CLAT PG 2017 Solved Paper | CLAT PG Entrance Solved Papers PDF

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CLAT PG QUESTION PAPER 2017 | Click Here to Download PDF

CLAT PG QUESTION PAPER

2017

No. of questions- 150

1. In which of the following decision in the Supreme Court of India heard the matter at midnight?

  1. Jagdish Bhullar v. State of Punjab
  2. State of Maharashtra v. Anwar Ali
  3. Ramprakash v. State of U.P
  4. Yaqub Abdul Razak Memon v. State of Maharashtra.

Answer: (d)

2. The appointment of Comptroller and Auditor General of India under Article 148 is made by the:

  1. President of India
  2. Prime Minister of India
  3. Finance Minister of India
  4. Chief Justice of India.

Answer: (a)

3. The House of Parliament may declare the seat of a member of either House of Parliament as vacant if he/she remains absent without permission of the House from all meetings for a period of:

  1. 50 days
  2. 60 days
  3. 80 days
  4. 100 days.

Answer: (b)

4. By which amendment, the word ‘Oriya’ was replaced by ‘Odia’ in the Eighth Schedule?

  1. The Constitution (Ninety-Third Amendment) Act, 2005
  2. The Constitution (Ninety Sixth Amendment) Act, 2011
  3. The Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act, 2011
  4. The Constitution (Ninety Eighth Amendment) Act, 2012.

Answer: (b)

5. Article 280 of the Constitution of India deals with:

  1. Election Commission of India
  2. Union Public Service Commission
  3. Comptroller and Auditor General
  4. Finance Commission.

Answer: (d)

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6. Part IX-B of the Constitution of India dealing with the ‘Co-operative Societies’ was inserted by:

  1. The Constitution (Ninety Third Amendment) Act, 2005
  2. The Constitution (Ninety Fifth Amendment Act), Act 2019
  3. The Constitution (Ninety Seventh Amendment) Act, 2011
  4. The Constitution (Ninety Eighth Amendment) Act, 2012.

Answer: (c)

7. Article 19(1) (c) of the Constitution of India guarantees freedom:

  1. To form associations or unions
  2. To form association
  3. To form trade unions
  4. To form associations or union cooperative societies.

Answer: (d)

8. Protection from double jeopardy means:

  1. No person shall be prosecuted for the same offence more than once
  2. No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
  3. No person shall be punished for the same offence more than once
  4. No person shall be prosecuted or punished for different offence again.

Answer: (b)

9. Under which provision of the Constitution of India, it is the fundamental duty of every citizen of India to strive towards excellence in all spheres of individuals and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavor and achievement.

  1. Article 51- A (c)
  2. Article 51-A (d)
  3. Article 51-A (f)
  4. Article 51-A (j).

Answer: (d)

10. In which case ‘Secularism’ was recognized as basic feature of the Constitution of India?

  1. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India, (2006 SC)
  2. Nagaraj v. Union of India, (2006 SC)
  3. L. Chandra Kumar v. Union of India, (1997 SC)
  4. Selvi v. State of Karnataka, (2010 SC).

Answer: (a)

11. The judges of the Supreme Court of India can be removed from office in accordance with:

  1. Article 123
  2. Article 124
  3. Article 125
  4. Article 127.

Answer: (b)

12. The official language used in the Supreme Court of India shall be:

  1. English
  2. Hindi
  3. Both English and Hindi
  4. Any local language.

Answer: (a)

13. Which provisions were struck down in the case of Supreme Court Advocate-on-Record Association v. Union of India, ((2016) 5 SCC 1)?

  1. Article 124, 124-A to C, 127, 128, 217, 222, 224, 224-A, 231 (as amended/inserted)
  2. Article 124, 124-A to C (as amended/Inserted)
  3. Article 124, 124-A to C, 217, 213 (as amended/inserted)
  4. Article 123, 124-A to C, 217, 222. 224, 224-A, 231 (as amended/ inserted).

Answer: (a)

14. In which part of the Constitution of India, the provision for Public Service Commissions is contained?

  1. Part XIV
  2. Part XIII
  3. Part XII
  4. Part XI.

Answer: (a)

15. Which of the following writ means ‘what is your authority’?

  1. Mandamus
  2. Habeas Corpus
  3. Quo Warranto
  4. Prohibition.

Answer: (c)

16. In which of the following judgment, the scope of writ of Habeas Corpus was widened?

  1. Sunil Batra v. Delhi Administration, (1978 SC)
  2. D.K Basu v. State of West Bengal, (1998 SC)
  3. Sheela Barse v. Union of India,(1983 SC)
  4. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, (1987 SC).

Answer: (a)

17. Under which Article of the Constitution of India Citizenship by Domicile can be determined?

  1. Article 5
  2. Article 9
  3. Article 10
  4. Article 11.

Answer: (a)

18. Supreme Court of India issued directions to the Central Government to conclude the national survey on drug abuse within a period of six months and a national plan for curbing increase of use of substance in children within four months in:

  1. Bachpan Bachao Andolan v. Union of India, (2017 SC)
  2. M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, (2017 SC)
  3. Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1987 SC)
  4. Bandhua Mukti Morcha v. Union of India, (1984 SC).

Answer: (a)

19. In which case, directions for improvement of conditions of inmates of Homes for mentally ill persons under the Persons with Disabilities Act, 1935, as well as psychiatric hospitals and nursing homes under Mental Health Act, 1987, were issued by the Supreme Court of India?

  1. Reena Banerjee v. Govt., (NCT of Delhi) (2017 SC)
  2. Neeraja Chaudhary v. State, (2017 SC)
  3. PUDR v. Union of India, (1982 SC)
  4. Sheela Barse v. Union of India, (1987 SC).

Answer: (a)

20. In which case the Supreme Court of India held that all prostitutes and sex workers also have a right to live with human dignity under Article 21?

  1. Lata Singh v. State of U.P, (2006 SC)
  2. Budhadev Karmaskar v. State of W.B, (2011 SC)
  3. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab, (1996 SC)
  4. Sabia Khan v. State of U.P, (2010 SC).

Answer: (b)

21. In State of Maharashtra v. Dr. Praful B. Desai, (2003 SC) the Supreme Court of India held:

  1. Recording of evidence through video-conferencing so long the accused and / or his pleader are present while recording is as per “procedure established by law’ and hence valid.
  2. Right to speedy trial is part and parcel of Right to life under Art. 21 of the Constitution
  3. It is obligatory on the employer to compute the family pension and often the same to the widow even without making a claim on her part
  4. Where lawyers boycott or are on strike it is the duty of the court to carry on with court proceedings.

Answer: (a)

22. In which case, the Supreme Court of India held that there is no justification for permitting only Brahmins to carry out the necessary rites and rituals as priests?

  1. Bhuri Nath v. State of J&K, (1997 SC)
  2. Aruna Roy v. Union of India, (2002 SC)
  3. Ismail Faruqui v. Union of India, (1994 SC)
  4. Adithayan v. Travancore Devaswom Board, (2002 SC).

Answer: (d)

23. The case of Markandey Katju v. Lok Sabha, ((2017) 2 SCC 384) is related to:

  1. Freedom of Speech and Parliamentary privileges
  2. Power of the Parliament to make law
  3. Election of Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. Functioning of Lok Sabha.

Answer: (a)

24. Part XIII of the Indian Constitution dealing with trade commerce and intercourse appears to drive inspiration from:

  1. Australian Constitution
  2. UK Constitution
  3. US Constitution
  4. Constitution of Ireland.

Answer: (a)

25. Which article of the Constitution of India provides that the state shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India?

  1. Article 41
  2. Article 42
  3. Article 43
  4. Article 44.

Answer: (d)

26. Under the Constitution of India freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion is subject to:

  1. public order and morality
  2. public order and health
  3. public order, morality and to the other provisions of Part III
  4. public order, morality and health and to the other provisions of Part III.

Answer: (d)

27. Which provisions of the Constitution of India provides for joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament in certain cases?

  1. Article 107
  2. Article 108
  3. Article 109
  4. Article 110.

Answer: (b)

28. If any question arises whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not, the decision given by the …………………………… shall be final:

  1. Vice – President
  2. Prime Minister
  3. Finance Minister
  4. Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Answer: (d)

29. Which provision of the Constitution of India deals with the representation of the Anglo- Indian Community in the House of the People?

  1. Article 330
  2. Article 331
  3. Article 332
  4. Article 333.

Answer: (b)

30. Which one of the following is not a ground mentioned in article 19(2) of the Constitution of India on the basis of which reasonable restrictions on the freedom of speech and expressions can be imposed?

  1. The Security of the State
  2. Friendly relation with foreign states
  3. Incitement to an offence
  4. Public interest.

Answer: (d)

31. Article 22 (4) to (7) of the Constitution of India were amended by:

  1. The Constitution (Forty Second Amendment) Act, 1976
  2. The Constitution (Forty Fourth Amendment) Act, 1978
  3. The Constitution (Fiftieth Amendment Act), 1984
  4. The Constitution (Fiftieth Amendment)Act, 1985.

Answer: (b)

32. While imposing compulsory service for public purposes, the State shall not make any discrimination on grounds only of:

  1. Religion, race, caste, sex
  2. Religion, race, caste or any of them
  3. Religion, race, caste or class or any of them
  4. Religion, race, caste place of birth or any of them.

Answer: (c)

33. Which provision of the Constitution of India provides freedoms as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion?

  1. Article 26
  2. Article 27
  3. Article 28
  4. Article 29.

Answer: (b)

34. Under which provision of the constitution of India, the Parliament may by law empower any other Court to exercise within the local limits of its jurisdiction all or any of the power exercisable by the Supreme Court under article 32(2) of the Constitution?

  1. Article 32(2)
  2. Article 32(3)
  3. Article 32(4)
  4. Article 226.

Answer: (b)

35. For a person to be eligible for election as President of India, one of the qualifications required is that he is qualified for election as a member of:

  1. The Parliament
  2. The House of People
  3. The Council of State
  4. The Legislature of the State.

Answer: (b)

36. The Vice-President may be removed from his office by a resolution of the:

  1. Council of States
  2. House of People
  3. Council of State and agreed to by the House of People
  4. Both the Houses of Parliament and agreed to by the majority of State Legislatures.

Answer: (c)

37. A person can become a Minister without being a member of either House of Parliament for a period of:

  1. three consecutive months
  2. six consecutive months
  3. nine consecutive months
  4. one year consecutively.

Answer: (b)

38. What is the outer limit of representatives of the State and of the UTs in the Council of States?

  1. Not more than 250
  2. Not more than 245
  3. Not more than 238
  4. Not more than 228.

Answer: (c)

39. How many maximum members can represent the Union Territories in the Lok Sabha?

  1. 20
  2. 25
  3. 30
  4. 35.

Answer: (a)

40. What is the effect of prorogation of the House on the Bill pending in Parliament?

  1. It does not lapse
  2. Prime Minister to decide whether the Bill lapses or not
  3. Speaker to decide whether the Bill lapses or not
  4. The Bill lapses.

Answer: (a)

41. Under which article the President can promulgate ordinances during the recess of Parliament?

  1. Article 121
  2. Article 122
  3. Article 123
  4. Article 124.

Answer: (c)

42. How many judges constituted the Bench in the case of Supreme Court Advocates on Record Assn. v. Union of India, (2016) 5 SCC 1) in which the Constitution (Ninth Amendment) Act, 2014, was declared unconstitutional?

  1. Three
  2. Five
  3. Seven
  4. Nine.

Answer: (b)

43. Which article of the Constitution of India gives power to the President to consult the Supreme Court?

  1. Article 141
  2. Article 143
  3. Article 145
  4. Article 147.

Answer: (b)

44. Under which article of the Constitution of India, there is a duty of the Chief Minister to furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the State and proposals for legislation as the Governor may call for?

  1. 166
  2. 167
  3. 168
  4. 169.

Answer: (b)

45. Who has the power to prorogue the either House of the State Legislature?

  1. President
  2. Governor
  3. Chief Minister
  4. Speaker of the Legislative Assembly.

Answer: (b)

46. In which of the following articles of the Constitution of India the “Doctrine of Pleasure” is provided?

  1. Article 309
  2. Article 310
  3. Article 311
  4. Article 312.

Answer: (b)

47. In which of the following articles of the Constitution of India, the Tribunals other than Administrative Tribunals can be created by the appropriate Legislature?

  1. Article 323
  2. Article 323-A
  3. Article 323-B
  4. Article 324.

Answer: (c)

48. According to the existing provision, the reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People and in the Legislative Assemblies of the State shall cease after ________ years from the Commencement of the Constitution of India.

  1. Seventy
  2. Eighty
  3. Ninety
  4. Hundred.

Answer: (a)

49. National Commission for Scheduled tribes can be created under which provision of the Constitution of India?

  1. Article 337
  2. Article 338
  3. Article 338- A
  4. Article 338- B.

Answer: (c)

50. Right to enforce which articles of the Constitution of India Cannot be suspended during the emergency?

  1. Article 19 and 20
  2. Article 20 and 21
  3. Article 21 and 22
  4. Article 14, 19 and 21.

Answer: (b)

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51. Rights which came into being after the violation of a right are:

  1. Primary rights
  2. Sanctioning Rights
  3. Duties
  4. No rights.

Answer: (b)

52. Who said that the essence of legal right seems to me to be not legally guaranteed power by itself, nor legally protected interest by itself, but the legally guaranteed power to realize an interest?

  1. Paton
  2. Hegel
  3. Allen
  4. Salmond.

Answer: (c)

53. Who described ownership as a right – indefinite in point of user – unrestricted in point of disposition and unlimited in point of duration over a determinate thing?

  1. Salmond
  2. Ihering
  3. Renner
  4. Austin.

Answer: (d)

54. It is difficult to see what the pure theory of law can contribute to a system which it derives from a basic norm which it cannot find. This was commented on Kelsen’s theory of Grundnorm by:

  1. Friedmann
  2. Stone
  3. Austin
  4. Hart.

Answer: (b)

55. An essay entitled ‘On the Vocation of our Age for Legislation and Jurisprudence’ was written with which, in the words of Ihering, a new jurisprudence was born. Who was the author of the essay?

  1. Puchta
  2. Fuller
  3. Savigny
  4. Salmond.

Answer: (c)

56. Ratio Legis means:

  1. passing observation of the statute
  2. the true intention of the statute
  3. the true intention of the statute
  4. operation of the statute.

Answer: (c)

57. In precedent, the rules and principles are laid down by:

  1. inductive method
  2. deductive method
  3. constructive method
  4. predictive method.

Answer: (a)

58. Who said that in possession there is manifestation of individual will?

  1. Hegel
  2. Savigny
  3. Rousseau
  4. Kant.

Answer: (a)

59. Who said that protection to possession stand on the same grounds as protection against injuria?

  1. Windscheid
  2. Holland
  3. Austin
  4. Duguit.

Answer: (a)

60. Who defined ownership as a plenary control over an object?

  1. Holland
  2. Salmond
  3. Savigny
  4. Ihering.

Answer: (a)

61. Who classified sources of law into formal and material sources?

  1. Salmond
  2. Allen
  3. Keeton
  4. Austin.

Answer: (a)

62. Which school of thought opined that customs originate from common consciousness of the people?

  1. Historical school
  2. Analytical school
  3. Sociological school
  4. Natural law school.

Answer: (a)

63. Who explained customs as ‘one of the main triangles of the law of England’?

  1. Dicey
  2. Coke
  3. Blackstone
  4. Salmond.

Answer: (b)

64. Who said that custom is per se law?

  1. Puchta
  2. Savigny
  3. Coke
  4. Hart.

Answer: (b)

65. Who wrote the book ‘Law of the Constitution’?

  1. Dicey
  2. Maitland
  3. Salmond
  4. Gray.

Answer: (a)

66. Who started that ‘no one has any other right than always to do his duty’?

  1. Duguit
  2. Holland
  3. Austin
  4. Salmond.

Answer: (a)

67. Two main theories of legal right are:

  1. the Will Theory and the Interest Theory
  2. the Will Theory and the Realist Theory
  3. the Interest Theory and the Symbolist Theory
  4. the Will Theory and the Concession Theory.

Answer: (a)

68. According to Hohfeld, the Correlative of Power is:

  1. Immunity
  2. Liability
  3. No Right
  4. Disability.

Answer: (b)

69. Which theory of personality laid down that only human beings have personality. Juristic persons are no persons at all?

  1. Realist theory
  2. Purpose theory
  3. Fiction theory
  4. Concession theory.

Answer: (b)

70. According to whom, possession is protected because every act of violence is unlawful.

  1. Rousseau
  2. Savigny
  3. Holland
  4. Kelsen.

Answer: (b)

71. Who said that ‘the law is not to be deduced from the rule but the rule from the law’?

  1. Paulus
  2. Hobbes
  3. Bentham
  4. Austin.

Answer: (a)

72. Who wrote the book ‘Elementia Philosophical’?

  1. Savigny
  2. Maine
  3. Austin
  4. Hobbes.

Answer: (d)

73. Who divided jurisprudence into ‘general and particular’ jurisprudence?

  1. Austin
  2. Holland
  3. Locke
  4. Puchta.

Answer: (a)

74. Who defined jurisprudence as the ‘The scientific synthesis of the essential principles of law’?

  1. Salmond
  2. Allen
  3. Austin
  4. Bentham.

Answer: (b)

75. Who is the founder of the Analytical School?

  1. Bentham
  2. Salmond
  3. Allen
  4. Austin.

Answer: (d)

76. Who defined law as a ‘rule laid down for the guidance of an intelligent being by an intelligent being having power over him’?

  1. Salmond
  2. Jerome Frank
  3. Austin
  4. Kelsen.

Answer: (c)

77. Who wrote the essay ‘Vom Beruf in 1814’?

  1. Savigny
  2. Thibaut
  3. Hegel
  4. Puchta.

Answer: (a)

78. Hugo states that:

  1. laws are the creation of climate, local situations, accident, or imposture
  2. the essence of law is its acceptance, regulations and observance by the people
  3. law is not universal in nature
  4. law is the command of the sovereign.

Answer: (b)

79. Who is the exponent of Volksgeist theory?

  1. Holmes
  2. Roscoe Pound
  3. Savigny
  4. Thibant.

Answer: (c)

80. Who states ‘law grows with a nation, increases with it and died at its dissolution and is a characteristic of it’?

  1. Savigny
  2. Maine
  3. Holmes
  4. Gray.

Answer: (a)

81. Who wrote the book ‘Das Recht des Besitzes’?

  1. Savigny
  2. Hegel
  3. Maine
  4. Puchta.

Answer: (a)

82. Self-interest causes a conflict between individual will and general will.’ Who expressed this opinion?

  1. Savigny
  2. Austin
  3. Puchta
  4. Maine.

Answer: (c)

83. Law is defined or ‘the standard of what is just and unjust by:

  1. Justinian’s Digest
  2. Ulpian
  3. Cicero
  4. Salmond.

Answer: (a)

84. Who said that ‘Law is the highest reason implanted in nature’?

  1. Hart
  2. Salmond
  3. Cicero
  4. Maitland.

Answer: (c)

85. ‘Factum valet’ means an act:

  1. Which is in contravention of some moral injunction, if accomplished in fact, should be considered valid
  2. Which is in contravention of some legal injunction, if accomplished in fact, should be considered valid
  3. Which in an contravention of precedents
  4. An act done in contravention of Law.

Answer: (a)

86. Who defined state as ‘an association of human beings generally occupying a territory for the attainment of internal order and external security?

  1. Gettell
  2. Salmond
  3. Holland
  4. Rousseau.

Answer: (c)

87. Duguit propounded the concept of:

  1. Volksgeist
  2. Social engineering
  3. Utilitarianism
  4. Social Solidarity.

Answer: (d)

88. Who defined law as the ‘form of the guarantee of the conditions of life of society assured by State’s power of constraint’?

  1. Ihering
  2. Ehrlich
  3. Pound
  4. Duguit.

Answer: (a)

89. According to whom, ‘state is community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory, legally independent of external control and possessing an organized government which creates and administers law over all persons and groups within its jurisdiction. Abstractly considered, the state is juristic entity or person, concretely considered, it is the community, the territory which it occupies and the governmental organization through which it wills and acts’?

  1. Gettell
  2. Austin
  3. Holland
  4. Grotius.

Answer: (a)

90. Who said that state is the result of a natural instinct in man?

  1. Aristotle
  2. Kant
  3. Hobbes
  4. Grotius.

Answer: (a)

91. Who said that “International law is not law but it is only a positive morality”?

  1. Kant
  2. Salmond
  3. Aristotle
  4. Austin.

Answer: (d)

92. Pound defines law as:

  1. a social institution to satisfy social wants
  2. the de psychologized command
  3. a social fact
  4. a positive morality.

Answer: (a)

93. A precept or rule of action imposed upon men by some authority which enforces obedience to it’ is:

  1. imperative law
  2. physical law
  3. natural law
  4. conventional law.

Answer: (a)

94. Who wrote the book ‘De la Republique’?

  1. Machiavelli
  2. Bodin
  3. Hobbes
  4. Bentham.

Answer: (b)

95. Who said that state is absolute and is an end in itself?

  1. Hobbes
  2. Bodin
  3. Machiavelli
  4. Austin.

Answer: (c)

96. Who supported the absolute power of the sovereign on utilitarian grounds?

  1. Hobbes
  2. Bentham
  3. Dicey
  4. Austin.

Answer: (b)

97. Who gave sociological approach to sovereignty?

  1. Holland
  2. Jethro Brown
  3. Bodin
  4. Austin.

Answer: (b)

98. Who said that there can be no concept of sovereignty as distinct and separate from and above the law?

  1. Kelsen
  2. Dicey
  3. Bodin
  4. Hart.

Answer: (a)

99. Who classified sources of law into binding and persuasive sources?

  1. Keeton
  2. Salmond
  3. Duguit
  4. Allen.

Answer: (a)

100. What is the Jural opposite of Immunity?

  1. Disability
  2. Privilege
  3. No Right
  4. Liability.

Answer: (d)

101. A, by instigation, voluntarily causes B, a person under – 8 years of age to commit suicide. A has committed:

  1. no offence
  2. murder
  3. abetment to murder
  4. culpable homicide not amounting to murder.

Answer: (c)

102. Under which provision of Indian Penal Code the ‘Dowry death’ is defined?

  1. Section 304
  2. Section 304- A
  3. Section 304- B
  4. Section 305.

Answer: (c)

103. In which case Section 309 of Indian Penal Code was declared constitutional?

  1. Rathinam v. Union of India
  2. Bachan Singh v. Union of India
  3. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
  4. Ansari v. Union of India.

Answer: (c)

104. A causes Z to go within a walled space and locks Z in A has committed the offence of:

  1. Wrongful restraint
  2. Wrongful confinement
  3. Force
  4. Criminal Force.

Answer: (b)

105. Punishment for kidnapping as provided under Indian Penal Code is:

  1. Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to seven years, and shall also be liable to fine
  2. Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to five years, and shall also be liable to fine
  3. Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three years, and shall also be liable to fine
  4. Imprisonment for life.

Answer: (a)

106. The maxim de minimis non curat lex means:

  1. Law would not take actions on small and trifling matter
  2. Law does not ignore any act done by anyone
  3. Law ignores actions done by minor
  4. Law ignores action done by persons of unsound mind.

Answer: (a)

107. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 is based on:

  1. Verma Committee Report
  2. Malimath Committee Report
  3. Shah Committee Report
  4. Mehta Committee Report.

Answer: (a)

108. Under Section 125 Cr. PC, the Magistrate of the first class may, in certain circumstances, order for maintenance of wives, children and parents, monthly allowance at such monthly rates:

  1. not exceeding five hundred rupees in the whole
  2. not exceeding fifteen hundred rupees in the whole
  3. not exceeding two thousand five hundred rupees in the whole
  4. as such Magistrate thinks fit.

Answer: (d)

109. A is accused of cheating B at a given time and place. The charge:

  1. must set out the manner in which A cheated B
  2. must not set out the manner in which A cheated B
  3. may or may not set out the manner in which A cheated B
  4. no charge is required to be framed in this case.

Answer: (a)

110. Which Section of Cr. P.C gives power to the appropriate Government to commute Sentence?

  1. Section 431
  2. Section 431-A
  3. Section 433
  4. Section 433-A.

Answer: (c)

111. Which Section of Cr.P.C provides that ‘Any person accused of an offence before a Criminal Court, or against which proceeding are instituted under this Code, may of right be defended by a pleader of his choice’?

  1. Section 301
  2. Section 302
  3. Section 303
  4. Section 305.

Answer: (c)

112. An agreement not enforceable by law is:

  1. void
  2. voidable
  3. valid
  4. a contract.

Answer: (a)

113. Who said that ‘Acceptance is to offer what a lighted march is to gun powder. Both do something which cannot be undone’?

  1. Mulla
  2. Anson
  3. Avtar Singh
  4. Justice Atkin.

Answer: (b)

114. The threat of suicide amounts to:

  1. Coercion
  2. Undue influence
  3. Fraud
  4. Misrepresentation.

Answer: (a)

115. A, a man enfeebled by diseases or age, is induced by B influence over him as his medical attendant, to agree to pay B an unreasonable sum for his professional services, B employs:

  1. Coercion
  2. Undue influence
  3. Fraud
  4. Misrepresentation.

Answer: (b)

116. Agreement in restraint of marriage is:

  1. void
  2. voidable
  3. valid
  4. wagering contract.

Answer: (a)

117. A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic. The agreement is:

  1. void
  2. voidable
  3. valid
  4. both void and voidable.

Answer: (a)

118. Fraud was defined in a well known English case:

  1. Derry v. Peek
  2. Ashby v. White
  3. Turner v. Green
  4. Wath v. O’Flanagan.

Answer: (a)

119. A find’s purse and gives it to him. B promises to give A Rs. 50.

  1. This is a valid contract
  2. This is void contract
  3. This is a voidable contract
  4. This is no contract at all.

Answer: (a)

120. A directs B, his solicitor, to sell his estate by auction, and to employ an auctioneer for the purpose. B names C, an auctioneer, to conduct the sale.

  1. C is not a sub-agent, but is A’s agent for the conduct of the sale
  2. C is only a sub-agent of A
  3. C is neither agent nor sub-agent of A
  4. It is the options of A to treat C either agent or sub-agent.

Answer: (a)

121. A and B jointly owe 100 rupees to C, A alone pays to amount to C, and B not knowing the fact, pays 100 rupees over again to C.

  1. C is not bound to repay the amount to A or B
  2. C is bound to repay the amount to A
  3. C is bound to repay the amount to both A and B
  4. C is bound to repay the amount to B.

Answer: (d)

122. A, B and C jointly promise to pay D 3,000 rupees. D may compel:

  1. either A or B or C to pay him 3,000 rupees
  2. either B or C to pay him 3,000 rupees
  3. either B or C to pay him 3,000 rupees
  4. all to pay him 3,000 rupees simultaneously.

Answer: (a)

123. The 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development is based on ………………….  Sustainable Development Goals:

  1. 5
  2. 15
  3. 17
  4. 18.

Answer: (c)

124. Which of the following case led to the enactment of ‘The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016?

  • T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad v. Union of India, (2002)
  • M.C. Mehta v. Union of India, (2016)
  • Centre for Environmental Law, World Wide Fund India, v. Union of India, (2013)
  • Centre for Public Interest Litigation v. Union of India, (2012).

Answer: (a)

125. Which article of the Constitution puts a Fundamental Duty on the citizens to protect and improve national environment?

  1. Article 48 A
  2. Article 21
  3. Article 51 A(e)
  4. Article 51- A(g).

Answer: (d)

126. In 1980, the Central Government appointed a Committee to Review Environmental Legislation and recommend measures for ensuring environmental protection. The name of the Committee was:

  1. Kamal Nath Committee
  2. M.C. Mehta Committee
  3. Khanna Committee
  4. Tiwari Committee.

Answer: (d)

127. Under the Paris Agreement 2015, the contributions that each individual’s country shall make in order to achieve the worldwide goals are determined by all the countries individually and called as:

  1. Environmental Fund
  2. Climate Fund
  3. Nationally Determined contribution
  4. Voluntary Determined Contribution.

Answer: (c)

128. The New Chapter VI-A, which Deals with various aspects of forfeiture of property derived from illegal hunting and trade, was added in the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, in the year:

  1. 2000
  2. 2002
  3. 2006
  4. 2016.

Answer: (b)

129. The concept of absolute liability was developed by the Supreme Court of India in M.C Mehta v. Union of India, the judgment of which was delivered by:

  1. Justice Kuldip Singh
  2. Justice Krishna Iyer
  3. Justice Bhagwati
  4. Justice Chandrachud.

Answer: (c)

130. The case of Bangalore Medical Trust v. B.S Muddappa, (1991 SC) related to:

  1. Converting a public into a nursing home
  2. Reservation of seats in medical colleges
  3. Throwing the hospital waste into the river
  4. Medical negligence in the hospital.

Answer: (a)

131. The Montreal Protocol, 1987 (Ozone Treaty) came into force with effect from:

  1. January 1987
  2. January 1988
  3. January 1989
  4. January 2001.

Answer: (c)

132. “The authorities must anticipate, prevent and attack the cause of environment degradation. ‘The above statement is a part of:

  1. Polluter Pays Principle of Sustainable Development
  2. The Precautionary Principles of Sustainable Development
  3. Inter-generation equality of Sustainable Development
  4. Obligation to asset and cooperate.

Answer: (b)

133. The defendant Board had the statutory power to repair sea walls but was under no duty to do so. A high tide broke the sea wall and flooded the plaintiff’s land. The Board sent an inexperienced man with poor equipment and the repair work took almost six months to complete. It was proved that with reasonable skill it could have been complete in about two weeks. The defendant is:

  1. Liable in negligence as they had a legal duty to take care towards the plaintiff an committed its breach
  2. Liable in negligence as they should have sent an experienced man with proper equipment to do the work
  3. Not Liable in negligence as they owed no legal duty to take care toward the plaintiff
  4. Liable in negligence as they should have sent an experienced man with proper equipment to do the work.

Answer: (c)

134. The case of Donoghue v. Stevenson was decided by the:

  1. US Supreme Court
  2. House of Lords
  3. European Court of Human Rights
  4. Australia Supreme Court.

Answer: (b)

135. The term tort has been derived from the Latin term ‘tortum”, which means:

  1. Damages
  2. Wrong
  3. To twist
  4. Civil wrong.

Answer: (c)

136. Ashby v. White is a leading decision explaining the maxim of:

  1. Injuria Sine Damnum
  2. Damnum Sine Injuria
  3. Injuria Sine damnum nor Damnum Sine Injuria
  4. Neither injuria sine damnum nor Damnum sine injuria.

Answer: (a)

137. “Pigeon-hole-theory” of tort was given by:

  1. Winfield
  2. Pollock
  3. Anson
  4. Salmond.

Answer: (d)

138. For the application of the defence of volenti non fit injuria it is sufficient if:

  1. the plaintiff knew that the risk is there
  2. the plaintiff agreed to suffer the harm
  3. the plaintiff knew that the risk is here and he knowing the same, agreed to suffer the harm
  4. the plaintiff either know that the risk is there or he agreed to suffer the harm voluntarily.

Answer: (c)

139. When the defendant by his act creates an apprehension in the mind of the plaintiff that he is going to commit battery against the plaintiff:

  1. the wrong of assault is completed
  2. the wrong of assault is not completed
  3. the wrong of assault may be completed
  4. no wrong is committed.

Answer: (a)

140. Which of the following defences are available to an action for defamation?

  1. Justification or truth
  2. Fair comments
  3. Privilege, which may be either absolute or qualified
  4. Justification or truth, fair comments as well as privilege, which may be either absolute or qualified.

Answer: (d)

141. The statement that a lady has given birth to a child. it is a:

  1. defamatory statement
  2. not a defamatory statement
  3. defamatory statement if a lady is unmarried
  4. dependent on the intention of a marker of the statement.

Answer: (c)

142. What is the status of ‘juristic opinion’ as a source of law?

  1. Primary source
  2. Subsidiary source
  3. Not a source at all
  4. Primary or secondary in view or circumstances of each case.

Answer: (b)

143. When did India enact Indian Maritime Zone Act?

  1. 1982
  2. 1976
  3. 1994
  4. 1979.

Answer: (b)

144. Which one of the following is not a principal Organ of UNO?

  1. International Court of Justice
  2. Economic and Social Council
  3. International Criminal Court
  4. Trusteeship Council.

Answer: (c)

145. Who among the following Jurists has been called as father of Modern Law of Nation by Oppenheim?

  1. Starke
  2. Kelson
  3. Fenwick
  4. Grotius.

Answer: (d)

146. In which year U.N Commission on Human Rights, which has been replaced by Human Rights Council, was established?

  1. 1945
  2. 1946
  3. 2005
  4. 2006.

Answer: (b)

147. The first case decided by the European Court of Human Rights was:

  1. Brogan v. United Kingdom
  2. Lingens v. Austria
  3. Ireland v. United Kingdom
  4. Lawless v. Ireland.

Answer: (d)

148. Right to marry is recognized under provision of Universal Declaration of Human Rights?

  1. Article 15
  2. Article 16
  3. Article 17
  4. Article 18.

Answer: (b)

149. The UN Economic and Social Council consist of:

  1. 34 member States
  2. 44 member States
  3. 54 member States
  4. 60 member States.

Answer: (c)

150. In which case, the Supreme Court of India issued guidelines for preventing custodial violence?

  1. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal, (1997 SC)
  2. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India, (1978 SC)
  3. Parmanand Katara v. Union of India, (1989 SC)
  4. PUCL v. Union of India, (1997 SC).

Answer: (a)

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  1. Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary and Entrance Exams
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