CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions February 2026

Legal Bites presents the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – February 2026, thoughtfully curated to refine your preparation strategy and strengthen your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In an increasingly competitive environment marked by evolving question patterns, consistent practice with high-quality, judgment-based questions is essential.

CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions
February 2026

No. of questions: 120

I. Law as a body of knowledge cannot survive in isolation. Law needs to be studied with various other subjects and their intersectionality. There are various schools of Jurisprudence, viz. Natural School, Analytical School, Realist School, Sociological School, Historical School and others. Among these, the most interesting and intriguing one is the Historical School of Jurisprudence, which has its origin and basis in the human history itself. Historical school advocates that law as a branch of study has developed from social norms, customs, conventions, traditions, religious practices, folklore, human relations and necessities. Thus, according to the proponents of this school, there exists a strong relation between law and the developing needs of society. Law cannot be stagnant. It evolves with the evolving times and the changes in the human society. Historical events influence and at times, change the course of law and vice versa.

Every human society is different from every other. To cite an example, the Oriental or Eastern societies are very different in their culture, language, traditions, food habits, religious practices, rites and rituals, climatic patterns, values and public morality than the Occidental or Western world. Thus, societal needs are specific for particular communities or societies, and therefore the social norms and behaviour will also be very specific to that particular society.

[Extracted from Shraddha Pandit, “Historical School of Jurisprudence: An Intriguing Province,” International Journal of Law Management & Humanities, Vol. 6, Issue 1 (2023)]

1. According to the passage, law cannot survive in isolation because:

A. It depends only on legislation

B. It must be studied with other subjects and their intersectionality

C. It is purely a moral science

D. It is independent of society

Answer: B

2. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a school of jurisprudence in the passage?

A. Natural School

B. Analytical School

C. Realist School

D. Feminist School

Answer: D

3. The passage states that historical school views law as developed from:

A. Parliamentary enactments alone

B. Customs, conventions, religious practices and social necessities

C. Judicial activism

D. Economic policies

Answer: B

4. Which example is used in the passage to show the diversity of societies?

A. Oriental and Occidental societies

B. Tribal and urban communities

C. Developed and developing nations

D. India and Africa

Answer: A

5. Who is regarded as the father of the Historical School of Jurisprudence?

A. Jeremy Bentham

B. John Austin

C. Friedrich Carl von Savigny

D. Roscoe Pound

Answer: C

II. The basis of Austin's legal theory is his description of the sovereign as a clear and supreme political power whose orders are always followed. In criminal law, the practical equivalent of Austin's sovereign is usually the legislature or the state, which creates criminal laws and defines penalties. Constitutionally, the power to define crimes and punishments belongs to those recognised by constitutional and legal criteria as qualified legislators. These organisations have the power to create binding legal orders, hence this institutional delegation fits Austin's concept of sovereignty. But Austin's rigid and single reading is very different from the sovereignty paradigm operating in contemporary liberal democracies. All of which distribute and restrict the use of legislative and executive power, contemporary legal systems are defined by constitutionalism, the separation of powers, judicial scrutiny, and the rule of law. Organised discourse, controlled by procedural safeguards and substantive limits, shapes legislation not the only domain of individual choice. Austin's theory falls short in dealing with the complexity of modern democratic administration and the various normative origins shaping the legal order. Furthermore, the reading and application of criminal laws could include judicial discretion, adding another layer of power that cannot be readily simplified to fit a sovereign's orders. All of which influence the character and degree of criminal liability, judges read laws, settle uncertainties, and build common law ideas. These court actions show that legal standards in criminal law are not only published but also created and contested inside institutional structures. Though simple, Austin's sovereign-command model does not cover the institutional diversity and moral dynamism natural in criminal law creation.

[Extracted from Saif Hussain & Rishi Bhargava, Rishi, “Reassessing Command: The Relevance of John Austin’s Legal Positivism in Contemporary Criminal Law.” International Journal for Multidisciplinary Research (IJFMR), Vol. 7, Issue 3, May–June 2025]

6. According to Austin, law is primarily:

A. A set of moral principles

B. A custom accepted by society

C. A command of the sovereign backed by sanction

D. A judicial precedent

Answer: C

7. Austin’s theory of law is popularly known as:

A. Social contract theory

B. Command theory of law

C. Pure theory of law

D. Realist theory

Answer: B

8. According to the passage, Austin’s concept of the sovereign is primarily characterised by:

A. A supreme political authority whose commands are habitually obeyed

B. A power that derives authority from constitutional morality

C. An institution subject to judicial review and separation of powers

D. A democratic body limited by procedural safeguards

Correct Answer: A

9. Which of the following best reflects the author’s criticism of Austin’s model?

A. It ignores the moral basis of punishment

B. It overemphasises judicial creativity

C. It is too rigid to explain distributed and limited power

D. It denies the role of the legislature in criminal law

Correct Answer: C

10. According to the passage, judges contribute to criminal law by:

A. Issuing commands like the sovereign

B. Acting outside institutional structures

C. Replacing the legislature in defining crimes

D. Interpreting statutes and resolving ambiguities

Correct Answer: D

III. India has actively participated in the advisory jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice by submitting written statements and occasionally making oral submissions in important cases. It has taken part in matters such as South-West Africa, Namibia, Voting Procedures, Maritime Safety Committee, and the Nuclear Weapons advisory opinions.

In these cases, India generally supported principles like sovereignty, self-determination, treaty interpretation, and adherence to international law. Its arguments often aligned with widely accepted legal principles and, in several instances, were reflected in the Court’s final opinions.

At the same time, India’s participation has largely been influenced by its national interests and foreign policy. For example, while strongly condemning the use of nuclear weapons and supporting global disarmament, India maintained a cautious and balanced position consistent with its strategic considerations. Overall, India has contributed meaningfully to the development of advisory jurisprudence, but its involvement has been selective rather than consistent across all major advisory proceedings.

[Summary of the article titled, “India's Contribution to the Advisory Jurisdiction of the ICJ,” by Ankit Gautam International Journal of Law Management & Humanities, Vol. 5, Issue 3 (2022), pp. 490–499, ISSN 2581-5369]

11. India has participated in the advisory jurisdiction of the International Court of Justice primarily by:

A. Filing contentious cases against neighbouring states

B. Submitting written statements and making oral submissions

C. Acting as a permanent judge in advisory proceedings

D. Exercising veto power over advisory opinions

Answer: B

12. Advisory opinions of the ICJ are:

A. Legally binding on all UN Member States

B. Binding only on the requesting organ

C. Non-binding but carry significant legal authority

D. Enforceable through economic sanctions

Answer: C

13. In the Namibia advisory opinion (1971), the ICJ primarily addressed issues relating to:

A. Maritime boundary delimitation

B. Voting rights in the UN General Assembly

C. Nuclear disarmament treaties

D. Legality of South Africa’s continued presence in Namibia

Answer: D

14. Which of the following best describes India’s overall engagement with ICJ advisory proceedings?

A. Selective participation influenced by foreign policy considerations

B. Continuous and mandatory participation

C. Complete disengagement from advisory matters

D. Automatic support of Western bloc positions

Answer: A

15. The ICJ was established under:

A. The Geneva Conventions, 1949

B. The UN Charter, 1945

C. The Rome Statute, 1998

D. The Hague Convention, 1907

Answer: B

IV. Security Council is often described as the ‘Enforcement or Executive Wing’ of the United Nations. It has the basic responsibility for the maintenance of peace and security. The Council consists of fifteen members, five being permanent members representing the ‘Big Five’ — China, France, Russia, Britain and the United States of America. The ten non-permanent members are elected by the General Assembly by two-thirds majority for a twoyear term. A retiring member is not eligible for immediate re-election.

Each member of the Security Council has one vote. Decisions on procedural matters are made by an affirmative vote of nine members. Decisions on all other matters shall be made by an affirmative vote of nine members, including the concurring votes of the permanent members. A Negative Vote by a Permanent Member is called Veto. This means that the Council is powerless to act in the face of a Veto by any of permanent members. But abstention from voting by a permanent member does not amount to a negative vote (Veto).

The meetings of the Security Council are held once a month. However, in emergencies, the meetings can be held whenever they are needed.

[Extracted from Tirthankar Hudati & Archana Das, The Establishment of the United Nations: A Study of its Formation and its Contribution, International Journal of Innovative Research in Technology, Vol. 12, Issue 3 (August 2025), ISSN 2349-6002]

16. The Security Council is described as the ‘Enforcement or Executive Wing’ of the United Nations because it:

A. Interprets international treaties

B. Supervises the International Court of Justice

C. Maintains international peace and security

D. Elects the Secretary-General

Answer: C

17. The Security Council consists of:

A. 10 members including 5 permanent members

B. 15 members including 5 permanent members

C. 20 members including 10 permanent members

D. 25 members including 5 permanent members

Answer: B

18. The ten non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected by:

A. The Security Council itself

B. The Secretary-General

C. The International Court of Justice

D. The General Assembly

Answer: D

19. A negative vote by a permanent member is known as:

A. Abstention

B. Objection

C. Override

D. Veto

Answer: D

20. In emergencies, Security Council meetings:

A. Cannot be convened

B. Require General Assembly approval

C. Can be held whenever needed

D. Must wait for a permanent member request

Answer: C

V. It is unquestionable that High Court is a constitutional Court. However, in the instant case the error of jurisdiction by the High Court was in exercise of a statutory power and not under the Constitution. The powers arising from the Constitution and those flowing from a statute are distinct and separate. A constitutional power is the one which emanates directly from the text and spirit of the Constitution of India, the supreme and fundamental charter of governance, and inheres in those institutions or functionaries whose existence and competence are defined by it. Such powers are self-sustaining; they are not contingent upon any act of the Legislature, nor can they be abridged or extinguished except through a formal amendment under Article 368. For example, the President’s power to dissolve the Lok Sabha under Article 85(2)(b); the Governor’s authority to reserve a bill for the consideration of the President under Article 200, or the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 32 are all in exercise of constitutional power. These powers represent the apex of the legal hierarchy, deriving their legitimacy not from the will of the people as expressed by Parliament, but from the sovereignty of the Constitution itself.

[This extract is taken from State of Uttar Pradesh v. Anurudh & Anr., Special Leave to Appeal (Crl.) No. 10656 of 2025]

21. According to the passage, the High Court in the instant case committed an error while exercising:

A. its inherent constitutional jurisdiction

B. powers flowing directly from Article 226

C. a statutory power and not a constitutional power

D. powers under Article 368

Answer: C

22. According to the passage, constitutional powers can be abridged only by:

A. judicial interpretation

B. an ordinary Act of Parliament

C. executive order

D. formal constitutional amendment under Article 368

Answer: D

23. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar described Article 32 as:

A. The heart and soul of the Constitution

B. The basic structure of the Constitution

C. A procedural safeguard

D. A directive principle

Answer: A

24. Which writ is issued to prevent a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction?

A. Mandamus

B. Prohibition

C. Habeas Corpus

D. Quo Warranto

Answer: B

25. Which of the following is cited as an example of constitutional power?

A. President dissolving Lok Sabha under Article 85(2)(b)

B. Power of High Court under Rent Control Act

C. Tribunal exercising powers under a statute

D. Delegated legislation by executive

Answer: A

VI. Such a transferee, as in the present case, stands subservient to the decree passed by the civil court. In other words, a transferee pendente lite is bound by the ultimate outcome of the litigation. Accordingly, the appellants are bound by the directions issued to the judgment-debtor (Respondent No. 2) to execute the sale deed in favour of the plaintiff (the decree-holder).

In the event of failure by the judgment-debtor to comply with the decree, the execution of the sale deed through a Court-appointed Commissioner is equally binding upon the appellants. Upon such execution, title to the suit property stands transferred to the decree-holder, and any claim of the appellants thereto stands extinguished.

A transferee pendente lite is bound by the decree to the same extent as if he were a party to the suit itself. By operation of Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the rights of the obstructionists stood nullified, and they could not assert any independent title contrary to the decree.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Alka Shrirang Chavan & Anr. v. Hemchandra Rajaram Bhonsale & Ors., 2026 INSC 52]

26. A transferee pendente lite refers to a person who:

A. Purchases property after execution proceedings are concluded

B. Acquires property during the pendency of litigation concerning that property

C. Purchases property before the filing of a civil suit

D. Acquires property through a court-appointed commissioner

Answer: B

27. According to the passage, a transferee pendente lite is bound by the decree:

A. Only if he was impleaded as a party to the suit

B. Only if the transfer was fraudulent

C. To the same extent as if he were a party to the suit

D. Only after execution proceedings commence

Answer: C

28. Which legal provision operates to nullify the rights of a transferee pendente lite against the decree-holder?

A. Section 53 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882

B. Section 47 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

C. Order XXI Rule 97 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908

D. Section 52 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882

Answer: D

29. Which of the following is not a requirement for the application of Section 52 TPA?

A. Pendency of a suit

B. Suit must be collusive

C. Transfer of immovable property

D. Property must be directly in question

Answer: B

30. Lis pendens does not require proof of:

A. Pendency of litigation

B. Transfer during pendency

C. Bad faith of transferee

D. Property being directly in issue

Answer: C

VII. We accordingly reaffirm the principle that jurisdiction is conferred upon the Tribunal under the Waqf Act, 1995, and that the jurisdiction of the civil court stands excluded under Section 85 of the said Act, as interpreted and declared in Ramesh Gobindram.

It is, however, acknowledged that Ramesh Gobindram may be distinguishable in cases relating to the eviction of encroachers, since such jurisdiction has now been expressly conferred upon the Tribunal by the Amendment Act of 2013. The 2013 amendment removes the foundational basis of the decision in Ramesh Gobindram only to the limited extent of the earlier absence of statutory power vested in the Tribunal to order eviction of encroachers.

Save to this specific extent, the amendment does not in any manner dilute or alter the settled principle that the Tribunal’s jurisdiction under the Waqf Act, 1995 is confined to the powers expressly conferred by the statute, and that the civil court’s jurisdiction stands ousted only to the extent of such statutory conferment.

[Extracted with edits from Habib Alladin & Ors. v. Mohammed Ahmed, 2026 INSC 90]

31. The Tribunal’s jurisdiction under the Waqf Act, 1995 is:

A. Inherent and plenary

B. Concurrent with civil courts

C. Limited to powers expressly conferred by statute

D. Subject to approval of the State Government

Answer: C

32. Under Muslim law, a waqf is best described as:

A. Temporary dedication of property for religious purposes

B. Permanent dedication of property for purposes recognised by Muslim law

C. Transfer of ownership to beneficiaries

D. Lease of property for charitable use

Answer: B

33. Who is a Mutawalli?

A. Owner of waqf property

B. Beneficiary of waqf

C. Trustee appointed by civil court

D. Manager or superintendent of waqf

Answer: D

34. The paragraph recognises that Ramesh Gobindram may be distinguished primarily in relation to:

A. Eviction of encroachers

B. Appointment of mutawalli

C. Registration of waqf property

D. Determination of waqf character

Answer: A

35. According to the paragraph, the jurisdiction of civil courts under the Waqf Act, 1995 is:

A. Completely barred in all waqf-related disputes

B. Excluded under Section 85 to the extent of matters entrusted to the Tribunal

C. Excluded only after the 2013 Amendment

D. Retained concurrently with the Tribunal

Answer: B

VIII. Mr. Jain has submitted that by the instant Execution Application, the Applicant seeks to enforce the entire Award against the Respondent No.1 – HUF as well as Respondent No.2 – Karta on the basis that for any decree passed against the HUF, the Karta of such HUF is personally liable to satisfy the Award i.e. it becomes Karta’s personal liability. He has submitted that the HUF is a corporate personality. In the eyes of law it is treated / recognized as a juristic entity / corporate personality as opposed to a partnership firm, which is treated as a compendium of person.

Mr. Jain has submitted that Mitakshara and Dayabhaga are two primary schools of Hindu Law. These two schools of Hindu Law govern, inter alia, a range of issues about property inheritance and succession in Hindus to a significant extent. Mitakshara school is prevalent in North, West and South. According to Mitakshara school of Hindu Law, all the property of the Hindu Joint Family is held in collective ownership by all the Coparceners in a corporate entity. He has placed reliance upon the judgment in the case of State Bank of India vs. Ghamandi Ram, where the Supreme Court has held that a Coparcenary under the Mitakashara school of law is a creature of law and cannot arise by act of parties except on adoption. The adopted son becomes a Co-parcener with his adoptive father as regards the ancestral properties of the latter.

[Extracted from Manjeet Singh T. Anand v. Nishant Enterprises HUF, through its Karta & Anr., COMM Execution Application No. 19 of 2025.]

36. Mr. Jain argues that a decree passed against a Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) automatically results in the personal liability of the Karta. This submission is primarily challenged on the ground that:

A. A Karta has no authority to represent the HUF in execution proceedings

B. An HUF is treated as a juristic entity distinct from its members

C. A Karta is liable only for criminal acts of the HUF

D. The Mitakshara system does not recognise execution against family property

Answer: B

37. Which regions of India are primarily governed by the Mitakshara school of Hindu Law?

A. East and North-East India

B. Bengal and Assam

C. North, West and South India

D. Only Southern India

Answer: C

38. Which of the following statements regarding the Karta is correct?

A. A Karta occupies his position by status and not by agreement

B. A Karta is appointed by majority vote of coparceners

C. A Karta must always be the eldest male coparcener

D. A Karta is personally liable for all HUF obligations

Answer: A

39. The Karta represents the Hindu Joint Family in legal proceedings primarily because:

A. He is the owner of joint family property

B. He is a trustee appointed by law

C. He holds property in his individual name

D. He acts in a representative capacity for the HUF

Answer: D

40. An adopted son under Mitakshara law becomes a coparcener:

A. Only after partition

B. Only upon attaining majority

C. From the date of adoption

D. Only with consent of other coparceners

Answer: C

IX. We have given our thoughtful consideration to the rivalsubmissions and have carefully perused the records. Section 126 of the Act defines a ‘Contract of Guarantee’, as a contract to perform promise, or discharge the liability, of a third person in case of his default. The essential ingredients of a guarantee, therefore, are (a) existence of principal debt, (b) default by the principal debtor and (c) a promise by the surety to discharge the liability of the principal debtor upon such default. Thus, a guarantee is a promise to answer for the payment of some debt, or the performance of some duty, in case of failure of another party, who is in the first instance, liable to such payment or performance. A guarantee is a security in the form of right of action against a third party. In order to constitute a guarantee, there has to be a specific undertaking or unambiguous affirmation to discharge the liability of a third person in case of their default.

[Extracted from UV Asset Reconstruction Company Limited v. Electrosteel Castings Limited, Civil Appeal No. 9701 of 2024]

41. Under Section 126 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a “contract of guarantee” primarily involves a promise to:

A. Perform or discharge the liability of a third person in case of his default

B. Discharge one’s own liability arising from a contractual breach

C. Indemnify losses caused by unforeseen events

D. Secure repayment of a debt by creation of a charge

Answer: A

42. In the context of a contract of guarantee, the person who is “in the first instance liable” refers to:

A. The surety

B. The creditor

C. The guarantor

D. The principal debtor

Answer: D

43. According to the passage, a guarantee is best described as:

A. A transfer of liability from the principal debtor to the surety

B. A security in the form of a right of action against a third party

C. An agreement creating joint and several liability ab initio

D. A contingent contract dependent solely on creditor’s demand

Answer: B

44. Which of the following correctly distinguishes a contract of guarantee from a contract of indemnity?

A. Guarantee involves primary liability; indemnity involves secondary liability

B. Indemnity involves three parties; guarantee involves two parties

C. Guarantee involves secondary liability; indemnity involves primary liability

D. Both involve contingent liability

Answer: C

45. Which of the following is a correct statement of law?

A. Every indemnity is a guarantee

B. Every guarantee is an indemnity

C. Indemnity and guarantee are mutually exclusive concepts

D. A guarantee includes an element of indemnity

Answer: D

X. The doctrine of legitimate expectation under Indian law has recently been considered by a Constitution Bench of this Court in Sivanandan C.T. and Others v. High Court of Kerala and Others. After examining a catena of earlier decisions, the Court, in paragraphs 43 and 44 of the judgment, elucidated the doctrinal foundation and its contemporary contours as follows:

The basis of the doctrine of legitimate expectation has gradually expanded to embrace the principles of good administration. Since citizens repose trust and confidence in the State, its actions, representations, and established practices give rise to legitimate expectations that it will act in accordance with its assurances and past conduct. The doctrine thus mandates that public authorities act in a manner that is consistent, transparent, and predictable. Decisions that fail to satisfy these standards of good administration risk being characterised as arbitrary and, consequently, violative of Article 14 of the Constitution.

[Extracted from State of Uttar Pradesh v. Bhawana Mishra & Ors., 2026 INSC 38]

46. Assertion (A): Consistency, transparency, and predictability are central requirements of good administration under the doctrine of legitimate expectation.

Reason (R): These requirements ensure that State action does not become arbitrary in nature.

Choose the correct option:

A. Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion

B. Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion

C. Assertion is true, but Reason is false

D. Assertion is false, but Reason is true

Answer: D

47. Legitimate expectation arises because citizens repose which of the following in the State?

A. Legal rights

B. Contractual assurances

C. Trust and confidence

D. Statutory entitlements

Answer: C

48. Which of the following correctly reflects the constitutional basis of the doctrine of legitimate expectation as recognised by the Supreme Court?

A. Federalism

B. Equality before law

C. Freedom of speech

D. Separation of judiciary and executive

Answer: B

49. Which statement is most accurate?

A. Legitimate expectation is an absolute right

B. Legitimate expectation binds legislative action

C. Legitimate expectation applies to administrative discretion

D. Legitimate expectation applies only to contractual matters

Answer: C

50. Judicial review of legitimate expectation is concerned with examining:

A. Fairness, arbitrariness, and abuse of power

B. Policy wisdom of the executive

C. Merits of the decision

D. Political consequences of the decision

Answer: A

XI. It is well settled that though it is the pious obligation of a husband to maintain his wife, however, there is no such explicit legal duty has been cast upon the wife by any Court of law. In the facts of the present case, prima facie, it appears that the conduct of the wife and her family members has rendered the opposite party incapable of earning his livelihood. If a wife by her own acts or omissions, causes or contributes to the incapacity of her husband to earn, she cannot be permitted to take advantage of such a situation and claim maintenance. Granting maintenance in such circumstances would result in grave injustice to the husband, and the Court cannot shut its eyes from the reality emerging from the record.

It was held in the case of Kalyan Dey Chowdhury v. Rita Dey Chowdhury Nee Nandy, (2017) 14 SCC 200 that the amount of permanent alimony awarded to the wife must be befitting the status of the parties and the capacity of the spouse to pay maintenance. Maintenance is always dependent on the factual situation of the case and the court would be justified in moulding the claim for maintenance passed on various factors.

[Extracted from Vineeta v. Dr. Ved Prakash Singh,Criminal Revision No. 8658 of 2025]

51. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the settled legal position regarding maintenance obligations between spouses?

A. Both husband and wife have an equal statutory duty to maintain each other

B. The husband has a pious obligation to maintain the wife, but no explicit legal duty is cast upon the wife

C. The wife has a higher obligation to maintain the husband if he is unemployed

D. Maintenance is payable irrespective of the conduct of either spouse

Answer: B

52. The Supreme Court in Kalyan Dey Chowdhury emphasised that maintenance:

A. Depends on the factual situation of each case

B. Is a statutory entitlement not open to judicial discretion

C. Must be awarded only after criminal conviction

D. Cannot be modified once fixed

Answer: A

53. Which of the following is NOT a relevant consideration in deciding maintenance as per the given extract?

A. Conduct of the wife

B. Capacity of the husband to earn

C. Status of the parties

D. Moral sympathy for the claimant

Answer: D

54. Which of the following relatives can claim maintenance under Section 144 BNSS?

A. Wife, children, parents, and siblings

B. Wife, minor children, and grandparents

C. Wife, legitimate or illegitimate children, father or mother

D. Wife and dependent relatives

Answer: C

55. Which of the following best describes the nature of the court’s power to grant maintenance from the date of application?

A. Discretionary

B. Automatic

C. Mandatory

D. Ministerial

Answer: A

XII. Under Section 18 of the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes (Prevention of Atrocities) Act, 1989 (as amended in 2018), the provisions relating to anticipatory bail under Section 438 of the Code of Criminal Procedure are expressly excluded in respect of offences punishable under the SC/ST (POA) Act. On similar lines, Section 482 of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023, which corresponds to Section 438 CrPC, also does not apply to offences under the SC/ST (POA) Act. Consequently, anticipatory bail is ordinarily barred where the prosecution materials prima facie disclose the commission of an offence under the Act.

However, it is well settled that the bar under Section 18 of the SC/ST (POA) Act is not absolute. If the complaint or prosecution records do not disclose the essential ingredients of an offence under the Act, the court may consider granting anticipatory bail.

In the present case, the defacto complainant was known to the accused and identified the assailants with certainty by naming them. From these circumstances, it can reasonably be inferred that the accused had knowledge of the caste identity of the complainant, as contemplated under Section 8 of the SC/ST (POA) Act.

Furthermore, the allegations include the commission of a non-bailable offence punishable under Section 110 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS). In such circumstances, grant of anticipatory bail would be inappropriate as it may hamper the course of investigation.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Athul P. & Anr. v. State of Kerala, CRL.A. No. 2250 of 2025]

56. The expression "prima facie case" in anticipatory bail jurisprudence means:

A. Proof beyond reasonable doubt

B. Final determination of guilt

C. Initial satisfaction based on available material

D. Judicial confession

Answer: C

57. Which of the following correctly explains the relationship between Section 438 CrPC and Section 482 BNSS?

A. Both deal with regular bail

B. Section 482 BNSS replaces Section 419 CrPC

C. They are unrelated provisions

D. Section 482 BNSS corresponds to anticipatory bail under Section 438 CrPC

Answer: D

58. A non-bailable offence is one in which:

A. Bail may be granted at the discretion of the court

B. Bail is granted as a matter of right

C. Bail cannot be granted under any circumstances

D. Bail is granted automatically by police

Answer: A

59. Which set of criminal laws came into force simultaneously on 1 July 2024?

A. IPC, CrPC and Evidence Act

B. BNS, BNSS and BSA

C. CPC, IPC and Evidence Act

D. IBC, GST and CPC

Answer: B

60. Which of the following statutes expressly bars anticipatory bail in certain offences?

A. Indian Contract Act, 1872

B. SC/ST (POA) Act, 1989

C. Sale of Goods Act, 1930

D. Specific Relief Act, 1963

Answer: B

XIII. The right to life and personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution extends to the protection of menstrual health and dignity. Ensuring access to safe, hygienic, and affordable menstrual products is essential for enabling adolescent girls to achieve the highest attainable standard of reproductive and sexual health. This constitutional guarantee also encompasses the right to receive adequate education and awareness regarding menstrual and reproductive health.

Further, the right to equality under the Constitution requires that individuals be able to participate in society on an equal footing. True equality of opportunity demands that every girl be provided with the necessary facilities and knowledge to develop her abilities. When menstrual hygiene products and facilities are inaccessible, girls are often unable to attend school regularly, thereby undermining their right to equal participation in education. The resulting educational deprivation has long-term consequences, limiting their ability to engage fully in social and economic life.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Dr. Jaya Thakur v. Government of India & Ors., 2026 INSC 97]

61. According to the passage, the right to menstrual health is primarily derived from which constitutional provision?

A. Article 14 – Equality before law

B. Article 19 – Freedom of expression

C. Article 21 – Right to life and personal liberty

D. Article 32 – Constitutional remedies

Answer: C

62. Which of the following is identified as an essential requirement for achieving the highest standard of reproductive health?

A. Access to employment opportunities

B. Access to hygienic menstrual products

C. Access to legal aid

D. Access to political participation

Answer: B

63. Educational deprivation caused by lack of menstrual hygiene affects:

A. Only childhood health

B. Only school infrastructure

C. Future social and economic participation

D. Government expenditure

Answer: C

64. Which of the following best summarises the passage?

A. Menstrual health is only a medical issue

B. Menstrual health is a constitutional and equality concern

C. Menstrual health is a private issue

D. Menstrual health is an economic issue only

Answer: B

65. Which of the following best represents menstrual hygiene management?

A. Only medical treatment

B. Only product distribution

C. Only sanitation infrastructure

D. Products, facilities, and awareness

Answer: D

XIV. Mr. C.U. Singh contends that the statutory remedy under the Industrial Disputes Act can be invoked by a union only after fulfilling certain essential preconditions. These include, first, the submission of a charter of demands to the Management, and second, the rejection of those demands by the Management, which would then give rise to an industrial dispute requiring conciliation before the Conciliation Officer. In the present case, the Union has admittedly not submitted any charter of demands to the Management. Consequently, the initiation of conciliation proceedings under Section 12 of the ID Act through a mere representation is ex facie illegal. The subsequent submission of a failure report and the reference of the alleged industrial dispute are therefore equally illegal and liable to be set aside. It is further argued that the High Court erred in upholding the reference by relying on the concept of an apprehended dispute, as proceedings before the Conciliation Officer cannot be treated as equivalent to negotiations between the Management and the Union over a charter of demands. In support of these contentions, reliance is placed on Sindhu Resettlement Corporation Ltd. v. Industrial Tribunal and Prabhakar v. Joint Director, Sericulture Department. In essence, the preliminary objections to the ongoing dispute resolution process are that no genuine industrial dispute exists and that the reference made to the Industrial Court is illegal and contrary to the provisions of the Industrial Disputes Act.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from M/s Premium Transmission Private Limited v. State of Maharashtra & Ors. (2026 INSC 87)]

66. According to Mr. C.U. Singh’s argument, which of the following is the first essential precondition for invoking the statutory mechanism under the Industrial Disputes Act?

A. Service of a charter of demands to the Management

B. Submission of a failure report by the Conciliation Officer

C. Filing a writ petition before the High Court

D. Direct reference to the Industrial Tribunal

Answer: A

67. The term "apprehended dispute" as used by the High Court refers to:

A. A dispute already adjudicated by the Tribunal

B. A dispute that may arise in future

C. A dispute settled by mutual agreement

D. A dispute involving criminal liability

Answer: B

68. Which of the following best describes the primary duty of a Conciliation Officer under Section 12(2)?

A. To punish employers for unfair labour practices

B. To adjudicate disputes

C. To bring about a fair and amicable settlement

D. To terminate workers

Answer: C

69. Which of the following must be included in the Conciliation Officer’s report under Section 12(4)?

1. Steps taken to ascertain facts

2. Circumstances relating to the dispute

3. Reasons for failure of settlement

Select the correct answer:

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

70. The power of reference under Section 10(1) is exercised by:

A. Labour Court

B. Industrial Tribunal

C. Conciliation Officer

D. Appropriate Government

Answer: D

XV. The learned counsel for the petitioner further contended that the impugned order granting sanction was issued in clear violation of the provisions contained in Sections 2 and 3 of the Judges (Protection) Act, 1985. Referring to these provisions, it was argued that the petitioner, while functioning as a quasi-judicial authority, was entitled to statutory protection and, therefore, no civil or criminal proceedings could have been initiated against him for acts performed in the bona fide discharge of his official duties. The learned counsel also invited the attention of the Court to Section 77 of the Indian Penal Code, submitting that the grant of sanction was contrary to the protection afforded under the said provision.

.................In the present case, the order issued by the petitioner in the course of his official duties as Executive Officer, granting a stay in respect of the same property that was already the subject matter of a pending title suit before the competent civil court, cannot by itself constitute a sufficient ground for initiating criminal proceedings against him.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from S. Kumar @ Shailesh Kumar v. State of Bihar & Anr., Criminal Miscellaneous No. 1897 of 2022]

71. Which statute provides protection to persons acting judicially or quasi-judicially in India?

A. Indian Contract Act, 1872

B. Judges (Protection) Act, 1985

C. General Clauses Act, 1897

D. Civil Procedure Code, 1908

Answer: B

72. The petitioner relied upon Sections 2 and 3 of the Judges (Protection) Act, 1985 primarily to establish that:

A. Only civil liability could arise from his actions

B. His order could not be challenged in any court

C. The civil court lacked jurisdiction

D. He was protected from proceedings for bona fide quasi-judicial acts

Answer: D

73. Which of the following best distinguishes judicial bodies from quasi-judicial bodies?

A. Quasi-judicial bodies cannot apply law

B. Judicial bodies have broader jurisdiction

C. Judicial bodies cannot hear appeals

D. Quasi-judicial bodies cannot pass orders

Answer: B

74. Which of the following principles must ordinarily be followed by quasi-judicial authorities while making decisions?

A. Natural justice

B. Cabinet responsibility

C. Parliamentary privilege

D. Executive discretion

Answer: A

75. Section 15 BNS corresponds to which provision of the Indian Penal Code?

A. Section 77 IPC

B. Section 76 IPC

C. Section 34 IPC

D. Section 79 IPC

Answer: A

XVI. Thus, it is abundantly clear that rights of persons with disabilities have to be viewed from the prism of Corporate Social Responsibility in order to protect and further such rights. True equality at the workplace can be achieved only with the right impetus given to disability rights as a facet of Corporate Social Responsibility.

Disability inclusion is a vital component of the “Social” dimension in the Environmental, Social and Governance (ESG) framework. In its 2024 guide on "Putting the ‘I’ in ESG: Inclusion of Persons with Disabilities as Strategic Advantage of Sustainability Practices for Corporates and Investors", the ILO Global Business and Disability Network urged "companies and investors to view disability inclusion not just as a compliance issue, but as a strategic advantage that enhances business performance, resilience, and societal impact."

[This extract is taken from Sujata Bora v. Coal India Limited & Others, 2026 INSC 53]

76. Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) in India is primarily governed by which provision?

A. Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013

B. Section 149 of the Companies Act, 2013

C. Section 166 of the Companies Act, 2013

D. Section 173 of the Companies Act, 2013

Answer: A

77. CSR expenditure under the Companies Act, 2013 must be at least:

A. 1% of average net profits

B. 2% of average net profits

C. 3% of average net profits

D. 5% of net profits

Answer: B

78. Disability inclusion is primarily associated with which component of ESG?

A. Environmental

B. Social

C. Governance

D. Financial

Answer: B

79. Disability inclusion under CSR primarily promotes:

A. Tax avoidance

B. Profit maximisation

C. Workplace equality

D. Monopoly power

Answer: C

80. Which committee recommends CSR activities to the Board?

A. Audit Committee

B. Nomination Committee

C. Risk Committee

D. CSR Committee

Answer: D

XVII. Article 265 of the Constitution of India lays down that no tax can be levied or collected except with the authority of law. When this constitutional provision is read along with Entry 57 of List II of the Seventh Schedule, it becomes evident that the State Legislature is empowered to impose taxes only on vehicles that are fit or suitable for use on roads, which implicitly includes motor vehicles intended for road use.

Entry 57 of List II authorises the State to levy taxes on vehicles suitable for road use. However, Section 3 of the Gujarat Tax Act provides for the imposition and collection of tax on all motor vehicles used or kept for use within the State, without expressly limiting the levy to vehicles suitable for use on roads. Due to the absence of this crucial qualification, vehicles described by the appellants as off-road vehicles have also been brought within the scope of taxation.

The Gujarat Tax Act cannot extend beyond the legislative competence granted under Entry 57 of List II of the Seventh Schedule. Therefore, the State cannot impose tax on vehicles that are not suitable for use on roads, as such taxation would fall outside the constitutional limits of legislative power.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Ultratech Cement Ltd. v. State of Gujarat & Ors. (2026 INSC 43)]

81. Entry 57 of List II of the Seventh Schedule authorises States to levy tax on:

A. All vehicles manufactured in India

B. Vehicles suitable for use on roads

C. Only commercial vehicles

D. All movable property

Answer: B

82. Section 3 of the Gujarat Motor Vehicles Tax Act authorises taxation on:

A. Only commercial vehicles

B. Only road transport vehicles

C. Motor vehicles used or kept for use in the State

D. Vehicles registered in Gujarat only

Answer: C

83. A tax law beyond the scope of Entry 57 would be:

A. Procedurally irregular

B. Automatically voidable

C. Administratively invalid

D. Ultra vires the Constitution

Answer: D

84. GST is an example of:

A. Indirect tax

B. Direct tax

C. Local tax

D. Wealth tax

Answer: A

85. Which of the following is NOT a tax?

A. Income tax

B. GST

C. Court fee

D. Customs duty

Answer: C

XVIII. In administrative law, the present situation represents a classic example of a colourable exercise of delegated power, where an authority attempts to achieve indirectly what it lacks the legal competence to accomplish directly. A delegate entrusted with the power to grant exemptions cannot transform that authority into a power to impose or expand taxation. The power to exempt and the power to tax operate on fundamentally different constitutional bases. The essential legislative function of imposing a tax or duty lies with the legislature and must be expressly provided through a valid charging provision. The executive cannot, through subordinate legislation or fiscal notifications, widen the scope of taxation under the guise of modifying or tailoring exemptions.

It is therefore necessary to reaffirm that delegated legislation remains subject to judicial review, not only on the ground of substantive unreasonableness but also with respect to the purpose for which the power is exercised. When a delegated authority departs from the dominant purpose underlying the grant of power and employs it to achieve an objective never contemplated by the parent statute, such action becomes ultra vires. Fiscal notifications enjoy no special immunity from judicial scrutiny; they stand on the same footing as any other form of subordinate legislation and must conform to the limits prescribed by the enabling statute and the Constitution.

[Extracted, with edits and revision, from the judgment in Adani Power Ltd. & Anr. v. Union of India & Ors., 2026 INSC 1]

86. Which of the following best explains why exemption power cannot be treated as taxation power?

A. Exemption power is judicial in nature

B. Exemption power belongs to courts

C. Taxation requires a legislative charging provision

D. Exemption power applies only to indirect taxes

Answer: C

87. Which of the following best describes the concept of ultra vires delegated legislation?

A. Delegated legislation passed by Parliament

B. Delegated legislation beyond the authority of the parent statute

C. Delegated legislation approved by courts

D. Delegated legislation passed during emergency

Answer: B

88. Which of the following is an essential legislative function that cannot ordinarily be delegated?

A. Fixing procedural details

B. Making rules

C. Issuing notifications

D. Determining legislative policy

Answer: D

89. Which court has wider powers of judicial review?

A. High Court under Article 226

B. Tribunal

C. District Court

D. Consumer Forum

Answer: A

90. "Irrationality" in judicial review is associated with:

A. Doctrine of severability

B. Wednesbury principle

C. Doctrine of eclipse

D. Doctrine of pleasure

Answer: B

XIX. The increasing recognition of biodiversity as both an ecological necessity and a valuable economic resource led to the adoption of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) at the Rio Earth Summit in 1992. The Convention, with its core objectives of biodiversity conservation, sustainable utilisation of biological resources, and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their use, marked a major development in international environmental law. As a megadiverse country with vast biological wealth, India became a party to the CBD and enacted the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 to implement its international commitments at the domestic level.

Although the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 gives legislative effect to India’s obligations under the CBD, the two frameworks are not identical. The Indian statute incorporates features shaped by the country’s social and economic conditions, its rich tradition of indigenous knowledge, and its decentralised governance structure. A comparative examination reveals areas of substantial overlap alongside important distinctions in scope, institutional design, and implementation mechanisms.

The adoption of the CBD was preceded by a gradual evolution in global environmental awareness, during which biodiversity protection was addressed through scattered legal instruments that typically focused on endangered species or specific habitats. The CBD introduced a comprehensive and integrated framework by acknowledging biodiversity at the levels of genes, species, and ecosystems, while simultaneously emphasising the connection between conservation and sustainable development.

[Extracted from Arun, “Comparative Study of India’s Biological Diversity Act, 2002 and the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD): Convergences and Divergences,” De Facto Law Journal, Vol. 1, Issue 1, 2025, pp. 2–3.]

91. The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was adopted at which international event?

A. Rio Earth Summit, 1992

B. Kyoto Conference, 1997

C. Stockholm Conference, 1972

D. Paris Climate Conference, 2015

Answer: A

92. Which of the following is NOT a core objective of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD)?

A. Conservation of biodiversity

B. Sustainable use of biological resources

C. Equitable sharing of benefits

D. Industrial exploitation of natural resources

Answer: D

93. India enacted the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 primarily to:

A. Replace international environmental agreements

B. Implement obligations under the CBD

C. Promote industrial agriculture

D. Regulate pollution control boards

Answer: B

94. The Convention on Biological Diversity introduced a framework recognising biodiversity at which levels?

A. Species and ecosystems only

B. Genes and species only

C. Genes, species, and ecosystems

D. Ecosystems and climate only

Answer: C

95. Assertion (A): India enacted the Biological Diversity Act, 2002 after becoming a party to the CBD.

Reason (R): The Act was intended to implement India’s international commitments under the CBD.

A. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation

B. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation

C. A is correct but R is incorrect

D. A is incorrect but R is correct

Answer: A

XX. In the present appeal, neither liability nor negligence is disputed. The appeal is confined to the limited issue that the learned Tribunal failed to consider the medical expenses reflected in Exhibits 71 and 72.

After hearing the parties and examining the record, it appears that the Tribunal acknowledged that the deceased was treated at Sterling Hospital, Ahmedabad. As per the expenditure statement at Exhibit 70, a total amount of ₹16,27,865 was incurred, out of which ₹1,00,000 was reimbursed through medical insurance and ₹10,86,415 was paid by Shantaben Atmaramdas Patel Charitable Trust. The Tribunal therefore considered only the remaining ₹4,41,450 as expenses borne by the claimants, but it failed to take into account the additional documents produced at Exhibits 71 and 72.

Extracted with edits and revisions from LH of Deceased Nileshbhai Mahendrabhai Vasant v. Jigar Babubhai Shah & Anr., R/First Appeal No. 1743 of 2022]

96. The essential elements of negligence include:

1. Duty of care

2. Breach of duty

3. Damage

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

97. Which situation illustrates negligence?

A. Intentional assault

B. Careless driving causing accident

C. Lawful self-defence

D. Natural disaster

Answer: B

98. For the defence of Volenti Non Fit Injuria to succeed, the plaintiff must:

A. Be careless

B. Be aware of the risk and consent to it

C. Suffer serious injury

D. Be negligent

Answer: B

99. The Tribunal considered medical expenses actually borne by claimants amounting to:

A. ₹16,27,865

B. ₹10,86,415

C. ₹4,41,450

D. ₹1,00,000

Answer: C

100. The documents that were allegedly ignored by the Tribunal were:

A. Exhibits 60 and 61

B. Exhibits 65 and 66

C. Exhibits 70 and 71

D. Exhibits 71 and 72

Answer: D

XXI. The petitioner has approached this Court challenging the order dated 10.10.2025 passed by the I Additional Chief Judicial Magistrate, whereby the application filed under Sections 451 and 457 of the Code of Criminal Procedure seeking release of the passport and mobile phone seized in P.F. Nos. 24/2025 and 23/2025 respectively in C.C. No. 23988/2025 was dismissed. The said order was affirmed by the LII Additional City Civil and Sessions Judge, Bengaluru, in Criminal Revision Petition No. 534/2025 by order dated 16.12.2025.

The Court heard Sri R. Shashidhara, learned counsel for the petitioner, Sri K. Nageshwarappa, learned High Court Government Pleader for respondent No. 1, and Sri H. Shanthi Bhushan, learned Deputy Solicitor General of India for respondent No. 3.

The petitioner was issued a passport on 11.04.2014, which remained valid up to 10.04.2024. During this period, the petitioner became involved in a criminal case arising out of the death of his mother. Initially, the police registered an unnatural death report, but upon further investigation, the petitioner, his father, and his wife were arrayed as accused Nos. 1, 2 and 3 for offences punishable under Sections 302, 201, 120B and 182 read with Section 34 of the Indian Penal Code. The case was committed to the Court of Sessions and is presently pending trial in S.C. No. 28 of 2017.

101. The petitioner filed an application seeking release of seized passport and mobile phone under which provisions?

A. Sections 154 and 161 CrPC

B. Sections 451 and 457 CrPC

C. Sections 167 and 173 CrPC

D. Sections 190 and 204 CrPC

Answer: B

102. Punishment for murder under both Section 302 IPC and Section 103 BNS includes:

A. Fine only

B. Imprisonment up to 10 years

C. Death or imprisonment for life and fine

D. Imprisonment up to 7 years

Answer: C

103. Under the CrPC/BNSS, a Court of Session is established by:

A. State Government

B. High Court

C. Central Government

D. Supreme Court

Answer: A

104. The statement “When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all…” refers to:

A. Criminal conspiracy

B. Common intention

C. Unlawful assembly

D. Negligence

Answer: B

105. Section 120B of the Indian Penal Code (IPC), which provides punishment for criminal conspiracy, corresponds to which provision of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?

A. Section 3(5) BNS

B. Section 52 BNS

C. Section 103 BNS

D. Section 61 BNS

Answer: D

XXII. By referring to the observations of the Supreme Court in Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Administration, the Court reiterated that a woman’s right to make reproductive choices forms an essential part of personal liberty under Article 21 of the Constitution of India, which includes the rights to privacy, dignity, and bodily autonomy.

Taking into account the legislative intent behind the statute and adopting a purposive interpretation of Rule 3-B read with Section 3(2)(b) of the Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act, 1971, the Supreme Court in X v. Principal Secretary, Health and Family Welfare Department, Government of NCT of Delhi observed that the provisions permitting termination of pregnancy between twenty and twenty-four weeks are meant to address pregnancies that become unwanted due to changes in a woman’s material circumstances.

The Court held that there is no reasonable basis to restrict the benefit of Rule 3-B solely to married women. Excluding unmarried or single women from its scope would amount to discrimination and would violate Article 14 of the Constitution, as the provision must be interpreted to extend equally to all women facing similar circumstances.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from ABC v. State of Maharashtra & Anr., 2026:BHC-AS:6245-DB]

106. A woman's right to reproductive choice includes the right to:

A. Property ownership

B. Bodily integrity and privacy

C. Free legal aid

D. Political participation

Answer: B

107. The Supreme Court expanded the scope of Rule 3-B to include:

A. Only divorced women

B. Only widows

C. Only married women

D. Unmarried and single women

Answer: D

108. The right to dignity in reproductive decisions implies:

A. State control over pregnancy

B. Mandatory childbirth

C. Freedom from forced pregnancy

D. Compulsory sterilisation

Answer: C

109. The paragraph referring to reproductive choice as part of personal liberty relies on which case?

A. Suchita Srivastava v. Chandigarh Administration

B. Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India

C. K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India

D. Joseph Shine v. Union of India

Answer: A

110. The Supreme Court held that termination of pregnancy between twenty and twenty-four weeks is permitted primarily due to:

A. Economic development

B. Medical negligence

C. Change in material circumstances of the woman

D. Court approval

Answer: C

XXIII. Consent represents an essential means through which patient autonomy is exercised in medical decision-making. However, the existence of consent does not entitle a patient to insist upon any particular treatment, especially where the proposed procedure lacks scientific validation, is ethically questionable, or falls outside accepted standards of medical practice. Patient autonomy, therefore, cannot be interpreted as a right to undergo unproven or medically unsound clinical interventions.

In the medical context, consent must be understood as informed authorisation, requiring proper disclosure of the nature of the treatment, the procedure involved, its objectives, expected benefits, possible side effects, available alternatives, significant risks, and the consequences of refusing treatment. It is thus distinct from a mere expression of preference or desire. While choice reflects what a patient or their parents, guardians, or caregivers may wish to pursue, consent requires that such choice be supported by sufficient and reliable information. In the absence of adequate information, a patient's preference cannot develop into legally valid consent.

The Court has already concluded that the therapeutic use of stem cells in cases of Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) cannot presently be offered as a medical service. Until further scientific research establishes its safety and efficacy as a recognised form of treatment, such procedures cannot be regarded as part of acceptable medical practice.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Yash Charitable Trust & Ors. v. Union of India & Ors., 2026 INSC 96]

111. According to the passage, consent in medical treatment primarily represents:

A. A patient’s unrestricted freedom to choose treatment

B. A doctor’s authority to decide treatment

C. A mode of exercising patient autonomy

D. A legal formality without substantive meaning

Answer: C

112. Which of the following best distinguishes "choice" from "consent" according to the passage?

A. Choice requires legal approval, consent does not

B. Consent requires adequate information, choice reflects preference

C. Choice is binding, consent is not

D. Consent applies only to emergency treatment

Answer: B

113. The therapeutic use of stem cells in Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD) cannot be offered because:

A. It lacks scientific validation

B. It is prohibited by statute

C. It is too expensive

D. Patients do not demand it

Answer: A

114. The wishes of parents or guardians in medical decisions are described in the passage as:

A. Binding consent

B. Legal obligation

C. Expression of choice

D. Medical advice

Answer: C

115. If a clinical intervention is medically unsound, a patient’s consent would be:

A. Automatically valid

B. Sufficient justification

C. Legally binding

D. Insufficient to justify treatment

Answer: D

XXIV. Section 21 of the Act, as stated earlier, is only a defining section which defines the “dependants” of the deceased Hindu. One of the relatives of the deceased Hindu who has been defined as a dependant is clearly “any widow of his son” meaning thereby a widow of the deceased son of the Hindu is a dependant irrespective of the time she becomes a widow.

The above definition is quite clear and unambiguous. It is not open for any other meaning except that a “widow of the son” of the deceased is a dependant. In view of such a clear definition, it is not open for anyone to infer and assign any other meaning to the said definition so as to say that only a widow of the predeceased son of a Hindu would be covered by the said definition.

[Extracted from Kanchana Rai v. Geeta Sharma & Ors., (Arising out of SLP(C) Nos. 1544-1545 of 2026)]

116. Under the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act, the term “dependant” is defined in:

A. Section 18

B. Section 19

C. Section 21

D. Section 22

Answer: C

117. Under Hindu law, the widow of a son is entitled to:

A. Coparcenary property automatically

B. Maintenance as a dependant

C. Adoption rights automatically

D. Testamentary succession only

Answer: B

118. The phrase “any widow of his son” implies:

A. Limited inclusion

B. Conditional inclusion

C. Temporary inclusion

D. Broad inclusion

Answer: D

119. Which ceremony is generally essential for a valid Hindu marriage?

A. Nikah

B. Saptapadi

C. Baptism

D. Court oath

Answer: B

120. Under Hindu law, Stridhan belongs to:

A. Husband

B. Joint family

C. Wife exclusively

D. Father

Answer: C

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