Reddy Committee

(D) Sanjay Mitra Committee

91. The major function of NABARD is to

(A) give loans to the public

(B) accept deposits from the public

(C) give loans to commercial banks and regional rural banks for the development of the rural sector

(D) deal with government securities

92. If interest payments are deducted from fiscal deficit, the remainder is known as

(A) Primary deficit

(B) Budgetary deficit

(C) Revenue deficit

(D) Monetized deficit

93. The Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY) Intends to improve the quality of life of all sections of the population through:

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) Only (1) and (II)

(B) Only (), (II) and (III)

(C) Only (I), (II) and (IV)

(D) (I), (II), (III) and (IV) all

94. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY) aims at

(A) Financial inclusion of poor and rural population

(B) Covering all households of the country with banking facilities

(C) Accidental insurance cover upto Rs. 1 lac without any minimum balance requirement

(D) All of the above

95. The finance commission in India is appointed after every

(A) Five years

(B) Six years

(C) Four years

(D) Three years

96. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

(A) Land revenue and VAT are levied by state government in India

(B) Duty on imports and exports is levied by both central and state governments

(C) Corporation and wealth tax are levied by the Central Government

(D) Personal income tax is levied only by the Central Government

97. The minimum deposit amount to open Sukanya Samriddhi Account in a bank is

(A) Rs. 5000

(B) Rs. 500

(C) Rs. 100

(D) Rs. 1,000

98. Who among the following ancient Indian thinkers has treated the system of law in the most systematic way?

(A) Kautilya

(B) Apastamba

(C) Gautama

(D) Manu

99. Who among the following was the philosopher king of Panchala as mentioned in the Upanishads?

(A) Ajatshatru

(B) Brahmadatta

(C) Parikshita

100. Assertion (A): Buddhism eventually succumbs to the rituals and religious ceremonies, it originally denounced.
Reason (R): It became the victim to the evils of Brahmanism. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

101. The mention of which of the following rivers in the Rigveda shows intimate association of Aryans with Afghanistan?

(1) Kubha

(2) Krumu

(3) Gomati (Gomal)

(4) Sutudri

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) Only (1), (2) and (4)

(B) Only (1) and (4)

(C) Only (1), (2) and (3)

(D) Only (2), (3) and (4)

102. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-1 (Author)
(a) Padmagupta
(b) Rajashekhara
(c) Sriharsha
(d) Vakpati
List-II (Patron King)

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (1) (3) (2) (4)

(B) (3) (2) (1) (4)

(C) (3) (2) (4) (1)

(D) (4) (1) (3) (2)

103. Ashtanga-Hridaya Samhita is a work related to which one of the following?

(A) Astronomy

(B) Ethics

(C) Yoga

(D) Medical Science

104. The Brihadeswara temple at Tanjavur was built by

(A) Pulakesin II

(B) Rajaraja I

(C) Vishnuvardhan

(D) Vira Pandya

105. Consider the following statements: Assertion (A): Fahien has mentioned that no respectable person ate meat in India.
Reason (R): The age of Ashoka was a milestone in the development of vegetarianism.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

106. Rangamahal culture is related to the age of:

(A) Guptas

(B) Kushans.

(C) Mauryas

(D) Sakas

107. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(Philosophical System of Vedanta) (Proponder)

(A) Absolute non-dualism -Shankara

(B) Pure non- dualism -Ramanuj

(C) Non-dualism in dualism -Nimbarka

(D) Dualism -Madhva

108. Match List-l with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-I

(a) Bhavabhuti

(b) Shudraka
(c) Dandi
(d) Bharavi
List-II
(1) Dashkumarcharita
(2) Uttar Ramcharita
(3) Kiratarjuniyam
(4) Mrichchhakatikam

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(B) (2) (3) (1) (4)

(C) (2) (4) (1) (3)

(D) (4) (3) (2) (1)

109. In which one of the following dynasty, the marriage with the daughter of father's sister was not prohibited?

(A) Haihaya

(B) Rashtrakuta

(C) Ikshvaku

(D) Vishnukundin

110. In which of the following Ajanta Caves, the painting of Padmapani Avalokitesvara was found?

(A) Cave No. 24

(B) Cave No. 1

(C) Cave No.5

(D) Cave No. 16

111. Which one of the following is not included in the 'Ananta-Chatushtaya' of Jainism?

(A) Ananta Shanti

(B) Ananta Jyan

(C) Ananta Darshan

(D) Ananata Virya

112. Arrange the following battles in chronological order on the basis of codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (1), (2), (3), (4)

(B) (2), (4), (1), (3)

(C) (4), (2), (3), (1)

(D) (2),(1), (4), (3)

113. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Diwan-i-Arz - Military Department

(B) Diwan-i-Barid - Intelligence Department

(C) Diwan-i-Insha - Charity Department

(D) Diwan-i-Riyasat - Market Control Department

114. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (4) (2) (3) (1)

(B) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(C) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(D) (2) (1) (4) (3)

115. Who among the following had granted permission for the construction of a Vihara at Bodhgaya for Sinhalese monks?

(A) Dharmapala

(B) Harshavardhana

(C) Kanishka

(D) Samudragupta

116. Vaishnava Saint Ramanuj was born in (present):

(A) Karnataka

(B) Maharashtra

(C) Andhra Pradesh

(D) Tamil Nadu

117. The 'Tanka' coin during Delhi Sultanate period was cast in which of the following metals?

(A) Gold

(B) Copper

(C) Bronze

(D) Silver

118. Mahatma Jyotirao Phule established 'Satya Shodhak Samaj' in the

(A) 1873

(B) 1875

(C) 1877

(D) 1899

119. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(B) (3) (2) (4) (1)

(C) (3) (1) (2) (4)

(D) (1) (3) (4) (2)

120. V.D. Savarkar formed the secret organization 'Abhinav Bharat' in

(A) 1892

(B) 1904

(C) 1895

(D) 1900

121. Who among the following granted the Diwani Rights of Bengal to the East India Company in 1765?

(A) Nawab of Bengal, Mir Kasim

(B) Nawab of Bengal, Nazmuddaulah

(C) Nawab of Awadh, Shujauddaulah

(D) Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II

122. Who among the following Sultans had called Ashoka's larger stone pillar the 'Golden pillar'?

(A) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

(B) Firoz Shah Tughlaq

(C) Alauddin Khalji

(D) Sikandar Lodi

123. "I have sold my kingdom to my beloved for a cup of wine and a dish of soup". Who among the following Mughal rulers had said it?

(A) Jahangir

(B) Babar

(C) Humanyun

(D) Akbar

124. Most of the ferrous and non-ferrous minerals in India are associated with which one of the following geological rock systems?

(A) Vindhyan system

(B) Dharwar system

(C) Gondwana system

(D) Tertiary system

125. Which one of the following makes India's maritime boundary with Maldives?

(A) Great Channel

(B) Coco Channel

(C) Eight-degree Channel

(D) None of the above

126. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): Mumbai is called 'the financial capital' of India.
Reason (R): As per 2011 Census it is the most populous metropolis of India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

127. Which one of the following cities of India is nearest to the tropic of cancer?

(A) Agartala

(B) Imphal

(C) Raipur

(D) Aizawl

128. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(Coal Mines) (States)

(A) Jayanti Jharkhand

(B) Bisrampur Madhya Pradesh

(C) Talchir Odisha

(D) Ranigunj West Bengal

129. Consider the following events:

(A) (I), (II), (III)

(B) (1), (III), (II)

(C) (III), (I), (II)

(D) (II),(1), (III)

130. Who among the following presided over the all parties conference convened at Bombay on May 19, 1928?

(A) Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru

(B) Moti Lal Nehru

(C) Dr. M.A. Ansari

(D) Sir Ali Iman

131. Bombay Province was divided into Gujarat and Maharashtra In

(A) 1963

(B) 1960

(C) 1957

(D) 1953

132. Rana Pratap Sagar (Rajasthan) is associated with

(A) Nuclear power

(B) Hydroelectricity

(C) Salt production

(D) Solar energy

133. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(A) Mango Showers - Kerala

(B) Kalbaisakhi - Rajasthan

(C) Loo - Haryana

(D) Blossom Showers- Karnataka

134. Which one of the following districts of Himachal Pradesh is the native place of 'Bharmor' tribes?

(A) Chamba

(B) Kangda

(C) Sirmaur

(D) Mandi

135. Which one of the following is known as the '6 store of minerals' of India?

(A) Shillong plateau

(B) Mysore plateau

(C) Deccan plateau

(D) Chhotanagpur plateau

136. Indian Diamond Institute (IDI) is located at

(A) New Delhi

(B) Surat

(C) Mumbai

(D) Jaipur

137. Match List-1 (Pass) and List-II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(B) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(C) (3) (4) (1) (2)

(D) (2) (1) (4) (3)

138. Which one of the following states has the largest coal reserves in India?

(A) Odisha

(B) Chhattisgarh

(C) Jharkhand

(D) West Bengal

139. Which one of the following rivers is infamous for changes in its course?

(A) Ganga

(B) Kosi

(C) Damodar

(D) Gomti

140. Which of the following states of India is the leading one in floriculture?

(A) Kerala

(B) Andhra Pradesh.

(C) Karnataka

(D) Tamil Nadu

141. Consider the formation of the following States and arrange them in chronological order:

(I) Uttarakhand

(II) Arunachal Pradesh

(III) Jharkhand
(IV) Goa

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) (1). (II). (III) and (IV)

(B) (IV). (III), (II) and (I)

(C) (II). (I). (IV) and (II)

(D) (II), (IV), (I) and (III)

142. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:

List-1 (Produce)
(a) Pulses
(b) Wheat
(c) Barley
(d) Jowar
List-II (Major Producer)
(1) Uttar Pradesh
(2) Madhya Pradesh
(3) Maharashtra
(4) Rajasthan

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (2) (1) (4) (3)

(B) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(C) (4) (3) (2) (1)

(D) (3) (4) (1) (2)

143. Which one of the following places is called 'Greenwich of India'?

(A) Rohtak

(B) Avanti

(C) Ujjain

(D) Kurukshetra

144. The biggest petro-chemical production unit in India is located at

(A) Jamnagar

(B) Ankleshwar

(C) Nunmati

(D) Trombay

145. Which one of the following Iron and Steel producing centres of India is located far away from the coal-field?

(A) Bokaro

(B) Durgapur

(C) Bhadravati

(D) Kulti-Asansol

146. Consider the statements given below:
(1) India is a sovereign country
(2) India is a welfare state
(3) India is a republic country
(4) India has a democratic polity

Select the correct answer using the codes.given below:

Codes:

(A) Only (1) and (2)

(B) Only (1), (2) and (3)

(C) Only (2), (3) and (4)

(D) All of the above

147. The author of the book 'The Idea of Justice' is

(A) Plato

(B) Amartya Sen

(C) John Rawls

(D) Aristotle

148. Who among the following had declared in 1939 that the only way out to justiciably solve the communal and other problems in India is the Constituent Assembly?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Moti Lal Nehru

(C) Jawaharlal Nehru

(D) Sardar Patel

149. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (1) (2) (3) (4)

(B) (4) (1) (2) (3)

(C) (3) (4) (2) (1)

(D) (4) (3) (1) (2)

150. Consider the following statements:
Assertion (A): The council of ministers in a state usually is a multi-tier structure.
Reason (R): The cabinet Includes all the members of the council.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Paper 2
Law

1. Under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, an assault or criminal force used in attempting to commit theft of property is punishable?

(A) Section 379

(B) Section 381

(C) Section 384

(D) Section 356

2. Which one of the following Section of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is related to juveniles jurisdiction?

(A) Section 25

(B) Section 26

(C) Section 27

(D) Section 28

3. Under which one of the following provisions of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, gives statutory definitions of F.I.R.?

(A) Section 154

(B) Section155

(C) Section 156

(D) Not defined

4. Which one of the following countries has passed the law to impeach Supreme Court Judges on 26 April, 2016?

(A) Brazil

(B) China

(C) Australia

(D) Bangladesh

5. Provisions relating to health and safety of arrested persons have been provided under which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973?

(A) Section 50A

(B) Section 53A

(C) Section 55A

(D) Section 60A

6. Which one of the following Sections of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with Inherent powers of the High Court?

(A) Section 428

(B) Section 457

(C) Section 469

(D) Section 484

7. Disclosure of the identity of a victim of rape is punishable under following Section of Indian Penal Code, 1860

(A) Section 337

(B) Section 228

(C) Section 229

(D) Section 228A

8. Removal of ornaments from the body of one after causing his death constitutes an offence under Section

(A) 392 of the Indian Penal Code

(B) 379 of the Indian Penal Code

(C) 420 of the Indian Penal Code

(D) 404 of the Indian Penal Code

9. After enactment of the Muslim Woman (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, the jurisdiction under Section 125 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 to grant maintenance to Muslim women:

(A) retained

(B) ceased

(C) limited

(D) None of the above

10. Which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 deals with the language and contents of judgment?

(A) Section 353

(B) Section 354

(C) Section 355

(D) Section 356

11. Under which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 Magistrate Second Class can conduct summary trial?

(A) Section 260

(B) Section 261

(C) Section 262

(D) Section 263

12. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 Section 190(2) who may empower Magistrate of the Second Class to take cognizance of offences?

(A) High Court

(B) Court of Session

(C) Chief Judicial Magistrate

(D) None of the above

13. Warrant case as defined under Section 2(x) of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 is a case relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or Imprisonment for a term exceeding

(A) 3 years

(B) 2 years

(C) 1 year

(D) 5 years but not less than two years

14. Which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 prohibits the male police officer from touching the person of a woman while making her arrest?

(A) Proviso to Section 41(1)

(B) Proviso to Section 42(2)

(C) Proviso to Section 46(1)

(D) None of the above

15. Under which one of the following Sections of Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 trial of cases can be taken before High Court?

(A) Section 407

(B) Section 474

(C) Section 483

(D) No trial before High Court

16. Under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, the date of commencement of the period of limitation has been provided under

(A) Section 467

(B) Section 468

(C) Section 469

(D) Section 470

17. A fact, which is neither proved nor disproved is said to be

(A) proved

(B) not proved

(C) disproved

(D) None of the above

18. 'A' is tried for the murder of 'B' by intentionally shooting him dead. The fact that A was in the habit of shooting at people with Intent to murder them is

(A) relevant fact

(B) irrelevant fact

(C) neither relevant nor irrelevant

(D) fact in issue

19. Which one of the following statement is correct?

(A) In civil cases character to prove conduct imputed, is irrelevant

(B) In criminal proceedings, previous good character is relevant.

(C) In criminal proceedings, a previous bad character is not relevant except in reply.

(D) In criminal proceedings, previous conviction is not relevant as an evidence of bad character

20. For which one of the following offences under Criminal Procedure Code, 1973 application for anticipatory bail under Section 438 can be moved?

(A) Bailable offence

(B) Non-bailable offence

(C) Cognizable offence

(D) Non-cognizable offence

21. When a complaint is presented to a Magistrate and the Magistrate proceeds to examine the complainant and the witnesses, the Magistrate

(A) is conducting investigation

(B) is conducting inquiry

(C) is conducting trial

(D) is conducting both (b) and (c)

22. Which one of the following is not a competent witness to testify under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) Persons capable of understanding the questions put to them by the court

(B) Unchaste woman

(C) Witness unable to speak

(D) Idiot

23. Which one of the following Sections under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 has been inserted by Section 92 and Schedule II of the Information Technology Act, 2000?

(A) Section 65

(B) Section 67

(C) Section 67A

(D) Section 65B

24. Which one of the following is not an exception to the doctrine of estoppel under Indian Evidence Act, 1872?

(A) When the truth is known to both the parties

(B) On the question of law

(C) On the question of fact

(D) Against the law

25. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 power of judge to put questions or order of production of document or thing has been provided under

(A) Section 163

(B) Section 165

(C) Section 161

(D) Section 166

26. During re-examination of witness under Indian Evidence Act, 1872

(A) a new matter can be raised as a matter of right generally

(B) no new matter can be raised

(C) a new matter can be raised only with the permission of the court

(D) None of the above

27. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 leading questions may generally be asked

(A) in cross-examination

(B) in examination in chief

(C) in re-examination

(D) None of the above

28. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 the doctrine of res gestae applies to

(A) only civil proceedings

(B) only criminal proceedings

(C) only to administrative tribunals

(D) both (a) and (b)

29. Which one of the following Sections of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with admissibility of 'electronic record"?

(A) Section 65

(B) Section 66

(C) Section 65A

(D) Section 65B

30. Which one of the following under Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is not a kind of estoppel?

(A) Estoppel by will

(B) Estoppel by deed

(C) Estoppel by conduct

(D) Estoppel by record

31. Mother Teresa was declared a saint by Pop Francis in Vatican City on

(A) 19 September, 2016

(B) 14 September, 2016

(C) 4 August, 2016

(D) 4 September, 2016

32. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 provides for

(A) presumption of life

(B) presumption of marriage

(C) presumption of death

(D) presumption of legitimacy

33. Order 7 Rule 1 of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is related to

(A) Pleadings's meaning

(B) Written statement

(C) Particulars to be contained to plaint

(D) None of the above

34. Where the local limits of jurisdiction of courts are uncertain, the place of institution of suit shall be decided

(A) Section 17 of Civil Procedure Cod

(B) Section 20 of Civil Procedure Code

(C) Section 19 of Civil Procedure Code

(D) Section 18 of Civil Procedure Code

35. Point out the correct answer:
Law of Evidence is

(A) Lex Tellienis

(B) Lex Fori

(C) Lex Loci

(D) Lex Situs

36. Under Indian Evidence Act, 1872, fact must be

(A) legally relevant

(B) logically relevant

(C) legally or logically relevant

(D) None of the above

37. Court can direct the parties to opt for any one mode of alternative dispute resolution in Civil Procedure Code, 1908

(A) Under Order X, Rule 1-A

(B) Under Order X, Rule 1-B

(C) Under Order X, Rule 1-C

(D) Under Order XI, Rule 1

38. Under Order XXXVIII, Rule 5 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, attachment before judgment can be in respect of

(A) immovable property

(B) movable property

(C) both (a) and (b)

(D) attachment cannot be made before judgement

39. Under Civil Procedure Code, 1908, which one of the properties cannot be attached in execution of a decree?

(A) Books of Account

(B) Land

(C) Bank Notes

(D) Cheques

40. Under Section 26 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908, in every plaint, facts should be proved by

(A) affidavit

(B) oral evidence

(C) document

(D) examination of plaintiff

41. Which one of the following Order and Rule of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 deals about the decree for recovery of immovable property?

(A) Order XX Rule 12

(B) Order XX Rule 11

(C) Order XX Rule 10

(D) Order XX Rule 9

42. Principle of res-judicata is

(A) mandatory

(B) directory

(C) discretionary

(D) None of the above

43. Every suit shall be instituted in the court of the lowest grade competent to try it. This provision relates to

(A) Territorial jurisdiction

(B) Pecuniary jurisdiction

(C) Both (A) & (B)

(D) Jurisdiction as to subject-matter

44. What duration formally under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 has been assigned to submit the written statement after the date of service of summons?

(A) 30 days

(B) 45 days

(C) 60 days

(D) None of the above

45. Under which one of the following provisions of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 consequences of disobedience or breach of Injunction has been described?

(A) Order XXXII

(B) Order XXXIII

(C) Order XXXIX Rule 2A

(D) None of the above

46. 'Decree' under Civil Procedure Code, 1908 has been defined in its

(A) Section 2(1)

(B) Section 2(2)

(C) Section 2(a)

(D) Section 2(b)

47. Under Order V Rule 9(3) of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 the expenses for the service of summons to the defendant have to be born by

(A) the plaintiff

(B) the defendant

(C) the court

(D) partly by plaintiff and partly by defendant

48. Under which one of the following provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 an ex-parte decree can be set aside?

(A) Order 9 Rule 7

(B) Order 9 Rule 11

(C) Order 9 Rule 13

(D) Order 9 Rule 12

49. A files a suit for declaration that he is entitled to certain land as the heir of C. The suit is dismissed. Subsequently suit is claimed on the basis of adverse possession; subsequent suit is barred on the ground of

(A) constructive res-judicata

(B) actual res-judicata

(C) either (A) or (B)

(D) None of the above

50. Under which one of the following Sections of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 "Legal Representative" has been explained?

(A) Section 2(11)

(B) Section 2(13)

(C) Section 2(10)

(D) Section 2(12)

51. The courts of small causes under Section 3 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is subordinate to which of the following?

(A) High Court only

(B) District Court only

(C) Neither (A) nor (B)

(D) Both (A) and (B)

52. Which country has been declared Malaria- free by World Health Organisation on 5 September, 2016?

(A) Pakistan

(B) Nepal

(C) Sri Lanka

(D) Afghanistan

53. Under Section 49 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the transferee is entitled to the benefits of insurance covered against the loss or damage by

(A) Fire

(B) Encroachment

(C) Natural calamity

(D) None of the above

54. Section 36 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is related to the

(A) doctrine of election

(B) doctrine of Cy-pres

(C) doctrine of accretion

(D) doctrine of apportionment

55. Section 11 of the Transfer of Property Act will be applicable only when the interest transferred in the property is

(A) limited

(B) absolute

(C) both (A) and (B)

(D) None of the above

56. Section 10 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908 does not apply when the previous suit is pending

(A) in the same court

(B) in a foreign court

(C) in the court outside India established or continued by the Central Government

(D) in any other court in India

57. Which one of the following Orders of Civil Procedure Code, 1908 is related to issuing of Commission?

(A) Order 24

(B) Order 26

(C) Order 25

(D) Order 27

58. Section 37 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which deals with the right to proceeds for revenue compensation, is based on

(A) Doctrine of contribution

(B) Doctrine of election

(C) Doctrine of marshalling

(D) Doctrine of substituted security

59. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882, sale is a transfer of

(A) an interest in a specific immovable property

(B) a right to enjoy immovable property

(C) ownership

(D) None of the above

60. Which one of the following is a transfer under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

(A) Charge

(B) Partition.

(C) Transfer of debt

(D) Surrender

61. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 which one of the following properties may be transferred?

(A) An easementary right

(B) Mere right to sue

(C) Right to future maintenance

(D) Actionable claim from the dominant heritage

62. An agreement to develop Chahbahar in Iran as an International transport corridor was finalized amongst

(A) India, Iran and Pakistan

(B) India, Afghanistan and Iran

(C) India, Afghanistan and Iraq

(D) India, Pakistan and Afghanistan

63. The case of Jayadayal Poddar v. Bibl Hazara is related to

(A) doctrine of election

(B) doctrine of part performance

(C) transfer by unauthorised person

(D) Ostensible owner

64. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882, remedy of 'foreclosure' is available under which one of the following mortgages?

(A) Mortgage by conditional sale

(B) English mortgage

(C) Usufructuary mortgage

(D) Simple mortgage

65. Which two countries have reached an agreement on 10 April, 2016 to build a bridge over the Red Sea?

(A) Saudi Arabia and Egypt

(B) Saudi Arabia and Tunisia

(C) Egypt and Greece

(D) France and Morocco

66. Which one of the following Sections of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 says that "a transfer of property may be made without writing in every case in which a writing is not expressly required by law"?

(A) Section 5

(B) Section 7

(C) Section 8

(D) Section 9

67. Under Transfer of Property Act, 1882 when can an unborn person acquire vested interest on transfer for his benefit?

(A) Upon his birth

(B) Upon completing his majority age

(C) Upon his marriage

(D) None of the above

68. World Refugee Day is observed every year on

(A) 20 June

(B) 29 July

(C) 20 August

(D) 20 September

69. Which one of the following countries has become 35th Member of Missile Technology Control Regime?

(A) India

(B) Pakistan

(C) Japan

(D) Indonesia

70. On which date, India ratified the 'Convention on Supplementary Compensation for Nuclear Damages, 1997'?

(A) 6 February, 2016

(B) 15 February, 2016

(C) 22 January, 2016

(D) 4 February, 2016

71. A member of the United Nations can be suspended from exercising the right of membership by

(A) the General Assembly

(B) the Security Council

(C) the Secretary-General

(D) the General Assembly on the recommendation of Security Council

72. According to Section 3 of the Transfer Property Act, 1882 'Instrument' means

(A) testamentary instrument

(B) non-testamentary instrument

(C) both (A) & (B)

(D) None of the above

73. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, A transfer Rs. 5,000 to B on condition that he shall marry with the consent of C, D and E. E dies B marries with the consent of C and D.

(A) Marriage is valid

(B) Marriage is invalid

(C) Marriage is voidable

(D) Marriage is void

74. Author of 'De Jure belli ac pacis' is

(A) Hobbes

(B) Bentham

(C) Grotious

(D) Austin

75. Which one of the following organs of the United Nations performs legislative functions?

(A) The General Assembly

(B) The Economic and Social Council

(C) The Trusteeship Council

(D) The Security Council

76. Which one of the following Articles of the UN Charter relates to Domestic Jurisdiction?

(A) Article 2(7)

(B) Article 23

(C) Article 51

(D) Article 72

77. 4th India-Africa Hydrocarbons Conference was organised in

(A) Goa

(B) New Delhi

(C) Johannesburg

(D) Durban

78. The Nehru-Liaquat Pact between India and Pakistan was assigned In 1950 to resolve the Issue for

(A) the protection of minorities.

(B) the accession of princely states

(C) the border disputes

(D) the problem of refugees

79. A State is admitted to the membership of the United Nations by

(A) the Security Council only

(B) the General Assembly after approval from the Security Council

(C) the General Assembly only

(D) United Nations Secretariat

80. Which among the following is entrusted with the task of enforcement of the judgments of the International Court of Justice?

(A) The General Assembly of the United Nations

(B) The Security Council of the United Nations

(C) Both (A) and (B)

(D) The International Court of Justice itself

81. The action required to carry out the decision of the Security Council for the maintenance of International Peace and Security shall be taken by which one of the following?

(A) All the members of the United Nations or some of them as the Security Council may determine

(B) All the members of Security Council

(C) The General Assembly by its majority vote

(D) All the above

82. Which two countries have signed two new agreements on solar energy and nano technology on 15 June, 2016?

(A) India and America

(B) India and United Kingdom

(C) America and France

(D) China and South Korea

83. A new social security agreement signed between India and Australia has come into operation on

(A) 10 January, 2016

(B) 1 January, 2016

(C) 1 February, 2016

(D) 15 February, 2016

84. International Conference on Cooperative Federalism was organised on 21st January, 2016

(A) Mumbai

(B) Kolkata

(C) Washington

(D) New Delhi

85. Which one of the following is essential for a valid contract under the Indian Contract Act 1872?

(A) Meeting of minds of the parties

(B) Meeting of the parties for searching legality of rights

(C) Meeting of the parties to discuss consideration

(D) Meeting of parties to discuss proposal and acceptance

86. Point out the correct item shown below:
There may be a contract without consideration if

(A) the agreement is in writing and registered

(B) the parties to the agreement are near relatives

(C) the agreement is made due to natural love and affection

(D) All the above

87. With which country, India has signed a memorandum of understanding for construction of six nuclear reactors at Jaitapur?

(A) Russia

(B) France

(C) Israel

(D) America

88. The first arrest warrant by the International Criminal Court was issued In

(A) 2003

(B) 2004

(C) 2005

(D) 2006

89. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872, A promises B to drop a prosecution which he has instituted against B for robbery, and B promises to restore the value of the things taken. The agreement is

(A) valid

(B) invalid

(C) void

(D) voidable

90. An agent, at the time of making the contract does not disclose the name and address of his principal but it comes known to the second party afterwards. In case of any default the second party may file a suit against

(A) Principal

(B) Agent

(C) Either agent or principal or both.

(D) None of the above

91. Under Indian Law of Contract "consensus ad Idem" means

(A) to agree on the same thing in the same sense

(B) no agreement can have more than one meaning

(C) to agree in the same way

(D) to agree on different things in the same sense

92. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872, If the nature of liability in a contract is changed it is shown as

(A) Rescission

(B) Renovation

(C) Alteration

(D) Novation

93. Which one of the following cases belongs to the principle of "pari delicto"?

(A) Barrett v. Irvine

(B) Banwari Lal v. Sukhdarshan Dayal

(C) Onkarmal v. Banwari Lal

(D) State of Madras v. Gannon Dunkerley & Co.

94. Match List-I with List-ll and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-1
(a) Counter-Proposal
(b) Damages for breach
(c) Acceptance by conduct
(d) Commercial Hardship
List-II
(1) A.K.A.S. Jamal v. Moola Dawood
(2) Hindustan Co-op. Insurance Societies v. Shyam Sunder
(3) Hyde v. Wrench
(4) Ganga Saran v. Ram Charan Ram Gopal

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(A) (2) (1) (4) (3)

(B) (3) (2) (1) (4)

(C) (1) (3) (4) (2)

(D) (3) (1) (2) (4)

95. 'A contract over telephone becomes complete at the place where acceptance is heard'. In which case it has been held?

(A) Bhagwandas v. Girdharilal

(B) Carlil v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Company

(C) Mohribibi v. Dharmodas Ghosh

(D) Satyabratta Ghosh v. Mugneeram

96. A lends rupees one lakh to B and B promises to repay it with Interest 12% per annum after one year. The agreement also provides that if the amount is repaid within six months, the rate of interest will be 10%. The stipulation Is

(A) valid

(B) void

(C) voidable

(D) illegal

97. Under Indian Contract Act, 1872 "an agreement not enforceable by law is said to be void", which one of the following agreements is not void?

(A) Agreement in restraint of legal proceedings

(B) Agreement in restraint of trade

(C) Agreement under coercion

(D) Agreement in restraint of marriage

98. Where both of the parties to an agreement are under a mistake as to a matter of fact the agreement is

(A) voidable

(B) void

(C) illegal

(D) None of the above

99. An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties, but not at the option of the other or others, is

(A) valid contract

(B) voidable contract

(C) void contract

(D) None of the above

100. In case of Breach of Contract, the principles for assessment of damages are given in

(A) Hyde v. Wrench

(B) Hadley v. Baxandale

(C) Scorf v. Jodine

(D) Carlil v. Carbolic Smoke Ball Co.

101. What is a reasonable time for the performance of a contract

(A) is a question of fact

(B) is a question of law

(C) is a question of fact and law

(D) is a question of prudence

102. 'Carry forward' rule was held to be 'ultra vires' in the case of

(A) Devdasan v. Union of India

(B) B.N. Tiwari v. State of Mysore

(C) State of Kerala v. N.M. Thomas

(D) Balaji v. State of Mysore

103. The Supreme Court of India has evolved a curative petition under

(A) Article 136 of the Constitution

(B) Article 143 of the Constitution

(C) Article 32 of the Constitution

(D) Article 142 of the Constitution

104. According to the Supreme Court of India Jat community of various States is

(A) backward class under Article 16(4)

(B) not backward class under Article 16(4)

(C) mainly socially backward class

(D) not politically organised class

105. According to the Supreme Court decision in S.R. Bommal v. Union of India, the Constitution of India is

(A) Federal

(B) Quasi-federal

(C) Co-operative union

(D) None of the above

106. On the dissolution of Lok Sabha, a Bill passed by both the Houses of Parliament and awaiting assent of President

(A) lapses

(B) does not lapse

(C) needs approval of new Lok Sabha

(D) needs approval of speaker of new Lok Sabha

107. In which case, the Supreme Court has held that fundamental duties must be used as a tool to control state action drifting from Constitutional values?

(A) L.K. Koolwal v. State of Rajasthan

(B) M.C. Mehta v. Union of India

(C) Sachidanand Pandey v. State of West Bengal

(D) AIIMS Students Union v. AIIMS

108. Rajeev Kumar Gupta v. Union of India (2016) deals with the reservations In State services for

(A) Persons with disability

(B) Women

(C) Other Backward Classes

(D) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

109. In which one of the following cases the discretionary powers of governor under Article 163 of the Constitution were held subjected to judicial review?

(A) Mahabir Prasad Sharma v. Prafulla Chandra Ghosh

(B) Pratap Singh Raojirao Rane v. Governor of Goa

(C) Naban Rabia and Baman Felix v. Deputy Speaker

(D) None of the above

110. Under the Indian Constitution, "To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture" is a

(A) Fundamental Right

(B) Fundamental Duty

(C) Directive Principles of State Policies

(D) A Social morality

111. In which one of the following cases Section 499 and Section 500 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 have been recently declared Constitutional by the Supreme Court?

(A) Subramanium Swamy v. Union of India

(B) Rajkumar Gupta v. Union of India

(C) Janet Jaypaul v. SRM University

(D) Abhay Singh v. State of U.P.

112. In Indra Sawhney v. Union of India case, the Supreme Court has held that there

(A) can be reservation in promotions

(B) cannot be reservation in promotions

(C) can be reservations in promotion for Other Backward Castes (OBC)

(D) can be reservation in promotion for women

113. "Disqualification on the ground of defection shall not apply in case of split in the political party."

This provision has been deleted by

(A) Constitution (Ninety First Amendment) Act, 2003

(B) Constitution (Ninety-Third Amendment) Act, 2005

(C) Constitution (Ninety Fourth Amendment) Act, 2006

(D) None of the above

114. For removal of a judge of Supreme Court, the special majority resolution required to be passed in each House of Parliament is

(A) two thirds of total number of members of the House

(B) two-thirds of total membership of the House

(C) two-thirds of members present and voting in the House and majority of the total membership of the House.

(D) None of the above

115. Parliament has power to make law on a matter In State List provided it is in

(A) Public interest

(B) National interest

(C) Both (a) and (b)

(D) None of the above

116. Under the Constitution of India Hindi, In Devanagari Script is

(A) National language of the Union of India

(B) Official language of the Union of India

(C) Mother language of the Union of India

(D) None of the above

117. "The Indian Constitution provides a unitary State with subsidiary federal features, rather than federal state with subsidiary unitary features."

This statement is of

(A) Sir Ivor Jennings

(B) A.V. Dicey

(C) Prof K.C. Wheare

(D) S.A. Desmith

118. Keshav Singh's case is related to

(A) freedom of Press

(B) right to life and person liberty

(C) parliamentary privileges

(D) imposition of President's Rule

119. In which one of the following cases it was held by the court that "the amendment In the Constitution is the exercise of legislative function of the Parliament"?

(A) Shankari Prasad v. Union of India

(B) Golaknath v. State of Punjab

(C) Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan

(D) Keshavanand Bharti v. State of Kerala.

120. By which one of the following Amendment of the Constitution Sikkim was included in the State of India?

(A) 36th Amendment

(B) 35th Amendment

(C) 7th Amendment

(D) 5th Amendment

121. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court of India has recognised "Trans-gender persons" to be persons of "Third-gender"?

(A) National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India

(B) NALSAR University Hyderabad v. Union of India

(C) State Legal Service Authority v. Union of India

(D) Suresh Kumar Kaushal v. Naz Foundation

122. Article 338A of the Constitution provides for the establishment of a

(A) National Commission for backward Classes

(B) National Commission for Scheduled Castes

(C) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes

(D) None of the above

123. Which one of the following provision of the Constitution Imposes a duty on Centre to ensure that government of the State is carrying on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution?

(A) Article 352

(C) Article 353

(B) Article 355

(D) Article 358

124. Which one of the following is not an essential element of a valid custom?

(A) Antiquity

(B) Continuity

(C) Uncertainty

(D) Peaceful enjoyment

125. "Interpretation is that process by which the courts seek to ascertain the meaning of law through medium of authoritative forums in

This statement is of which it is expressed."

(A) Maxwell

(B) Salmond

(C) G.P. Singh

(D) Craise

126. Which one of the following jurists emphasised that "we cannot understand a thing, unless we know what it does"?

(A) Roscoe Pound

(B) Salmond

(C) Austin

(D) Kelsen

127. "The only right which any man can possess Is the right always to do his duty."

This statement is of

(A) Duguit

(C) Gierke

(B) Thering

(D) Salmond

128."Jurisprudence is the knowledge of things, human and divine; the science of just and unjust."

This statement is of

(A) Keeton

(C) Ulpain

(B) Savigny

(D) Austin

129. Which one of the following is not a 'theory of corporate personality'?

(A) Fiction Theory

(B) Bracket Theory

(C) Realist Theory

(D) Will Theory

130. Which one of the following theories of punishment implies that a crime is a disease and the object should be to cure the disease?

(A) Preventive Theory

(B) Deterrent Theory

(C) Reformative Theory

(D) Retributive Theory

131."The most distinctive feature of some societies is that they develop the law, through fiction, equity and legislation."

This statement relates to

(A) Primitive societies

(B) Static societies

(C) Progressive societies

(D) Dynamic societies

132. Who is the main propounder of the declaratory theory of judicial precedent?

(A) Blackstone

(B) Gray

(C) Salmond

(D) Dicey

133. Which one of the following is a "theory of legal right'?

(A) Concession theory

(B) Fiction theory

(C) Interest theory

(D) Bracket theory

134. The book of 'Theory of Legislation' was written by

(A) H.L.A. Hart

(B) W. Friedmann

(C) Jeremy Bentham

(D) Julius Stone

135. "Now, natural law is not considered as absolute but as relative. It is natural law with variable contents."

This observation specifically relates to

(A) Stammler

(B) Del Vicchio

(C) Finnis

(D) Dabin

136. Which one of the following has divided justice in two parts-distributive justice and corrective Justice?

(A) Dabin

(B) Aristotle

(C) Plato

(D) Acquinas

137. A, a revenue officer tortures Z in order to compel him to pay certain arrears of revenue due from Z. A is guilty of an offence under section?

(A) 383 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

(B) 328 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

(C) 392 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

(D) 330 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860

138."Ownership is a plenary control over an object."
This definition has been given by

(A) Austin

(B) Holland

(C) Pound

(D) Kelsen

139. Which one of the following is not a legal person?

(A) Shiv Idol in Shivalaya

(B) Mosque

(C) Guru Granth Sahib

(D) Unborn child

140. Under Indian Penal Code, 1860, subject to the restriction laid down under its Section 99 in cases of assault causing reasonable apprehension of death or grievous hurt, the right of private defence extends to the voluntary causing of

(A) grievous hurt

(B) death

(C) any harm other than death

(D) any harm other than death or grievous hurt

141. Under which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 a conspiracy to wage war against the Government of India is punishable?

(A) 120

(B) 120A

(C) 121A

(D) 121

142. A abets B to assault C, B murders C

(A) A is liable for abetment of assaulting C

(B) A is liable for abetment of assaulting and murdering C

(C) A is liable for abetment of murder of C

(D) A is liable for murder

143. Under Section 65 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, sentence of Imprisonment for non-payment of fine shall be limited to

(A) one-third of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence

(B) one-fourth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence

(C) one-half of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence

(D) one-fifth of the maximum term of imprisonment fixed for the offence

144. If an offender is sentenced to imprisonment for a term exceeding one year. the term of solitary confinement shall not exceed

(A) one month

(B) two months

(C) three months

(D) no limit

145. Under which one of the following provisions of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 causing the death of child in the mother's womb is not homicide?

(A) Explanation I of Section 299

(B) Explanation II of Section 299

(C) Explanation III of Section 299 (D) Explanation IV of Section 300

146. When anybody, in order to commit extortion, puts any person into fear of death or grievous hurt he is punishable under?

(A) Section 383

(B) Section 385

(C) Section 386

(D) Section 382

147. A, in good faith believing property belonging to Z, to be his own property, take the property out of B's possession. A is guilty of

(A) theft

(B) criminal misappropriation of property

(C) criminal breach of trust

(D) no offence

148. Section 511 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 does apply in case of

(A) attempt of rioting

(B) attempt of theft

(C) attempt of wagering war against the Government of India

(D) attempt of affray

149. A abets B to murder D. B In pursuance to the instigation stabs D. D recovers from the wound. In this case

(A) A is liable for abetment of murder of D

(B) A is liable for abetment of attempt to murder D

(C) A is liable for abetment of causing wound to D

(D) A is liable for no offence

150. Under which one of the following Sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, promoting enmity between different groups on the grounds of religion, race, place of birth, residence, language, etc. and doing acts prejudicial to the maintenance of harmony has been dealt with?

(A) Section 153

(B) Section 153A

(C) Section 153AA

(D) Section 153B

Answers

Paper 1 (General Knowledge)

1. (B)

2. (A)

3. (C)

4. (A)

5. (C)

6. (D)

7. (B)

8. (A)

9. (C)

10. (C)

11. (D)

12. (C)

13. (A)

14. (C)

15. (D)

16. (A)

17. (D)

18. (B)

19. (D)

20. (A)

21. (B)

22. deleted

23. (C)

24. (D)

25. (B)

26. (C)

27. (D)

28. (A)

29. (B)

30. (C)

31. (D)

32. (B)

33. (C)

34. (B)

35. (C)

36. (B)

37. (D)

38. (A)

39. (A)

40. (B)

41. (B)

42. (D)

43. (A)

44. (D)

45. (B)

46. (C)

47. (A)

48. (B)

49. (D)

50. (C)

51. (A)

52. (B)

53. (C)

54. (D)

55. (C)

56. (B)

57. (C)

58. (D)

59. (D)

60. (A)

61. (B)

62. (A)

63. (B)

64. (D)

65. (A)

66. (A)

67. (B)

68. (B)

69. (C)

70. (C)

71. (B)

72. (A)

73. (D)

74. (A)

75. (C)

76. (A)

77. (D)

78. (D)

79. (C)

80. (A)

81. (B)

82. (D)

83. (A)

84. (B)

85. (B)

86. (D)

87. (C)

88. (A)

89. (C)

90. (A)

91. (C)

92. (A)

93. (B)

94. (D)

95. (A)

96. (B)

97. (D)

98. (D)

99. (D)

100. (A)

101. (C)

102. (B)

103. (D)

104. (B)

105. (B)

106. (B)

107. (B)

108. (C)

109. (C)

110. (B)

111. (A)

112. (D)

113. (C)

114. (A)

115. (D)

116. (D)

117. (D)

118. (A)

119. (C)

120. (B)

121. (D)

122. (B)

123. (A)

124. (B)

125. (C)

126. (B)

127. (D)

128. (B)

129. (A)

130. (C)

131. (B)

132. (A)

133. (B)

134. (A)

135. (D)

136. (B)

137. (D)

138. (C)

139. (B)

140. (C)

141. (D)

142. (A)

143. (C)

144. (A)

145. (C)

146. (D)

147. (B)

148. (A)

149. (D)

150. (C)

Paper 2 (Law)

1. (D)

2. (C)

3. (D)

4. (D)

5. (C)

6. Delected

7. (D)

8. (D)

9. (A)

10. (B)

11. (B)

12. (C)

13. (B)

14. (C)

16. (C)

18. (B)

19. Deleted.

20. (B)

21. (B)

22. (D)

23. Deleted

24. (C)

25. (B)

26. (C)

27. (A)

29. (D)

30. (A)

31. (D)

32. (D)

33. (C)

34. (D)

36. (A)

37. (A)

38. (C)

39. (A)

40. (A)

41. (*)

42. (A)

43. (C)

44. (A)

46. (B)

47. (A)

49. (A)

50. (A)

52. (C)

53. (A)

54. (D)

55. (B)

56. (B)

57. (B)

58. (A)

59. (C)

60. (C)

61. (D)

62. (B)

63. (D)

64. (A)

65. (A)

66. (D)

68. (A)

69. (A)

70. (D)

71. (D)

72. (B)

73. (A)

74. (C)

75. (A)

76. (A)

77. (B)

78. (A)

79. (B)

80. (B)

81. (A)

82. (B)

83. (B)

84. (D)

85. (A)

86. (D)

87. (B)

88. (C)

89. (C)

90. (C)

91. (A)

92. (D)

93. (C)

94. (D) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

95. (A)

96. (A)

97. (C)

98. (B)

99.(B)

100. (B)

101. (A)

102. (A)

103. (D)

104.(B)

105. (A)

106. (B)

107. (D)

108. (A)

109. (C)

110. (B)

111. (A)

112. (B)

113. (A)

115. (B)

116. (B)

117. (C)

118. (C)

119. (B)

120. (A)

121. (A)

122. (C)

123. (B)

124. (C)

125. (B)

126. (A)

127. (A)

128. (C)

129. (D)

130. (C)

131. (C)

132. (A)

133. (C)

134. (C)

135. (A)

136. (B)

137. (D)

138. (B)

139. (B)

140. (B)

141. (C)

142. (A)

143. (B)

144. (C)

146. (C)

147. (D)

148. Deleted

149. (A)

150. (B)

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