Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Examination 2014 Solved Paper | Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

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Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Examination

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Chhattisgarh Judiciary Prelims Paper

2014

1. ‘A’ intentionally causes ‘B’ death partly by illegally omitting to give B food and partly by beating. A has committed the offence of:

  1. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
  2. Murder
  3. Grievous hurt
  4. Hurt.

Answer: (b)

2. Act done in pursuant of order of court, if done in good faith is covered under General Exception which of the following sections of I.P.C.:

  1. Section 76
  2. Section 77
  3. Section 78
  4. Section 79.

Answer: (c)

3. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’. B refuses to do so. A is guilty of:

  1. Murder
  2. Culpable homicide
  3. Abetment of murder
  4. No offence.

Answer: (c)

4. In I.P.C., punishment for rioting is provided under:

  1. Section 145
  2. Section 146
  3. Section 147
  4. Section 148.

Answer: (c)

5. ‘A’, being legally bound to appeal before Raipur District Judge as a witness in obedience to a summons issued by court, intentionally omits to appeal’. A is guilty under which of the following provisions of I.P.C.:

  1. Section 173AA
  2. Section 174
  3. Section 175
  4. Section 176.

Answer: (b)

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6. ‘A’, knowing that ‘B’ has murdered ‘C’ assists ‘B’ to hide the body with intention of screening ‘B’ from punishment. A is liable for punishment of:

  1. Seven years imprisonment and fine
  2. Seven years imprisonment
  3. Five years imprisonment
  4. Five years imprisonment and fine.

Answer: (a)

7. Punishment for disclosure of identity of victim of rape is provided under which of the following provisions of I.P.C.:

  1. Section 225
  2. Section 225 A
  3. Section 226
  4. Section 228 A.

Answer: (d)

8. Offences against human body are provided under which of the following chapters of I.P.C.:

  1. Chapter XI
  2. Chapter XII
  3. Chapter XIII
  4. Chapter XVI.

Answer: (d)

9. ‘A’, a police officer torture: ‘B’ to induce ‘B’ to confess that he has committed a crime. A is guilty under which of the following provisions of I.P.C.:

  1. Section 327
  2. Section 328
  3. Section 129
  4. Section 330.

Answer: (d)

10. ‘A’, signs his own name to a document, intending that the document was signed by another person of the same name, which of the offences defined in I.P.C. is committed by ‘A’:

  1. Section 461
  2. Section 464
  3. No offence
  4. Section 491.

Answer: (b)

11. List of cognizable and Non cognizable offences is provided under ______ of Cr.P.C.:

  1. Section 106
  2. Section 110
  3. Schedule I
  4. Schedule II.

Answer: (c)

12. Section 6 of Cr.P.C. provides:

  1. Territorial jurisdiction
  2. Classes of Criminal courts
  3. Jurisdiction of criminal courts
  4. Power of magistrate.

Answer: (b)

13. Plea bargaining is provided under which part of the Cr.P.C.:

  1. Chapter XIX
  2. Chapter XX
  3. Chapter XX A
  4. Chapter XXI A.

Answer: (d)

14. Power to order execution of bond for good behaviour under Section 10(5) of Cr. P.C. is vested in:

  1. Only judicial magistrate
  2. Only police commissioner
  3. Only executive magistrate
  4. None of these.

Answer: Question Deleted

15. Which Section of Cr.P.C. defines cognizable offence?

  1. Section 2 (a)
  2. Section 2 (b)
  3. Section 2 (c)
  4. Section 2 (d).

Answer: (c)

16. Under ‘Section 41C’ of Cr. P.C. State Government shall establish police control room:

  1. Only at district level
  2. Only at state level
  3. Only at commissionery level
  4. At state and district level.

Answer: (d)

17. Under which provision an arrested person has right to meet an advocate of his choice during interrogation:

  1. Only at district level
  2. Only at state level
  3. Only at commissionery level
  4. At state and district level.

Answer: (d)

18. Under Section 102 of Cr.P.C. who is authorised to seize stolen property?

  1. Police officer
  2. Judicial magistrate
  3. Executive magistrate
  4. Special magistrate.

Answer: (a)

19. Which provision of Cr.P.C. deals with power of revision of High court?

  1. Section 393
  2. Section 399
  3. Section 400
  4. Section 401.

Answer: (d)

20. Under Section 468 of Cr.P.C. for an offence punishable with imprisonment exceeding one year but not exceeding three years, the limited period for taking cognizance is:

  1. One year
  2. Two years
  3. Three years
  4. Five years.

Answer: (c)

21. Private alienation of property after attachment is:

  1. Legal
  2. Irregular
  3. Void
  4. Voidable.

Answer: (c)

22. Section 75 of C.P.C. deals with:

  1. Power to issue summons
  2. Power to issue commissions
  3. Right to appeal
  4. Res judicata.

Answer: (b)

23. In C.P.C., provision for out of court settlement of suits is made under:

  1. Section 75
  2. Section 16
  3. Section 88
  4. Section 89.

Answer: (d)

24. Essential condition provided under section 100 (1) of C.P.C. for preferring second appeal is:

  1. Substantial question of fact
  2. Substantial question of law
  3. Error regarding jurisdiction
  4. Subject matter of public importance.

Answer: (b)

25. If court is satisfied that a case pending before it involves a question as to validity of any Act, the Court should:

  1. Decide the validity of Act
  2. Refer the matter to High Court
  3. High Court should exercise power of revision
  4. Refer to Supreme Court for advice.

Answer: (b)

26. Who of the followings is exempted from personal appearance before court?

  1. Ministers of Union
  2. Ministers of States
  3. Judges of High court
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

27. Period of operation of caveat under C.P.C. is:

  1. Fifteen days
  2. Sixteen days
  3. Ninety days
  4. Four months.

Answer: (c)

28. Can a document which is not produced with the plaint and which ought to have been produced by the plaintiff, be received in evidence on his behalf?

  1. No
  2. Yes
  3. Only with leave of court
  4. Only before framing of issues.

Answer: (c)

29. What the court can do when neither party appeal’s when it is called for hearing?

  1. Ex–parte order
  2. Refer for arbitration
  3. Refer for conciliation
  4. Dismissal of suit.

Answer: (d)

30. What is the maximum time granted to court by C.P.C. to draw up a decree after pronouncing judgment?

  1. 15 days
  2. 30 days
  3. 45 days
  4. 50 days.

Answer: (a)

31. Under Section 3 of Indian Evidence Act ‘Court’ does not include:

  1. Judge
  2. Magistrate
  3. Arbitrator
  4. District Judge.

Answer: (c)

32. As per section 1 of Indian Evidence Act, the Act came into force on:

  1. March 15, 1872
  2. September 1, 1872
  3. September 15, 1872
  4. October 1, 1872.

Answer: (b)

33. Indian Evidence Act consists of:

  1. 11 Chapters 157 Sections
  2. 11 Chapters 2 Schedules
  3. 11 Chapters 157 Sections
  4. 156 Sections 3 Schedules.

Answer: (a)

34. In Indian Evidence Act, the principle of Res gestae is codified under:

  1. Section 4
  2. Section 5
  3. Section 6
  4. Section 7.

Answer: (c)

35. ‘A’ is tried for murder of ‘B’ by administering Potassium Cyanide. The fact that Alias purchased potassium cyanide just before the murder of B is relevant under:

  1. Section 7
  2. Section 8
  3. Section 9
  4. Section 10.

Answer: (b)

36. In which section of Indian Evidence Act, those conditions are mentioned when facts not otherwise relevant, are relevant:

  1. Section 11
  2. Section 12
  3. Section 13
  4. Section 14.

Answer: (a)

37. In Evidence Act confession is defined under:

  1. Section 19
  2. Section 20
  3. Section 21
  4. None of these.

Answer: (d)

38. What is evidentiary value of admission?

  1. Unimportant
  2. Conclusive proof
  3. As estoppels
  4. Binding.

Answer: (c)

39. In which chapter of Indian Evidence Act provisions regarding Burden of proof are codified:

  1. Chapter IV
  2. Chapter V
  3. Chapter VI
  4. Chapter VII.

Answer: (d)

40. Evidence given by dumb witness according to section 119, shall be treated to be:

  1. Oral Evidence
  2. Documentary Evidence
  3. Hearsay Evidence
  4. Circumstantial Evidence.

Answer: (a)

41. In Preamble of Constitution, word socialist was added by:

  1. Section 2 of 42nd Amendment Act
  2. Section 3 of 42nd Amendment Act
  3. Section 4 of 42nd Amendment Act
  4. Section 5 of 42nd Amendment Act.

Answer: (a)

42. Which of the following provisions empower president to appoint Prime Minister?

  1. Article 74
  2. Article 75
  3. Article 16
  4. Article 77.

Answer: (b)

43. A Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha, if no action is taken within:

  1. Three weeks
  2. Fourteen days
  3. Four weeks
  4. Seventeen days.

Answer: (b)

44. Chief Election Commissioner of India may be removed by:

  1. Resolution of cabinet by two third majority
  2. Resolution of both houses
  3. On recommendation of Chief Justice of India
  4. None of these.

Answer: (d)

45. The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:

  1. November 25, 1949
  2. November 29, 1949
  3. November 26, 1949
  4. November 27, 1949.

Answer: (c)

46. In which of the following cases Supreme Court has ruled by majority that parliament cannot amend Fundamental Rights exercising its power under Art. 365:

  1. Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
  2. Sajjan Singh case
  3. Golaknath v. State of Punjab
  4. Keshavanand Bharati case.

Answer: (c)

47. First Women Judge to be appointed to Supreme Court was:

  1. Fatima Biwi
  2. Gyan Sudha Mishra
  3. Leela Seth
  4. Ram Jethmalani.

Answer: (a)

48. What is the tenure of Chief Election Commissioner of India?

  1. Five years
  2. 62 years of age
  3. Five years or 62 years of age whichever is earlier
  4. Six years or 65 years of age whichever is the earlier.

Answer: (d)

49. Which of the constitutional provisions provides personal immunity to the president of India for his official act from answerability to any court?

  1. Article 362
  2. Article 363
  3. Article 364
  4. Article 361.

Answer: (d)

50. After declaration of financial emergency what is the maximum period of its operation without approval of President?

  1. Four months
  2. Three months
  3. Two months
  4. One month.

Answer: Question Deleted

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51. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. Every contract is an agreement but every agreement is not a contract
  2. The test of contractual intention should be objective and not subjective
  3. Acceptance is complete when it is communicated to the offeror
  4. The party inviting tender is bound to accept the tender.

Answer: (d)

52. Which provision of Indian Contract Act provides definition of free consent?

  1. Section 13
  2. Section 14
  3. Section 10
  4. Section 11.

Answer: (b)

53. Agreements, the meaning of which is not certain are:

  1. Valid
  2. Voidable
  3. Void
  4. Effective.

Answer: (c)

54. In Indian Contract Act, Contingent contract is defined under:

  1. Section 30
  2. Section 31
  3. Section 34
  4. Section 36.

Answer: (b)

55. Section 40 of Indian Contract Act deals with:

  1. About persons by whom promise is to be performed
  2. About compensation on non performance of promise
  3. About voidability of agreement
  4. About legality of contract.

Answer: (a)

56. In Indian Contract Act, certain relations resembling with contract are provided under:

  1. Chapter IV
  2. Chapter V
  3. Chapter VI
  4. Chapter VII.

Answer: (b)

57. In Indian contract Act, the responsibility of finder of goods is provided under:

  1. Section 68
  2. Section 69
  3. Section 70
  4. Section 71.

Answer: (d)

58. Transfer of property Act 1882, came into force on:

  1. March 1,1882
  2. April 1, 1882
  3. May 1, 1882
  4. None of these.

Answer: (d)

59. In transfer of property Act, conditions of oral transfer are provided under:

  1. Section 8
  2. Section 9
  3. Section 10
  4. Section 11.

Answer: (b)

60. Section 58 of transfer of property Act defines:

  1. Mortgagor
  2. Mortgage
  3. Mortgage money
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

61. In transfer of property Act, rights and liabilities of mortgagee is provided under:

  1. Section 55 to 57
  2. Section 61 to 65
  3. Section 67 to 77
  4. Section 78.

Answer: (c)

62. In transfer of property Act, rights of seller and buyer are provided under:

  1. Section 60 to 64
  2. Section 67 to 77
  3. Section 78 to 80
  4. Section 55.

Answer: (d)

63. In transfer of property Act, effect of holding over of lease is provided under:

  1. Section 114A
  2. Section 115
  3. Section 116
  4. Section 117.

Answer: (c)

64. In transfer of property Act, provision regarding onerous gift is provided:

  1. Section 124
  2. Section 125
  3. Section 126
  4. Section 127.

Answer: (d)

65. Specific Relief Act 1963, came into operation on:

  1. December 14, 1963
  2. January 1, 1964
  3. February 1, 1964
  4. March 1, 1964.

Answer: (d)

66. Section 44 of Specific Relief Act is related with:

  1. Permanent injunction
  2. Negative agreement
  3. Compensation
  4. Repeal.

Answer: (d)

67. In which section of Specific Relief Act 1963, provision regarding perpetual injunction has been made?

  1. Section 34
  2. Section 38
  3. Section 39
  4. Section 44.

Answer: (b)

68. Provision regarding grant of mandatory injunction has been made under which of the following sections of Specific Relief Act 1963:

  1. Section 31
  2. Section 35
  3. Section 39
  4. Section 43.

Answer: (c)

69. Section 42 of Specific Relief Act 1963 provides for:

  1. Injunction to perform negative agreements
  2. Injunction when refused
  3. Damages in lieu of injunction
  4. Mandatory injunctions.

Answer: (a)

70. Computation of limitation time, for date used in an instrument, will be calculated according to which Calendar?

  1. Hindu Calendar
  2. Islamic Calendar
  3. English Calendar
  4. Gregorian Calendar.

Answer: (d)

71. For a suit for which no limitation period is provided the period of limitation will be:

  1. Three years
  2. Five years
  3. Twelve years
  4. Thirty years.

Answer: (a)

72. In which section of Indian limitation Act, time limit is provided for acquiring easement by way of prescription?

  1. Section 24
  2. Section 25
  3. Section 26
  4. Section 27.

Answer: (b)

73. In which section of Indian limitation Act, effect of death before accrual of right to sue is provided?

  1. Section 16
  2. Section 18
  3. Section 19
  4. Section 20.

Answer: (a)

74. Grounds of legal disability provided under Section 6 of limitation Act are:

  1. Minority
  2. Insanity
  3. Idiocy
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

75. Under Registration Act, Inspector General of Registration is appointed by:

  1. President
  2. President on advice of Central Govt
  3. President on recommendation of Governor
  4. State Government.

Answer: (d)

76. When the office of Registrar is temporarily vacant, who has power to appoint a person to act as Registrar till permanent arrangement is made?

  1. Governor
  2. Governor on advice of State Government
  3. Inspector General of Registration
  4. District Judge.

Answer: (c)

77. Section 16A of Registration Act was inserted in:

  1. Year 2001
  2. Year 1950
  3. Year 1939
  4. Year 1937.

Answer: (a)

78. What is provided under Section 17 of Registration Act?

  1. Storage of documents
  2. Validation of the use of computers
  3. Documents of which registration is compulsory
  4. Documents of which registration is optional.

Answer: (c)

79. In Registration Act, provision of re-registration of certain documents is made under:

  1. Section 22
  2. Section 23
  3. Section 23A
  4. Section 22A.

Answer: (c)

80. Under Negotiable Instruments Act, promissory note can be drawn for minimum period of:

  1. Thirty days
  2. Six months
  3. One year
  4. No time limit is fixed.

Answer: (d)

81. Negotiable instrument is defined under:

  1. Section 25 of Reserve Bank of India Act
  2. Section 13 of Banking regulation Act
  3. Section 13 of negotiable instrument Act
  4. Section 3 of negotiable instrument Act.

Answer: (c)

82. Under Negotiable instruments Act, the “Bill of Exchange” is defined under:

  1. Section 5
  2. Section 10
  3. Section 12
  4. Section 13.

Answer: (a)

83. Instruction of “Stop Payment” remains valid for:

  1. Three months
  2. One year
  3. Two years
  4. None of these.

Answer: (d)

84. In which section of negotiable instrument Act, “Public holiday” is explained?

  1. Section 21
  2. Section 22
  3. Section 24
  4. Section 25.

Answer: (d)

85. Court fees Act came into force on:

  1. March 1, 1870
  2. March 11, 1870
  3. April 1, 1870
  4. April 11, 1870.

Answer: (c)

86. In which section of court fees Act provision for refund of fees on application for review of judgment is provided?

  1. Section 11
  2. Section 12
  3. Section 13
  4. Section 14.

Answer: (d)

87. Section 19 of court fees Art is related with:

  1. Documents exempted from court fees
  2. Determination of court fees in appeals
  3. Determination of court fees in revision
  4. Determination of court fees in pauper’s suits.

Answer: (a)

88. Chapter V of court fees Act is related to:

  1. Mode of levying fees
  2. Miscellaneous provisions
  3. Provisions related with probates
  4. Interpretation clause.

Answer: (a)

89. Chhattisgarh Rent control Act 2011 came into force on:

  1. May 23, 2011
  2. June 1, 2011
  3. July 1, 2012
  4. November 6, 2012.

Answer: (d)

90. In Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act 2011, powers of Rent Control Tribunal are provided under:

  1. Section 8
  2. Section 7
  3. Section 6
  4. Section 5.

Answer: (a)

91. Schedule 1 of Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act is related with:

  1. Appointment of Rent Controller
  2. Rights of Tenants
  3. Procedure of determination of rent
  4. Establishment of Tribunal.

Answer: (b)

92. In Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act rights of landlord are provided under:

  1. Schedule 1
  2. Schedule 2
  3. Schedule 5
  4. Schedule 6.

Answer: (b)

93. Section 257 of Land Revenue Code is related with:

  1. Establishment of Gram Sabha
  2. Establishment of Revenue Board
  3. Exclusive jurisdiction of revenue authorities
  4. Power of revision of District Judge.

Answer: (c)

94. In Chhattisgarh Land revenue code 1959 schedule IV was inserted by:

  1. Chhattisgarh Land revenue code amendment Act 2011
  2. Chhattisgarh Land revenue code amendment Act 2012
  3. Chhattisgarh amendment Act 2000
  4. Chhattisgarh Land revenue code amendment Act 2001.

Answer: (b)

95. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act power to declare a drink as ‘country liquor’ is vested in:

  1. Excise commissioner
  2. Excise Minister
  3. Governor
  4. State Government.

Answer: (d)

96. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act power to declare a drink as ‘foreign liquor’ is vested in:

  1. Central Government
  2. State Government
  3. Excise Commissioner
  4. President.

Answer: (b)

97. Whose prior permission is essential for granting license to sale liquor in the cantonment?

  1. President
  2. Central Government
  3. Commanding Officer
  4. Defense Secretary.

Answer: (c)

98. Under Chhattisgarh Excise Act, liquor cannot be sold to a person below what year of age?

  1. 18 years
  2. 21 years
  3. 16 years
  4. 15 years.

Answer: (b)

99. Power to issue order for closing liquor shop for preservation of public peace is vested in:

  1. Excise Commissioner
  2. Superintendent of Police
  3. Excise officer
  4. District Magistrate.

Answer: (d)

100. First offence of Bhang cultivation is punishable with:

  1. Imprisonment of 6 months to 2 years and fine of Rs. 10000/- to 50000/-
  2. Imprisonment up to 2 years and fine up to Rs. 50000/-
  3. Imprisonment up to 6 months or fine of Rs. 2000/- or both
  4. Fine up to Rs. One Lakh.

Answer: (a)

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