Common Law Admission Test | CLAT UG 2017 Solved Paper | Download PDF

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Common Law Admission Test | CLAT UG 2017 | Click Here to Download PDF

COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST (CLAT UG) 2017

Duration of Test: 2 Hours (120 minutes)

Maximum Marks: 200

Section I – English and Reading Comprehension

Direction for Questions 1 to 10: Fill in the blank by choosing the most appropriate option.

1. Sunita decided to set ..…. some time every day for prayers.

1. up
2. in
3. on
4. aside.

Answer: (d)

2. You have played a great role, for ………. your help I possibly would have landed myself into a problem.

1. after
2. despite
3. although
4. without.

Answer: (d)

3. We shall fail ………. we are industrious.

1. though
2. until
3. whether
4. unless.

Answer: (d)

4. Kanak is endowed ………. many great qualities.

1. in
2. with
3. of
4. by.

Answer: (b)

5. Would anybody ………. a mother have risked her life for the baby?

1. rather
2. but
3. however
4. than.

Answer: (b)

6. If they want to succeed, they ………. have to work very hard.

1. will
2. ought
3. must
4. should.

Answer: (a)

7. She stood ………. Amit, but could not utter a single word for quite some time.

1. for
2. to
3. about
4. before.

Answer: (d)

8. The passengers were very happy ………. the friendly and warm treatment.

1. by
2. about
3. from
4. to.

Answer: (b)

9. The doctor advised him to go ……….several medical tests.

1. under
2. about
3. through
4. into.

Answer: (c)

10. The minister flew ………. the flooded areas in a helicopter.

1. about
2. in
3. over
4. along.

Answer: (c)

Direction for Questions 11 to 15: Read the given passage carefully and choose the most appropriate option to the questions given below.

The World Trade Organisation (WTO) was created in the early 1990s as a component of the Uruguay Round negotiation. However, it could have been negotiated as part of the Tokyo Round of the 1970s, since negotiation was an attempt at a ‘constitutional reform’ of the General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT). Or it could have been put off to the future, as the US government wanted. What factors led to the creation of the WTO in the early 1990s?

One factor was the pattern of multilateral bargaining that developed late in the Uruguay Round. Like all complex international agreements, the WTO was a product of a series of trade-offs between principal actors and groups. For the United States, which did not want a new organization, the disputed settlement part of the WTO package achieved its longstanding goal of a more effective and more legal dispute settlement system. For the Europeans, who by the 1990s had come to view GATT dispute settlement less in political terms add more as a regime of legal obligations, the WTO package was acceptable as a means to discipline the resort to unilateral measures by the United States. Countries like Canada and other middle and smaller trading partners were attracted by the expansion of a rule-based system and by the symbolic value of a trade organization, both of which inherently support the weak against the strong. The developing countries were attracted due to the provisions banning unilateral measures. Finally, and perhaps most important, many countries at the Uruguay Round came to put a higher priority on the export gains than on the import losses that the negotiation would produce, and they came to associate the WTO and a rule-based system with those gains. This reasoning – replicated in many countries – was contained in U. S. Ambassador Kantor’s defence of the WTO, and it announced to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rule-based environment.

A second factor in the creation of the WTO was pressure from lawyers and the legal process. The dispute settlement system of the WTO was seen as a victory of legalists but the matter went deeper than that. The GATT, and the WTO, are contract organizations based on rules, and it is inevitable that an organization creating a further rule will in turn be influenced by legal process. Robert Hudee has written of the ‘momentum of legal development’, but what is this precisely? Legal development can be defined as promotion of the technical legal values of consistency, clarity (or certainty) and effectiveness; these are values that those responsible for administering any legal system will seek to maximize. As it played out in the WTO, consistency meant integrating under one roof the whole lot of separate agreements signed under GATT auspices; clarity meant removing ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions or to undertake waivers; and effectiveness meant eliminating exceptions arising out of grandfather-rights and resolving defects in dispute settlement procedures and institutional provisions. Concern for these values is inherent in any rule-based system of co-operation, since without these value rules would be meaningless in the first place, therefore, create their own incentive for fulfilment.

The moment of legal development has occurred in other institutions besides the GATT, most notably in the European Union (EU). Over the past two decades the European Court of Justice (ECJ) has consistently rendered decisions that have expanded incrementally the EU’s internal market, in which the doctrine of ‘mutual recognition’ handed down in Cassis de Dijon case in 1979 was a key turning point. The court is now widely recognized as a major player in European integration, even though arguably such a strong role was not originally envisaged in the Treaty of Rome, which initiated the current European Union. One means the Court used to expand integration was the ‘teleological method of interpretation’, whereby the actions of member states were evaluated against ‘the accomplishment of the most elementary goals set forth in the Preamble to the (Rome) treaty. The teleological method represents an effort to keep current policies consistent with slated goals, and it is analogous to the effort in GATT to keep contracting party trade practices consistent with slated rules. In both cases legal concerns and procedures are an independent force for further co-operation. In the large part the WTO was an exercise in consolidation. In the context of a trade negotiation that created a near-revolutionary expansion of international trade rules, the formation of the WTO was a deeply conservative act needed to ensure that the benefits of the new rules would not be lost. The WTO was all about institutional structure and dispute settlement: these are the concerns of conservatives and not revolutionaries that is why lawyers and legalists took the lead on these issues. The WTO codified the GATT institutional practice that had developed by custom over three decades, and it incorporated a new dispute settlement system that was necessary to keep both old and new rules from becoming a sham. Both the international structure and the dispute settlement system were necessary to preserve and enhance the integrity of the multilateral trade regime that had been built incrementally from the 1940s to the 1990s.

11. What would be the closest reason why WTO was not formed in 1970s?

1. The US government did not like it
2. Important players did not find it in their best interest to do so
3. Lawyers did not work for the dispute settlement system
4. The Tokyo Round negotiations was an attempt at constitutional reform.

Answer: (b)

12. The most likely reason for the acceptance of the WTO package by nations was that:

1. It has the means to prevent the US from taking unilateral measures
2. They recognized the need for a rule-based environment to protect the benefits of increased trade
3. It settles disputes more legally and more effectively
4. Its rule-based system leads to export gains.

Answer: (b)

13. According to the passage, WTO promoted the technical legal values partly through:

1. Integrating under one roof the agreements signed under GATT
2. Rules that create their own incentive for fulfilment
3. Grandfather-rights exceptions and defects in dispute settlement procedures
4. Ambiguities about the powers of contracting parties to make certain decisions.

Answer: (a)

14. In the method of interpretation of the European Court of Justice:

1. Current policies need to be consistent with stated goals
2. Contracting party trade practices need to be consistent with stated rules
3. Enunciation of the most elementary community goals needed to be emphasized
4. Actions against member states needed to be evaluated against the said community goals.

Answer: (d)

15. In the statement ‘…it amounted to a recognition that international trade and its benefits cannot be enjoyed unless trading nations accept the discipline of a negotiated rule-based environment’, it refers to:

1. Ambassador Kantor’s defence of the WTO
2. The higher priority on export gains placed by many countries at the Uruguay Round
3. The export gains many countries came to associate with a rule-based system
4. The provision of a rule-based system by the WTO.

Answer: (c)

Direction for Questions 16 to 20: In each of the following sentences, some part of the sentence or the entire sentence is underlined. Beneath each sentence, you will find four ways of phrasing the underlined part. Choose the most appropriate option given in each of the sentences given below that is the best version than the underlined part of the sentence.

16. Two valence states of uranium, one with a deficit of four electrons and the other one with a deficit of six occurs in nature and contributes to the diversity of uranium’s behaviour.

1. the other one a deficit of six, occur in nature and contribute
2. the other with a deficit of six, occurs in nature and contributes
3. the other with a deficit of six, occur in nature and contribute
4. one with six occurs in nature and contributes.

Answer: (b)

17. Initiative and referendum, is a procedure that allows voters to propose and pass laws as well as to repeal them.

1. allows voters to propose, pass and to repeal laws
2. allows voters to propose to pass, and repeal laws
3. will allow voter to propose, pass, as well as to repeal laws
4. will allow laws on be proposed, passed, as well as repealed by voters.

Answer: (a)

18. Many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago the mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries:

1. chiselled from solid rock centuries ago, the mountainous regions are dotted with many hundreds of monasteries
2. Hundreds of monasteries, many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago, are dotting the mountainous regions
3. The mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries, many of which are chiselled from solid rock centuries ago
4. The mountainous regions are dotted with hundreds of monasteries, many of them chiselled from solid rock centuries ago.

Answer: (d)

19. Plausible though it sounds, the weakness of the hypothesis is that it does not incorporate all relevant facts.

1. even though it sounds plausible, the weakness of the hypothesis
2. though plausible, the hypothesis’ weakness
3. though the hypothesis sounds plausible, its weakness
4. the weakness of the hypothesis which sounds plausible.

Answer: (c)

20. During her lecture, the speaker tried to clarify directional terms,
    for not everyone in attendance was knowledgeable that winds are designed by the direction from which they come.

1. For everyone in attendance did not know
2. With everyone in attendance not knowing
3. With everyone attending not knowledgeable
4. For not everyone attending knew.

Answer: (d)

Direction for Questions 21 to 24: Choose the correct spellings in questions given below.

21. Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

1. Renumeration
2. Remuneration
3. Renumaration
4. Remunaration.

Answer: (b)

22. Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

1. Accomadation
2. Accommedation
3. Accommodation
4. Accomedation.

Answer: (c)

23. Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

1. Gallows
2. Gellows
3. Ghallows
4. Ghellows.

Answer: (a)

24. Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

1. Blasphamy
2. Bleshphemy
3. Blasphemy
4. Blashphemy.

Answer: (c)

Direction for Questions 25 to 28: Choose the correct spellings in questions given below.

25. Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

1. Annulment
2. Annulement
3. Annulmant
4. Anulment.

Answer: (a)

26. Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

1. Gratitious
2. Gratuitous
3. Gratetious
4. Gratuitus.

Answer: (b)

27. Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

1. Interrogation
2. Interogation
3. Interagation
4. Interogetion.

Answer: (a)

28. Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

1. Hypthacation
2. Hypothecation
3. Hypathecation
4. Hyphothecation.

Answer: (b)

Direction for Questions 29 and 30: Choose the correct spellings in questions given below.

29. Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

1. Moretorium
2. Maratorium
3. Moratorium
4. Moratarium.

Answer: (c)

30. Choose the correct spellings in options given below.

1. Abeyence
2. Abhayence
3. Abheyance
4. Abeyance.

Answer: (d)

Directions for Question 31 to 40: In each of the following sentences four words or phrases are underlined. If there is any mistake with regard to grammar or usage, it is in the underlined part only. Identify the incorrect part.

31. He (A) gave me a ticket (B) so that I (C) may visit (D) the book fair.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D.

Answer: (c)

32. (A) On listening to the (B)
    confession of love she blushed (C) until she (D) was purple.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D.

Answer: (d)

33. (A) Since I (B) have forgotten all the equations I (C) will have to start from (D) the scratch.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D.

Answer: (d)

34. (A) The most difficult job is (B) to bend and then (C) lifting (D) the weight.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D.

Answer: (c)

35. Five gallons (A) of petrol (B) are not (C) enough to cover (D) the distance.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D.

Answer: (b)

36. After (A) being finished (B) the last chapter of the book, (C) return it (D) to me.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D.

Answer: (a)

37. The officer asked (A) that (B) the report (C) be submitted (D) immediately.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D.

Answer: (c)

38. (A) The hope to (B) go through the book today (C) I have (D) almost read half of it.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D.

Answer: (d)

39. (A) Evidently our product is (B) the most unique (C) in (D) the market
    .

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D.

Answer: (b)

40. Our boss (A) always asks us (B) to pay (C) full attention to the work (D) at hand.

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D.

Answer: (d)

Section II – General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Direction for Questions 41 to 90: Choose the most appropriate option.

41. Prithvi Defence Vehicle is:

1. The name of a newly developed tank
2. The name of a single seated aircraft developed by HAL
3. The name of India’s Nuclear Intercepter Missile
4. The name of an amphibious Naval vessel.

Answer: (c)

42. Highest number of open prisons in India as on 2015 are in:

1. Rajasthan
2. Maharastra
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Kerala.

Answer: (a)

43. The first Commercial Court and Commercial Disputes Resolution Centre was inaugurated at:

1. Mumbai, Maharashtra
2. Ahmedabad, Gujarat
3. Raipur, Chhattisgarh
4. Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh.

Answer: (c)

44. The world’s first artificial intelligence lawyer, a robot, is named as:

1. Ross
2. Boss
3. Watson
4. IBM-LaBrain.

Answer: (a)

45. Who has been selected for 2016 BC Roy Award?

1. Jagat Ram
2. P. Raghu Ram
3. N. Bhaskaran
4. J. Rajendra.

Answer: (b)

46. According to the Survey Report released by Transparency International during March 2017 on India, the most corrupt are:

1. Government officials
2. Business executives
3. Police
4. Local Councillors.

Answer: (c)

47. Which of the following individuals was called a ‘deceptive actor’ by China’s foreign ministry during March 2017?

1. Narendra Modi
2. Donald Trump
3. Dalai Lama
4. Sirisena.

Answer: (c)

48. Who called the immigration the ‘Trojan horse of Terrorism’?

1. Donald Trump, President of the U.S
2. Angela Merkel, Chancellor of Germany
3. Viktor Orban, Prime Minister of Hungary
4. Theresa May, Prime Minister of U.K.

Answer: (c)

49. How many billionaires India has lost since demonetization on November 8, 2016?

1. Two
2. Eight
3. Eleven
4. Eighteen.

Answer: (c)

50. Donald Trump is ………. President of the United States.

1. 43^rd
2. 44^th
3. 45^th
4. 46^th.

Answer: (c)

51. ‘Scorpion kick’ is a phrase used in:

1. Kung Fu
2. Kabaddi
3. Kick Boxing
4. Kalari Fight.

Answer: (b)

52. India’s third largest trading partner during 2016 is:

1. Saudi Arabia
2. Kuwait
3. U.A.E
4. Dubai.

Answer: (c)

53. The Union Cabinet has recently approved the setting up of a Permanent Tribunal for resolving:

1. Inter-state water disputes
2. Election disputes
3. Inter-state boundary disputes
4. Complaints from three services.

Answer: (a)

54. Among the following M.L.As who was disqualified by the Governor during January 2017 under Article 192 of the Constitution for undertaking government contracts?

1. Uma Shankar Singh of Bihar
2. Jayalalithaa of Tamil Nadu
3. Srinivas Prasad of Karnataka
4. C. George of Kerala.

Answer: (a)

55. Which shoe company in the United States of America has won an IPR dispute against China recently for using their logo?

1. Reebok
2. Nike
3. New Balance
4. Adidas.

Answer: (c)

56. The World Bank had cut India’s GDP growth for 2016 – 2017 to:

1. 6%
2. 8%
3. 7%
4. 6%.

Answer: (c)

57. Among the following who was crowned as ‘Miss Supernational’ during 2016?

1. Srinidhi Shetty
2. Aishwarya Rai
3. Shilpa Shetty
4. Alia Bhatt.

Answer: (a)

58. In terms of steel production in the world during 2015 – 2016, India stood at:

1. Second
2. Third
3. Fourth
4. Fifth.

Answer: (b)

59. Volvo has launched the world’s largest bus that can carry up to:

1. 150 passengers
2. 260 passengers
3. 300 passengers
4. 320 passengers.

Answer: (c)

60. Japan is threatening to drag India to W.T.O on issues relating to the export of its:

1. Steel
2. Tea
3. Electronic goods
4. Small ships.

Answer: (a)

61. Which Court has stayed the execution of death sentence of Kulbhushan Jadhav in May 2017?

1. Supreme Court of India
2. Supreme Court of Pakistan
3. International Court of Justice
4. International Criminal Court.

Answer: (c)

62. The Japanese Prime Minister who offered ‘sincere and everlasting condolences’ to the people of the United States for killing more than 2,400 soldiers in the attack on Pearl harbour was:

1. Hayato Ikeda
2. Shinzo Abe
3. Kakuei Tanaka
4. Juniciro Koizumi.

Answer: (b)

63. The Hubble telescope of NASA is located in:

1. NASA headquarters
2. Space
3. Iceland
4. Canada.

Answer: (b)

64. The first country in the world to have begun shutting down the entire Frequency Modulation (FM) radio network to be replaced by Digital Audio Broadcasting is:

1. United States of America
2. Switzerland
3. China
4. Norway.

Answer: (d)

65. Name the President elect of France who is likely to take the oath on 14 May 2017.

1. Francois Holland
2. Marine Le Pen
3. Francois Fillon
4. Emmanuel Macron.

Answer: (d)

66. Till the end of 2016, the total number of UNESCO’s World Heritage Sites in India is:

1. 42
2. 18
3. 35
4. 21.

Answer: (c)

67. Among the following, who has won the maximum number of titles?

1. V. Sindhu
2. Gopichand
3. Saina Nehwal
4. Srikant.

Answer: (c)

68. Among the following professors of Indian origin who has received Knighthood for the work as a co-inventor of next generation DNA Sequencing called Solexa Sequencing is?

1. Shankar Balasubramanian
2. C. Mahalanobis
3. Satyendra Nath Bose
4. Mehnad Saha.

Answer: (a)

69. ‘World’s longest-all women Non-stop flight’ from New Delhi to San Francisco covering 14,500 kms was operated by:

1. Jet Airways
2. Air India
3. United Airlines
4. American Airlines.

Answer: (b)

70. India’s voting rights at the International Monetary Fund increased from 2.3 % to:

1. 4%
2. 5%
3. 6%
4. 8%.

Answer: (c)

71. The first elected civilian President in Myanmar is:

1. Htin Kyaw
2. Aung San Suu Kyi
3. Aung San
4. Khin Ayi.

Answer: (a)

72. World’s longest rail tunnel is about:

1. 23 kms
2. 32 kms
3. 47 kms
4. 57 kms.

Answer: (d)

73. Solar Impulse–2 is:

1. Impact of climate change for overall increase of 2° C a year
2. Solar powered ship
3. Solar powered airplane that completed the first around the world
4. Hybrid airplane.

Answer: (c)

74. Juno is the name of a:

1. Solar powered space craft
2. Hydrogen fuelled space craft
3. Atomic powered submarine
4. Hydrogen fuelled submarine.

Answer: (a)

75. The first country to have announced euthanasia of a child is:

1. Norway
2. Denmark
3. Finland
4. Belgium.

Answer: (d)

76. Which of the following country enacted a law during August 2016 providing for the right to register the marriages of Hindus?

1. Afghanistan
2. Pakistan
3. Saudi Arabia
4. Iran.

Answer: (b)

77. The 2016 Nobel Peace Prize was won by the President of:

1. United States of America
2. South Africa
3. Columbia
4. Sri Lanka.

Answer: (c)

78. Immediately before Antonio Guterres was appointed the U.N Secretary General in October 2016, he was:

1. The Prime Minister of Portuguese
2. United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
3. Commissioner General of UNRWA
4. United Nations High Commissioner for Human Rights.

Answer: (b)

79. With the development of Terahertz (THz) transmitter, it is expected to be faster than 5G mobile networks by:

1. Two times
2. Five times
3. Ten times
4. Four times.

Answer: (c)

80. The bowler who has claimed the fastest 250 wickets in Cricket test matches is:

1. Anil Kumble
2. Dennis Lillee
3. Rangana Herath
4. Ravichandran Ashwin.

Answer: (d)

81. The Happiness Index Department or a Wing has been established in the states of:

1. Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
2. Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
3. Andhra Pradesh and Sikkim
4. Madhya Pradesh and Goa.

Answer: (a)

82. The top destination for domestic tourists in India for the past three consecutive years has been:

1. Kerala
2. Orissa
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Rajasthan.

Answer: (c)

83. COIN, a software programme developed by J. P. Morgan supports:

1. Bitcoin
2. Robotic surgery
3. Financial accounting
4. Interpreting commercial documents.

Answer: (d)

84. NASA rediscovered India’s lunar spacecraft that was lost in the space during the past eight years known as:

1. Chandrayan – I
2. Chandrayan – II
3. Mangalayaan – I
4. Mangalayaan – II.

Answer: (a)

85. Which country 3D – Printed a home of 37 sq. mts.?

1. Spain
2. South Korea
3. Russia
4. Taiwan.

Answer: (c)

86. Which country offered asylum seekers 1,200 Euros to leave by withdrawing their application for protection?

1. France
2. Italy
3. Germany
4. Denmark.

Answer: (c)

87. During 2017, which SAARC country has notified the Right to Information Act?

1. Nepal
2. Sri Lanka
3. Afghanistan
4. Bhutan.

Answer: (b)

88. As on 31st January 2016, the highest number of law colleges were present in:

1. Madhya Pradesh
2. Uttar Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Andhra Pradesh.

Answer: (b)

89. The first statue of a woman in Parliament Square in England is that of:

1. Margaret Thatcher
2. Mother Theresa
3. Queen Elizabeth – II
4. Millicent Fawcett.

Answer: (d)

90. India emerged as ………. largest holder of the U.S Government Securities at the end of 2016.

1. Twenty-fourth
2. Twelfth
3. Twenty-eighth
4. Fifteenth.

Answer: (b)

Section III – Elementary Mathematics (Numerical Ability)

Direction for Questions 91 to 110: Choose the most appropriate option.

91. In an office, 1/3 of the workers are men, 1/2 of the men are married and 1/3 of the married men have children. If 3/4 of the women are married and 2/3 of the 2/3 married women have children, then the part of workers without children are:

1. 4/9
2. 5/18
3. 17/36
4. 11/18.

Answer: (d)

92. The average weight of three men X, Y and Z is 75 kgs. Another man A joins the group and the average weight now becomes 80 kgs. If another person B whose weight is 5 kgs more than A replaces X, then the average weight of Y, Z, A and B will be 85 kgs. What is the weight of X?

1. 78 kgs
2. 80 kgs
3. 82 kgs
4. 84 kgs.

Answer: (b)

93. A and B complete a work in 12 days, B and C in 8 days and C and A in 16 days. A left after working for 3 days. In how many days more will B and C finish the remaining work?

1. 3 ¾
2. 4 ¾
3. 6 ⅚
4. 7 ¾.

Answer: (b)

94. A train X leaves station A at 3 p.m. and reaches station B at 4.30 p.m., while another train Y leaves station B at 3.00 p.m. and reaches station A at 4.00 p.m. These two trains cross each other at:

1. 20 p.m.
2. 30 p.m.
3. 36 p.m.
4. 40 p.m.

Answer: (c)

95. A vessel contains a mixture of milk and water in the ratio of 5:3 respectively. How much of the mixture must be siphoned off and replaced with water, so that the mixture may be half milk and half water?

1. 1/3
2. 1/4
3. 1/5
4. 1/7.

Answer: (c)

96. Taps A and B can fill a tank in 37 ½ minutes and 45 minutes respectively. Both taps are opened and after some time tap B is turned off. The tank is filled completely in exactly 30 minutes, if tap B is turned off after:

1. 15 minutes
2. 12 minutes
3. 10 minutes
4. 9 minutes.

Answer: (d)

97. A man rows to a place 45 kms distant and back in 12 hours. He realises that he can row 5 kms downstream in the same time as 3 kms against the stream. The velocity of the stream is:

1. 2 kms/hr
2. 5 kms/hr
3. 1 kms/hr
4. 4 kms/hr.

Answer: (a)

98. A trader sells rice at a profit of 20% and uses weights which are 10% less than the correct weight. The total gain earned by him is:

1. 22 2/9%
2. 30%
3. 33 1/3%
4. 35%.

Answer: (c)

99. A piece of cloth costs rupees 75. If the piece is four meters longer and each meter costs rupees 5 less, the cost remains unchanged. What is the length of the piece?

1. 12 meters
2. 10 meters
3. 8 meters
4. 6 meters.

Answer: (d)

100. The Banker’s discount on a sum of money for 18 months is Rs. 600 and the true discount on the same sum for 3 years is Rs. 750/-. The rate percentage is:

1. 20%
2. 15%
3. 12%
4. 10%.

Answer: (a)

101. Praveen has Rs. 4,662 in the form of 2, 5 and 10 rupee notes. If these notes are in the ratio of 3:5:8, the number of five rupees notes with him is:

1. 84
2. 210
3. 250
4. 336.

Answer: (b)

102. A clock was set correctly at 12 O’clock. It loses 10 minutes per hour. What will be the angle between the hour and minute hands of the clock after one hour?

1. 105°
2. 90°
3. 85°
4. 75°.

Answer: (c)

103. The difference between simple interest and compound interest at the same rate for rupees 5,000 for two years is rupees 98. The rate of interest is:

1. 14%
2. 12%
3. 10 ½ %
4. 10%.

Answer: (a)

104. Gold and copper are as heavy as water by 19 and 9 times respectively. The ratio in which these two metals be mixed so that the mixture is 17 times as heavy as water is:

1. 3:4
2. 4:1
3. 2:3
4. 3:2.

Answer: (b)

105. A can do a piece of work in 8 days and B alone can do the same work in 10 days. A and B agreed to do the work together for Rs. 720. With the help of C, they finished the work in 4 days. How much C is to be paid?

1. 70
2. 82
3. 80
4. 72.

Answer: (d)

106. Two men and seven boys can do a work in 14 days. Three men and eight boys can do the same work in 11 days. Further eight men and six boys can do three times the amount of this work in:

1. 18 days
2. 21 days
3. 24 days
4. 30 days.

Answer: (b)

107. A boat travels upstream from A to B and back from B to A in 5 hours. The speed of the boat in still water is 8 km/hour and the speed of the current is 4 km/hour. Then, the distance from A to B is:

1. 9 kms
2. 10 kms
3. 12 kms
4. 15 kms.

Answer: (d)

108. There are two urns. One contains two white balls and four red balls, the other contains three white and nine red balls. All balls are of the same shape and size. From each urn, one ball is drawn. What is the probability of getting both the balls of the same colour?

1. 7/12
2. 1/12
3. 1/24
4. 1/2.

Answer: (a)

109. Age of father 10 years ago was three times the age of his son. After 10 years, father’s age is twice that of his son. The ratio of their present ages is:

1. 11:7
2. 9:5
3. 7:4
4. 7:3.

Answer: (d)

110. Keerthi’s father gave him some money to buy books. He spent half of the money equally to buy books and entertaining his friends. Whatever amount left with him, he deposited half in his savings account and gave Rs. 5 to a poor person as charity. Finally, Keerthi was left with Rs. 20 which he returned to his father. What amount did his father give him initially?

1. 200
2. 160
3. 100
4. 120.

Answer: (c)

Section IV – Legal Aptitude

Follow the instructions carefully and answer the questions.

Question numbers 111-145 consists of legal proposition(s)/ principle(s) (hereinafter referred to as ‘principle’) and facts.

Such principles may or may not be true in the real and legal sense, yet you have to conclusively assume them to be true for the purposes of this Section. In other words, in answering these questions, you must not rely on any principle except the principles those are given herein below for every question. Further, you must not assume any facts other than those stated in the question. The objective of this section is to test your interest towards study of law, research aptitude and problem solving ability, even if the ‘most reasonable conclusion’ arrived at may be absurd or unacceptable for any other reason. It is not the objective of this section to test your knowledge of law. Therefore, to answer a question, principle is to be applied to the given facts and to choose the most appropriate option.

111. Principle: Acceptance of a proposal must be absolute and unqualified.

Facts: A made a proposal to sell his motorcycle to B for rupees 25,000/-. B agreed to buy it for rupees 24,000/-.A sold his motorcycle to C for 26,000/- the next day. B sues A for damages.

1. B will not get any damages from A
2. B will get damages from A
3. B will get the difference of rupees 1,000/- only
4. B can proceed against C.

Answer: (a)

112. Principle: Contract is a written or spoken agreement, with specific terms between two or more persons or entities in which there is a promise to do something in return for a valuable benefit known as consideration. Such an agreement is intended to be enforceable by law. A unilateral contract is one in which there is a promise to pay or give other consideration in return for actual performance.

Facts: A Toilet Soap Manufacturing Company in India in order to promote the sale of their product, published an advertisement in all the Newspapers on January 1, 2017 that the Company has kept a model ignition key of an Audi A3 Car. The advertisement also stated that whoever gets the said key before December 31, 2017 from a soap bar will be gifted with the Audi A3 Car. Mr. Martin, a foreigner who came to India as a Tourist who was staying in a Hotel found a Key similar to same Car Ignition Key. Mr. Martin brought this matter to the notice of the Hotel Manager. The Manager informed Mr. Martin about the Company’s advertisement on January 1, 2017. Mr. Martin wants to claim the Car. Will he succeed?

1. The Soap Company has not entered into a contract with Mr. Martin as he was not in India on January 1, 2017 when the advertisement was published
2. Martin obtained the Key before the stipulated date from the soap bar. So he is covered by the offer of the Soap Company and can claim the car
3. The Hotel Manager who could legally claim the Car as he was the one actually purchased the soap for the use in the Hotel
4. Actual intention of the Company was to promote the sale of the soap.

Answer: (b)

113. Principle: Where one of the parties to a contract was in a position to dominate the decision of the other party, the contract is enforceable only at the option of the party who was in a position to dominate the decision of the other party.

Facts: A doctor asked his patient to make a payment of rupees Ten Lakh for treatment of his fever. The patient paid an amount of rupees Five Lakh and promised to pay the remaining amount after the treatment. After treatment the patient recovered from fever. The doctor demanded the remaining amount from the patient. The patient refused to pay.

1. The contract is enforceable against the doctor
2. The contract is enforceable against the patient by the doctor
3. The contract is not enforceable as doctor was in dominating position
4. The contract is not enforceable without the consent of the patient.

Answer: (b)

114. Principle: It is a case of fraud where a party to a contract knows or believes a fact to be true, but conceals it actively from the other party with a view to induce that person to enter into the contract.

Facts: While taking a life insurance policy, in reply to questions by the insurance company during the inquiry into his proposal, Zameer deliberately concealed the fact of his medical treatment for a serious ailment, which he had undergone only a few weeks ago.

1. The concealment of fact by Zameer amounted to fraud
2. The act of Zameer amounted to innocent misrepresentation
3. The act of Zameer did not amount to fraud, as disclosing the fact would have resulted in exposure of his privacy
4. The act of Zameer did not amount to any misrepresentation.

Answer: (a)

115. Principle: Every agreement, of which the object or consideration is opposed to public policy, is void. An agreement which has the tendency to injure public interest or public welfare is one against public policy. What constitutes an injury to public interest or public welfare would depend upon the times and the circumstances.

Facts: A promises to obtain for B an employment in the public service, and B promises to pay rupees 5,00,000/- to A.

1. The agreement is valid, as it is with consideration for public service
2. The agreement is valid, as it is a contract between two parties with their free consent
3. The agreement is void, as the object and consideration for it is opposed to public policy
4. The agreement is void because rupees 5,00,000/- is excessive.

Answer: (c)

116. Principle: Assault is causing bodily injury to another person by use of physical force.

Facts: Rustum while entering into compartment of a train raised his fist in anger towards a person Sheetal, just in front of him in the row, to get way to enter into the train first, but did not hit him. Rustum has:

1. committed an assault on Sheetal
2. not committed an assault on Sheetal
3. insulted Sheetal
4. rightly showed his anger.

Answer: (b)

117. Principle: Ownership in property consists of right to possess, right to use, right to alienate and right to exclude others. Sale is complete when property gets transferred from the seller to the buyer on sale.

Facts: A sold his car to B. After this, B requested A to keep the car in his care on behalf B for one month. A agreed.

1. Sale of car is complete
2. Sale of car is not complete
3. Sale will be completed when ‘B’ will take the delivery of the car
4. Sale will be automatically completed after the expiry of one month.

Answer: (a)

118. Principle: When a person who has made a promise to another person to do something does not fulfill his promise, the other person becomes entitled to receive, from the person who did not fulfill his promise, compensation in the form of money.

Facts: X made a promise to Y to repair his car engine. Y made the payment for repair. After the repair, Y went for a drive in the same car. While driving the car, Y met with an accident due to bursting of a tyre.

1. X will be entitled to receive compensation from Yin the form of money
2. Y will be entitled to receive compensation from X in the form of money
3. X will not be entitled to receive compensation
4. Y will not be entitled to receive compensation from X.

Answer: (d)

119. Principle: When a person consented to an act to be done by another, he cannot claim any damages resulting from doing that act, provided the act done is the same for which consent is given.

Facts: P submitted a written consent to a surgeon S for undergoing a surgical operation for removal of appendicitis. The surgeon while doing surgery also removed the gall bladder of A:

1. P can claim damages from S
2. P cannot claim damages from S
3. P is not bound to pay expenses of the surgery
4. P is required to pay expenses for surgery for Appendicitis but not for Gall Bladder.

Answer: (a)

120. Principle: An agreement, the terms of which are not certain, or capable of being made certain, is void.

Facts: Sunder agreed to take Bhola’s penthouse on rent for three years at the rate of rupees 12,00,000/- per annum provided the house was put to thorough repairs and the living rooms were decorated according to contemporary style.

1. There is no valid contract because it has vague and uncertain terms, as the term ‘present style’ may mean one thing to Sunder and another to Bhola
2. There is a valid contract because there is an offer from Sunder and acceptance from Bhola
3. It is voidable contract at the option of Bhola
4. There is a valid contract because all the terms of contract are certain and not vague as the rent is fixed by both of them and the term ‘present style’ only can be interpreted to mean the latest style.

Answer: (a)

121. Principle: Whoever takes away with him any minor less than sixteen years of age if a male, or less than eighteen years of age if a female, out of the custody of parents of such minor without the consent of such parents, is said to commit no offence.

Facts: A, a man, took away a girl below sixteen years to Mumbai without informing the parents of the girl.

1. A committed an offence against the girl
2. A committed no offence against the parents of the girl
3. A committed an offence against the girl as well as her parents
4. A committed no offence against the girl as well as her parents.

Answer: (d)

122. Principle: When a person interferes with peaceful possession of another person without the permission of the person in possession of those premises, commits trespass to land.

Facts: T just walked over the land of P to reach his house as it was a short cut. P had displayed a notice that it is not a thoroughfare. P did not cause any damage to the land.

1. T has violated privacy of P
2. T has created nuisance for P
3. T has committed trespass to land
4. T has not committed any trespass on the land of P.

Answer: (c)

123. Principle: Penal laws provide that whoever voluntarily has carnal intercourse against the order of nature with any man or woman, shall be punished for rape.

Facts: A Police Officer found a man engaged in carnal intercourse with an animal. The Police Officer arrested the man and produced him before the Court.

1. Court will punish the police officer
2. Court will not punish the man for rape
3. Court will punish the man for rape
4. Court will not punish the police officer.

Answer: (b)

124. Principle: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of the right of private defence.

Facts: A, under the influence of madness, attempts to kill B. B to save his life kills A.

1. A has committed the offence of attempt to murder
2. A has not committed an offence because he was mad
3. B has committed an offence
4. B has not committed any offence.

Answer: (d)

125. Principle: When a person makes such a statement which lowers other person’s reputation in the estimation of other persons, is liable for committing defamation.

Facts: A writes a letter to B in which he uses abusive language against B and also states that B is a dishonest person. A put the letter in a sealed envelope and delivered it to B.

1. A has committed defamation
2. A has not committed defamation
3. A has not committed moral wrong
4. A has committed a moral wrong.

Answer: (b)

126. Principle: If a party to a contract agrees to it under undue influence of any other party then the party under the undue influence may refuse to perform in accordance with the agreement.

Facts: A, a rich youngster became a member of a religious group and soon he was appointed by P the head of the group as his personal secretary. As per the rules of the group, all officials and staff of the group were supposed to stay in the group’s official premises itself. Some days later, A was asked by P to execute a gift deed in favour of P, in which it was mentioned that all immovable properties in his name are being gifted to P. A was unwilling to execute the deed, but he was forcefully restrained by P and his body guards in P’s office and made A sign the gift deed. Soon after this A left the group and refused to hand over the property as agreed to in the gift deed.

Is A’s action valid?

1. As the gift deed was executed by A, he cannot refuse
2. As Gift is also a contract, the consent of A was not obtained by P while executing the deed
3. A executed the deed, under compulsion and undue influence, and was right in withdrawing from the contract
4. It is illegal for religious groups acquire property from its members.

Answer: (c)

127. Principle: The concept of natural justice is against bias and for the right to a fair hearing. While the term natural justice is often retained as a general concept, and it has largely been replaced and extended by the general ‘duty to act fairly’.

Facts: X, a male employee of a company was dismissed by the employer just on the basis of a complaint by Y, a female employee of the company that X was trying to be too friendly with her and often requested her to accompany him to the canteen.

Is the dismissal of X valid?

1. Yes, because men are not supposed to behave improperly with women and hence there is no violation of any principles of law
2. No, because in the modern times this type of behaviour is common
3. Yes, moral law is antique and therefore, not applicable in modern times, therefore the termination is valid and no violations of the principles of natural justice occurred
4. No, because the employer did not give a chance to X to explain his side, thereby violated the principles of natural justice.

Answer: (d)

128. Principle: A person is said to do a thing fraudulently, if he does that thing with intent to defraud, but not otherwise.

Facts: A occasionally hands over his ATM card to B to withdraw money for A. On one occasion B without the knowledge of A, uses A’s ATM card to find out the balance in A’s account, but does not withdraw any money.

1. B has committed the act fraudulently
2. B has not committed the act fraudulently
3. B has committed misappropriation
4. B has committed breach of faith.

Answer: (b)

129. Principle: Negligence is actionable in law. In simple terms, negligence is the failure to take proper care over something.

Facts: A, a doctor, conducted a hysterectomy sincerely on B and left a small cotton swab inside the abdomen. As a consequence of which B developed some medical problems and had to undergo another surgery.

Is A liable?

1. Liability for negligence does not arise here as A performed the operation sincerely
2. A is not liable as he did not foresee any consequences at the time of surgery
3. As only a small swab was left in the abdomen, there was no negligence
4. A is liable for the negligence as he failed to take proper care during the surgery.

Answer: (d)

130. Principle: A contract would be invalid and unlawful, if the contract is for an immoral or illegal purpose.

Facts: P, was a young and helpless widow, living on the pavement. R, a neighbour gave her a house, registered in her name, on the condition that she should allow R to keep his smuggled goods and drugs in her house. After the registration was done, according to the condition in the contract, R’s agents went to keep some packets in her house, she refused. R told her the condition under which the house was given to her. She still refused.

Is P justified in her action?

1. P is not justified as she did not have the right to deny R’s request.
2. As R was making the contract for illegal activities, P’s stand is valid in law
3. R can take back the house by cancelling the transfer deed
4. P is right as she did not like smuggled goods to be kept in her house.

Answer: (b)

131. Principle: Under the Employees Compensation Act, 1923, an employer is liable to pay compensation to his workmen for injuries sustained by them by an accident arising out of and in the course of employment.

Facts: M, the Manager of SRK Industries asked his secretary S to submit a report at the Government Labour Office. S submitted the report as directed. On his way back S met one of his class mates. He then decided to have a cup of tea together on a way side restaurant. Sometime later, S got a message from his office to report back as it was long time since he left the office. S rushed back on his motor cycle. On his way back a Truck which was coming from a side road hit S. He was admitted in a nearby hospital with multiple injuries. He claims compensation under the Employees Compensation Act from his employer.

1. The Employer is liable to pay compensation as the accident took place arising out of and in the course of employment
2. The Employer is not liable as the truck driver was negligent
3. The Employer is liable as S had to rush back to the office, because of the message from the office
4. The Employer is not liable as he was admitted in a private hospital and not a Government Hospital.

Answer: (a)

132. Principle: According to section 2 of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947, ‘Industrial dispute means any dispute or difference between employers and employers or between employers and workmen or between workmen and workmen, which is connected with the employment or non-employment or the terms of employment or with the conditions of labour of any person’.

Facts: The employees of DK Enterprises met the management and requested half a day leave to allow them to celebrate a lunar eclipse, which was going to happen two days later. The management refused the request.

Does this situation amount to an ‘industrial dispute’?

1. Yes, because there is some difference of opinion it would be an industrial dispute
2. No as declaring holidays is a prerogative of the employer. So no industrial dispute
3. As the difference of opinion between the employees and employer is on declaration of holiday it amounts to an issue connected with employment or with the terms of employment and hence, an industrial dispute
4. No as lunar eclipse is unconnected with employment.

Answer: (c)

133. Principle: A master shall be liable for the fraudulent acts of his servants committed in the course of employment. However, the master and third parties must exercise reasonable care in this regard.

Facts: Rahul was a door to door salesman with United Manufacturing Company (the Company). The Company was manufacturing Water Purifiers. Rahul, along with the Company’s products, used to carry Water Purifiers manufactured by his Cousin in a local Industrial Estate. He used to sell the local product at a lower rate giving the impression to the buyers that he is offering a discount on the Company’s product. The Company Management detected the fraudulent activity of Rahul and dismissed him from service. Rahul still continued to carry on with his activity of selling the local product pretending that he was still a salesman of the Company. Several customers got cheated in this process. The fraud was noticed by the Company when the customers began to complain about the product. The customers demanded the Company to compensate their loss.

1. The Company is not liable as Rahul was dismissed by the Company
2. The liability rests with the local manufacturer as it was a defective product
3. The Company is liable to the customers who purchased the local product from Rahul only till he remained as a salesman of the Company
4. The Company is liable to compensate all the customers as it did not inform the public about Rahul’s fraudulent conduct and the subsequent dismissal.

Answer: (d)

134. Principle: An offer made by one party when accepted by another makes it a contract.

Transactions:

1. P offered to sell his house for Rs. 20 lakhs to R; R told P that he was interested to buy a house for 15 lakhs only.
2. C was looking for a house for not more than 25 lakhs; P informed C that his house was available for 20 lakhs.
3. K wanted to buy some old furniture; L told K that he would sell his furniture for Rs.10,000.
4. R advertised to sell his old car for a price of Rs. Three lakhs; S found the advertisement and offered to buy it for Rs. 2 lakhs 50 thousand; R agrees to sell it to S.

Which among the above is actually a contract?

1. Situations 1 and 2 are contracts
2. Situation 3 only is a contract
3. Situation 4 only is a contract
4. Situations 2 and 4 are contracts.

Answer: (c)

135. Principle: Every agreement, by which any party is restricted absolutely from enforcing his right in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary Tribunals, is void to that extent. The law also provides that nobody can confer jurisdiction to a civil Court by an agreement between parties.

Facts: A and B entered into a valid contract for rendering certain service. A clause in the contract was that in case of any dispute arose out of the contract, it shall be referred to for Arbitration only.

Is the contract valid?

1. The contract is valid but the clause regarding Arbitration is void
2. Arbitration is also a valid dispute settlement machinery recognized by law and hence, the entire contract is valid
3. The parties were trying to confer jurisdiction to some authority to decide a dispute and hence, the clause would be invalid
4. Arbitrator cannot be termed as an ordinary Tribunal. Hence, the agreement is void and would be unenforceable.

Answer: (b)

136. Principle: According to the law of trade unions in India, no suit or other legal proceeding shall be maintainable in any civil Court against any registered trade union or any officer or member thereof in respect of any act done in contemplation or in furtherance of a trade dispute.

Facts: Soloman, the Secretary of a registered Trade Union took a loan from a Bank for the higher education of his daughter. Soon after completing the course she was married to an NRI Engineer. Solomon did not repay the loan. The Bank demanded the payments from Soloman and warned him that the Bank will take suitable legal action against him.

Identify the legal position in this regard.

1. The Bank cannot initiate any action against Soloman as he is the Secretary of a Registered Trade Union
2. The Bank can recover the loan amount from the Trade Union as Soloman is the Secretary of the Union
3. As Soloman did not use the loan amount for his use and hence, no action can be initiated against him
4. The Bank can file a suit for recovery of the loan amount against Soloman as he took the loan for a personal purpose and in such case no immunity will work.

Answer: (d)

137. Principle: Section 34 of Indian Penal Code provides that ‘When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all, each of such persons is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone.’

Facts: Three vagabonds, Sanju, Dilbag and Sushil decided to commit burglary. In the night, Sushil opened the lock and they broke into a rich man’s house when the entire family was on a pilgrimage. Sanju had gone to that house earlier in connection with some cleaning job. There was only a servant lady in the house. Hearing some sounds from the master bed room, the servant switched on the lights and went up to the room from where she heard the sound. Noticing that the servant was going to cry for help, Sanju grabbed her and covered her mouth with his hands and dragged her into the nearby room. The other two were collecting whatever they could from the room. When they were ready to go out of the house, they looked for Sanju and found him committing rape on the servant. They all left the house and the servant reported the matter to the police and identified Sanju. Subsequently, all three were arrested in connection with the offences of house breaking, burglary and rape.

Identify the legal liability of the three.

1. All three are liable for all the offences as there was common intention to commit the crimes
2. Only Dilbag and Sushil are liable for burglary in looting the house, and all three will be liable for housebreaking and rape as they did not stop Sanju from committing the offence and hence were accomplice to the offence
3. Only Sanju will be liable for rape as he was the one who actually committed the offence
4. Sanju will be liable only for housebreaking and rape as he did not participate in the burglary.

Answer: (c)

138. Principle: In criminal law, misappropriation is the intentional, illegal use of the property or funds of another person for one’s own use or other unauthorized purpose, particularly by a public official, a trustee of a trust, an executor or administrator of a dead person’s estate or by any person with a responsibility to care for and protect another’s assets. Embezzlement is misappropriation when the funds involved have been lawfully entrusted to the embezzler. On the contrary, theft is the illegal taking of another person’s property or services without that person’s permission or consent with the intent to deprive the rightful owner of it.

Facts: A went for swimming at the Municipal Swimming Pool. A handed over all his valuables, including some cash to X, the guard on duty for safe custody, as notified by the Municipality. After swimming for an hour, A came out and searched for X. He found another guard on duty and that guard informed A that X had gone home after completing his shift and did not hand over anything to be given to A. A registered a complaint with the police. X was traced but he told the police that he sold all the valuables and the entire cash was used for drinking liquor.

What offence, if any, was/were committed by X?

1. X is liable for theft as he took A’s property without X’s permission
2. X is liable for criminal misappropriation and embezzlement
3. X is not guilty of criminal misappropriation as he did not make any personal gain out of those items with him
4. If at all X is liable, it is for criminal misappropriation only.

Answer: (b)

139. Principle: The Constitution of India guarantees certain fundamental rights to its citizens. The Constitution also provides that these rights cannot be taken away by state even by a law. For violation of this, the person adversely affected by the law may approach the High Court or the Supreme Court for the issuance of an appropriate writ. One of these rights includes the freedom to form association that implies the right to join an association or not to join such an association.

Facts: Owing to some industrial disturbances created by XATU, one of the several trade unions in AB Chemicals (Pvt) Ltd., the Company issued a circular to all its employees that as far as possible the employees may disassociate with XATU. Navin is an employee of AB Chemicals and the current General Secretary of XATU. Aggrieved by this circular, which affected the fundamental rights of his and other members of the Union, approaches the High Court of the State for a relief.

Identify the most reasonable legal proposition.

1. The circular interferes with the freedom guaranteed by the Constitution and hence the High Court can issue an appropriate writ
2. The Company’s circular is illegal and has to be quashed by the Court
3. The prohibition against any imposition of restriction against a fundamental right is not applicable to anybody other than the State and hence Navin will not get any relief from the High Court
4. Circular issued by a Company amounts to law in the constitutional sense and hence, the High Court can issue a writ as pleaded for by Navin.

Answer: (c)

140. Principle: There are legal provisions to give authority to a person to use necessary force against an assailant or wrong-doer for the purpose of protecting one’s own body and property as also another’s body and property when immediate aid from the State machinery is not readily available; and in so doing he is not answerable in law for his deeds.

Facts: X, a rich man was taking his morning walk. Due to the threat of robbers in the locality, he was carrying his pistol also. From the opposite direction, another person was coming with a ferocious looking dog. All of a sudden, the dog which was on a chain held by the owner, started barking at X. The owner of the dog called the dog to be calm. They crossed each other without any problem. But suddenly, the dog started barking again from a distance. X immediately took out his pistol. By seeing the pistol the dog stopped barking and started walking with the owner. However, X shot at the dog which died instantly. The owner of the dog files a complaint against X, which in due course reached the Magistrate Court. X pleads the right of private defence.

Decide.

1. Shooting a fierce dog is not to be brought under the criminal law. So the case should be dismissed
2. There was no imminent danger to X as the dog stopped barking and was walking with the owner. Hence, shooting it amounted to excessive use of the right of private defence and hence, liable for killing the dog
3. As there was no guarantee that the dog would not bark again, shooting it was a precautionary measure and hence, within the right available to X under law
4. The right of private defence is available to persons against assailants or wrong-doers only and a dog does not fall in this category.

Answer: (b)

141. Principle: According to law, a person is deemed to have attained the age of majority when he completes the age of 18 years, except in the case of a person where a guardian of a minor’s person or property has been appointed under the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890 or where the superintendence of a minor’s property is assumed by a Court of Wards. Indian law expressly forbids a minor from entering into a contract. Hence, any contract entered into by a minor is void ab initio regardless of whether the other party was aware of his minority or not. Further, though a minor is not competent to contract, nothing in the Contract Act prevents him from making the other party bound to the minor.

Facts: Lal executed a promissory note in favour of Gurudutt, aged 16 years stating that he would pay Gurudutt a sum of Rs. 2 Lakhs when he attains the age of majority. On attaining the age of 18, Gurudutt demanded the amount from Lal, who refused to pay. Gurudutt wants to take legal action against Lal.

Identify the most appropriate legal position from the following:

1. Lal argues that as per the Guardians and Wards Act, 1890, Gurudutt can claim the money only after he attains the age of 21
2. Gurudutt should not have entered into a contract with Lal when he was a minor
3. Lal was not aware of the fact that Gurudutt was a minor
4. A promissory note duly executed in favour of a minor is not void and can be sued upon by him, because he though incompetent to contract, may yet accept a benefit.

Answer: (d)

142. Principle: According to law, a person who find goods belonging to another and takes them into his custody, is subject to the same responsibility as a Bailee. Bailee is a person or party to whom goods are delivered for a purpose, such as custody or repair, without transfer of ownership. The finder of the goods legally can sell the goods found by him under certain circumstances including the situation that the owner refuses to pay the lawful charges of the finder.

Facts: P, a college student, while coming out of a Cricket Stadium found a necklace, studded with apparently precious diamonds. P kept it for two days thinking that the owner would notify it in a local newspaper. Since he did not notice any such notification, P published a small classified advertisement in a local newspaper. In two days’ time, P was contacted by a film actor claiming that it was her necklace and requested P to return it to her. P told her that she should compensate him for the advertisement charges then only he would return it otherwise he will sell it and make good his expenses. The film star told P that she had advertised in a national newspaper about her lost necklace which was lost somewhere in the Cricket Stadium. The advertisement was published for three consecutive days incurring a large expenditure for her. Mentioning all this she refuses to pay P and claims the necklace back.

Which among the following is the most appropriate answer to this?

1. As the film star had notified in the newspaper, P ought to have read it and contacted her instead of publishing another notification. So he cannot claim any compensation
2. P was requesting the film star for the actual expenditure incurred by him before returning the necklace. This request is legally sustainable
3. As it was wrong on the part of P to bargain over a property belonging to a celebrity and he should have accepted some gift which might have been given by the film star and returned the necklace instead of threatening her that he would sell it
4. The film star was right in refusing P, as she did not offer any reward for anyone who would return the necklace.

Answer: (b)

143. Principle: A violation of a legal right of someone, whether results in a legal injury or not, gives rise to an action in tort for compensation. At the same time, an action by someone, which results in some loss or damage to somebody else is not actionable, if there is no violation of a right of that somebody.

Facts: AB Coaching Centre was a popular CLAT coaching academy with several good trainers. A lot of aspirants used to attend its coaching classes from all over and was making good profit. This was going on for the past several years. During a session, T, one of the very good and popular trainers of ABCC, had some difference of opinion with the owner of ABCC and left the Coaching Centre. In August 2016, T started another Entrance Coaching Centre closer to ABCC which resulted in a substantial drop in its students and huge financial loss. The owner of ABCC wants to file a case against T for the loss sustained by ABCC.

What do you think is the right legal position?

1. T will be liable to compensate the loss to ABCC
2. T has not violated any of ABCC’s legal right though they sustained some financial loss, and not legally bound to compensate ABCC
3. T should have consulted ABCC before starting his Coaching Centre
4. T started the new Coaching Centre near ABCC intentionally, and shall be liable to compensate the loss of ABCC.

Answer: (b)

144. Principle: When a person falsifies something with the intent to deceive another person or entity is forgery and is a criminal act. Changing or adding the signature on a document, deleting it, using or possessing the false writing is also considered forgery. In the case of writing/painting to fall under the definition, the material included must have been fabricated or altered significantly in order to represent something it is actually not.

Facts: David made a living traveling from city to city, selling paintings that he claimed were done by great artists. Since the artists’ signatures were in place, many people fell for them and purchased the paintings. One of these artists saw three of his alleged paintings in a City gallery containing his name. He knew these were not his works and he complained to the police. Police traced David and initiated legal proceedings.

Is David guilty of any offence?

1. David is guilty of forgery as the addition of the signature was with an intention to make people believe that those were the paintings of the great artists
2. David is not guilty of any offence as he was selling the art pieces for his living
3. Those who buy the art pieces from David ought to have been careful in checking it and ensuring that they were originals before purchasing it
4. There is no point in taking legal action against David as the signature has not done any alteration to the art work.

Answer: (a)

145. Principle: When a person falsifies something with the intent to deceive another person or entity is forgery and is a criminal act. Changing or adding the signature on a document, deleting it, using or possessing the false writing is also considered forgery. In the case of writing to fall under the definition, the material included must have been fabricated or altered significantly in order to represent something it is actually not.

Facts: John was a publisher of ancient books and papers. In one of his books on the World Wars, he gave photograph of some letters written by famous historic personalities. A researcher in history noted that in the pictures of some of the letters printed in the book, John had added some words or sentences in his own handwriting to give completeness to the sentences, so that the readers will get a clear picture of the writer’s intention. The researcher challenges the originality of those pictures and claims that the book containing the forged letters should be banned.

Examine the validity of the researcher’s demand.

1. As forgery amounts to adding or deleting anything from an original document, the demand of the researcher is valid
2. Allowing forged publications to be circulated among the public is as good as committing fraud on the public, so the publication should be banned
3. The additions in the letters were made by the publisher in his own handwriting would have made material alteration to the original meaning and hence amounted to forgery
4. The additions were made to give clarity to the original document and did not in any sense change the contents of the documents and hence, there is no forgery as alleged by the researcher.

Answer: (d)

Directions for Question 146 to 160: Legal phrases are followed by four meanings. Choose the most appropriate option.

146. Bona vacantia

1. Vacant land
2. Goods that have no owner
3. Vacant building
4. Order of the court for eviction.

Answer: (b)

147. Caveat venditor

1. Buyer beware
2. Manufacturer beware
3. Seller beware
4. Transporter beware.

Answer: (c)

148. Faux pas

1. Tactless mistake
2. Cheating
3. Pausing for a while
4. Passage of time.

Answer: (a)

149. In pari delicto

1. Where the lawyer is at fault
2. Where the judge is at fault
3. Where the petitioner is at fault
4. Where both parties to a dispute are equally at fault.

Answer: (d)

150. Lex loci

1. Law of a place
2. Latin regulations
3. Italian laws
4. Domestic laws.

Answer: (a)

151. Malus animus

1. Animal farm
2. Bad intention
3. Good intention
4. Physical force.

Answer: (b)

152. Per incuriam

1. Supremacy of law
2. Supremacy of the Constitution
3. Mistaken decision
4. Mistaken identity.

Answer: (c)

153. Pari passu

• On an unequal status
• Supremacy of law
• Diverse nature
• On equal footing.

Answer: (d)

154. Autrefois convict

1. Formerly convicted
2. To be convicted
3. Failed prosecution
4. Doubtful conviction.

Answer: (a)

155. Lis pendens

1. No legal issues involved
2. Facts of case proved
3. Pending suit
4. Decided case.

Answer: (c)

156. ‘Sine die’ means:

1. Adjourned for the day and scheduled to meet next day again
2. Adjourned for the day and meet after one week
3. Adjourned without fixing any date for the next meeting
4. Adjourned for the day and meet after one month.

Answer: (c)

157. ‘Punctum temporis’ means:

1. Temporary position
2. Point of time
3. Functional authority
4. Timely assistance.

Answer: (b)

158. ‘Turpis arbiter’ means:

1. Corrupt prosecutor
2. Inefficient judge
3. Corrupt judge
4. Inefficient lawyer.

Answer: (c)

159. ‘Jus gentium’ means:

1. Global administrative law
2. Law of Societies
3. Law among Nations
4. Global justice.

Answer: (c)

160. ‘Animus posssidendi’ means:

1. Intention to return
2. Intention to harm
3. Intent to contract
4. Intention to possess.

Answer: (d)

Section V – Logical Reasoning

Direction for Questions 161 to 163: Read the following information carefully and choose the appropriate option in the questions given below.

1. There is a group of five persons – A, B, C, D and E
2. One of them is a Singer, one is a Dancer, one is a Painter, one is a Teacher and one is a Doctor
3. Three of them – A, C and Doctor prefer rice to chapatti and two of them – B and the Painter prefer chapatti to rice
4. The Teacher, D and A are friends to one another but two of these prefer chapatti to rice
5. The Singer is C’s brother.

161. Who is a Singer?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D.

Answer: (a)

162. Who is a Teacher?

1. E
2. C
3. B
4. D.

Answer: (b)

163. Who is a Dancer?

1. A
2. C
3. D
4. E.

Answer: (c)

Direction for Questions 164 to 166: Read the following information carefully and choose the most appropriate option in the questions given below.

1. Six flats on a floor in two rows facing North and South are allotted to P, Q, R, S, T and U
2. Q gets a North-facing flat and is not next to S
3. S and U get diagonally opposite flats
4. R, next to U gets a South-facing flat and T gets a North-facing flat.

164. Which of the following combination gets South-facing flats?

1. Q, T, S
2. U, P ,T
3. U, R, P
4. data inadequate.

Answer: (c)

165. Whose flat is between Q and S?

1. T
2. U
3. R
4. P.

Answer: (a)

166. If the flats of T and P are interchanged, who’s flat will be next to that of U?

1. P
2. Q
3. T
4. R.

Answer: (d)

Direction for Questions 167 and 168: Which alternative applies to the following Statement or Assumptions? Choose the most appropriate option.

167. ‘There is no man that is not naturally good’ is equivalent to the proposition:

1. Some men are naturally good
2. Some men are not naturally good
3. No men are good
4. All men are naturally good.

Answer: (d)

168. ‘Only ignorant people believe in witchcraft’ is equivalent to:

1. All persons who believe in witchcraft are ignorant
2. No ignorant persons are those who do not believe in witchcraft
3. Some ignorant persons are not those who believe in witchcraft
4. There is no link between ignorance and witchcraft.

Answer: (a)

169. Find the odd one out from the following:

1. Exact estimate
2. Only choice
3. Clearly visible
4. Open secret.

Answer: (c)

170. Find the odd one out from the following:

1. Expedition
2. Cruise
3. Crusade
4. Campaign.

Answer: (b)

Direction for Questions 171 to 200: Choose the most appropriate option for each of the following questions.

171. Pointing to a photograph, Prakash said, ‘She is the daughter of my grandfather’s only son’. How is Prakash related to the girl in the photograph?

1. Father
2. Brother
3. Uncle
4. Cousin.

Answer: (b)

172. When Ravi saw Ramesh, he recalled, ‘He is the son of the father of my daughter’.

Who is Ramesh?

1. Brother-in-law
2. Brother
3. Cousin
4. Uncle.

Answer: (a)

173. Sunil’s school bus is facing North when it reaches his school. After starting from Sunil’s house, it turned right twice and then left before reaching the school. What direction the bus was facing when it left the bus stop in front of Sunil’s house?

1. East
2. North
3. South
4. West.

Answer: (d)

174. John wants to go to the university. He starts from his house which is in the East and comes to a crossing. The road to his left ends in a theatre, straight ahead is the hospital. In which direction is the University?

1. East
2. North
3. South
4. West.

Answer: (b)

175. Two ladies and two men are playing bridge and seated at North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East. Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex. One man is facing South. Which direction are the ladies facing to?

1. North and West
2. East and West
3. South and East
4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

176. ‘Some of the valuable books are seldom read’, means:

1. All the valuable books are not read
2. Some of the valuable books are read
3. Some of the valuable books are not read
4. All the valuable books are read.

Answer: (c)

No parrots are black.

All crows are black.

From the above premises which one of the following conclusions is true?

1. Some crows are not parrots
2. No crows are parrots
3. Some parrots are not crows
4. No conclusion can be drawn.

Answer: (b)

178. Pointing to a girl in the photograph, Ram said, ‘Her mother's brother is the only son of my mother’s father’. How is the girl's mother related to Ram?

1. Mother
2. Sister
3. Aunt
4. Grandmother.

Answer: (c)

179. A girl introduced a boy as the son of the daughter of the father of her uncle. The boy is girl's:

1. Son-in-law
2. Son
3. Uncle
4. Brother.

Answer: (d)

180. If South-East becomes North, North-East becomes West and so on, what will West become?

1. South-East
2. East
3. North
4. North-West.

Answer: (a)

181. A man walks 1 km. towards East and then he turns to South and walks 5 kms. Again he turns to East and walks 2 kms. After this he turns to North and walks 9 kms. Now, how far is he from his starting point?

1. 10 kms
2. 9 kms
3. 4 kms
4. 5 kms.

Answer: (d)

182. Vaishnavi prefers Economics to Maths, English to Social Science, and Political Science to History. If she prefers Maths to History, and Social Science to Maths, which is Vaishnavi’s least preferred subject?

1. History
2. Maths
3. Social Science
4. Economics.

Answer: (a)

183. Wave : Crest as ……… : Peak.

1. Mountain
2. Water
3. River
4. Land.

Answer: (a)

184. Crumb : Bread is as

1. Inch : Unit
2. Water : Vessel
3. Splinter : Wood
4. Powder : Face.

Answer: (c)

185. A person who renounces religious or political belief or principle is called:

1. Apostle
2. Antiquarian
3. Ascetic
4. Apostate.

Answer: (d)

186. …………. is a hater of knowledge and learning.

1. Misogynist
2. Mystique
3. Misologist
4. Moroccan.

Answer: (c)

187. What is meant by ‘Alliteration’?

1. Words which sound alike but have different meanings
2. The occurrence of the same letter or sound at the beginning of adjacent or closely connected words
3. Acts of an environmentally conscious person
4. Act of literary modification.

Answer: (b)

188. If in a code language, ‘ABANDON’ is written as ‘aramoim’; ‘BORE’ is written as ‘rits’ and ‘BASIL’ is written as ‘rabut’, then what is the original word for the code: ‘bituo’?

1. SOFIA
2. SOLID
3. NASIA
4. SOMAD.

Answer: (b)

189. How many times from 4 pm to 10 pm, the hands of a clock are at right angles?

1. 6
2. 11
3. 10
4. 9.

Answer: (b)

190. Ravi was showing a photograph to his friend, Gopi. Pointing at a boy in the photograph, Ravi said: ‘The boy sitting at the left is the son of the wife of the only son of the grand-mother of my younger brother’.

What is the relation between the boy in the photograph and Ravi?

1. First Cousins
2. Brothers
3. Ravi’s brother-in-law
4. Nephew and uncle.

Answer: (b)

191. In a military secret service map, South-East is shown as North, North-East as West and so on. What will West become?

1. South-East
2. North-East
3. South-West
4. North-West.

Answer: (a)

192. The birthday of Ms. Y was celebrated six days before Ms. X, who was born on 4th October 1999. The Independence Day of that year fell on Sunday. On which day did Ms. Y celebrate her birthday, if it was not a leap year?

1. Tuesday
2. Monday
3. Sunday
4. Wednesday.

Answer: (a)

193. In the series of alphabets given below, which is the missing alphabet series?

AX, DU, GR, …., ML

1. JN
2. HQ
3. IK
4. JO.

Answer: (d)

194. Mare is to Horse as:

1. Deer is to Buck
2. Sow is to Boar
3. Pony is to Donkey
4. Geese is to Duck.

Answer: (b)

195. Coding and decoding 9 : 72 : : 8 : ?

1. 34
2. 64
3. 18
4. 43.

Answer: (b)

196. If in a certain code, the word MILITARY is written as 12324567, then in the same code, the word TAIL will be written as:

1. 2345
2. 4523
3. 5432
4. 3254.

Answer: (b)

197. There were twelve dozens of chocolates with a shopkeeper. Ten chocolates were distributed by the shopkeeper to the children of his colony. The shopkeeper then added two more dozens of chocolates in his stock. If the shopkeeper divided the total chocolates equally in two different packets, then how many chocolates were there in each packet?

1. 79
2. 89
3. 158
4. 152.

Answer: (a)

198. In a company, 60% workers are males. If the number of female workers in the company is 800, what is the number of male workers in the company?

1. 1900
2. 1200
3. 1400
4. 1600.

Answer: (b)

199. 199. If 27th March, 2011 was Sunday, what was the day on 27th June, 2011?

1. Sunday
2. Monday
3. Saturday
4. Tuesday.

Answer: (b)

200. Identify the statement which cannot be accepted

1. Odyssey is an ancient epic
2. Human race will become extinct sooner or later
3. Almost one-third of the human body is made up of water
4. The earth revolves around the sun in 366 days.

Answer: (c)

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