Delhi Judiciary Prelims Examination 2015 Solved Paper | Delhi Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

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Delhi Judiciary Prelims Examination

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DELHI JUDICIARY PRELIMS 2015 QUESTION PAPER| Click Here to Download PDF

DELHI JUDICIARY PRELIMS PAPER

2015

Number of questions- 200

1. Which of the following terms means “under consideration of a Court of Law”?

  1. Sine qua non
  2. Res judicata
  3. Double jeopardy
  4. Sub judice.

Answer: (d)

2. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Union Budget 2015-16?

  1. 5 more AIIMS in Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Bihar and Assam
  2. University of Disability Studies will be established in Kerala
  3. 150 crores allotted for Atal Innovation Mission
  4. Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) will further be expanded to 2.3 crore from 1 crore.

Answer: (d)

3. Which recent judgment of the Supreme Court deals with the duty of the police to register a First Information Report? Choose the correct answer from the following:

  1. Shreya Singhal
  2. Lalita Kumari
  3. Adalat Prasad
  4. Devendranath Padhi.

Answer: (b)

4. Which tribe has the largest population in India according to the 2011 census?

  1. Garos
  2. Bhils
  3. Todas
  4. Santhals.

Answer: (b)

5. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court held that ‘Right to Sleep’ is a fundamental right?

  1. Naz Foundation Case
  2. In Re Ramlila Maidan Case
  3. Anna Hazare Case
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

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6. Which provision of the Indian Constitution entitles Right to Education as a Fundamental Right?

  1. Article 21
  2. Article 41
  3. Article 21A
  4. Article 31.

Answer: (c)

7. The Relief by way of mandatory injunction is:

  1. Prohibitory
  2. Mandatory
  3. Discretionary
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

8. Section 10 of Civil Procedure Code can come into operation:

  1. Before filing of written statement in the subsequent suit
  2. Before settlement of issues in subsequent suit
  3. After settlement of issues in subsequent suit
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

9. A suit filed in representative capacity can be withdrawn, compromised and abandoned etc. by the plaintiff:

  1. Without notice to all the persons interested
  2. After notice to all the persons interested
  3. Both a and b
  4. Either a or b.

Answer: (b)

10. Res Judicata does not operate:

  1. Between co-defendants
  2. Between co-plaintiffs
  3. Against a pro forma defendant
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

11. Attachment before judgment, in a suit dismissed in default:

  1. Revives automatically on the restoration of the suit
  2. Does not revive automatically on the restoration of the suit
  3. May or may not revive depending on the facts and circumstances of the case
  4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (b)

12. The Code of Civil Procedure recognises:

  1. Preliminary decree
  2. Final decree
  3. Partly preliminary and partly final
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

13. Which of the following suits is of civil nature?

  1. Suits relating to right to property
  2. Suits relating to right to worship
  3. Suits for damages for civil wrong
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

14. Which Section of CPC declares that the Court shall presume, upon the production of any document purporting to be a certified copy of a foreign judgment that such judgment was pronounced by a court of competent jurisdiction, unless the contrary appears on the record, or is proved?

  1. Section 13
  2. Section 14
  3. Section 19
  4. Section 20.

Answer: (b)

15. In a suit for recovery instituted by A against B, despite the summons of suit having been duly served upon B, he did not appear on the date fixed in the summons on 1/3/1993. The Court consequently on 1/3/1993 passed an ex parte order against B and listed the case for 3/4/1993 for ex parte evidence of A.

  1. B can participate in further proceedings of the case
  2. B can seek setting aside of the ex parte order if he is able to show good cause for his non-appearance
  3. Both a and b are correct
  4. Both a and b are incorrect.

Answer: (c)

16. Mark the correct statement in relation to Order XXIII of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908.

  1. At any time after the institution of a suit, the plaintiff may withdraw his suit or abandon part of his claim
  2. If a plaintiff withdraws from a suit without the Court’s permission, he is precluded from instituting a fresh suit against the same defendant in respect of the same subject matter
  3. If the Court is satisfied that a suit must fail by reason of some formal defect or there are other sufficient grounds, it may allow the withdrawal from suit
  4. Where there are several plaintiffs, the court can allow one of them to withdraw, even if the other co-plaintiffs do not consent to such withdrawal.

Answer: (d)

17. Arrest of a person in execution of a decree has been provided:

  1. Under Section 53 of the Code of Civil Procedure
  2. Under Section 54 of the Code of Civil Procedure
  3. Under Section 56 of the Code of Civil Procedure
  4. Under Section 55 of the Code of Civil Procedure.

Answer: (d)

18. Preliminary Decree can be passed in a suit:

  1. For partition
  2. For partnership
  3. For possession and mesne profit
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

19. Which Section of the Code of Criminal Procedure provides protection to the members of Armed Forces from arrest?

  1. Section 41
  2. Section 45
  3. Section 46
  4. Section 50.

Answer: (b)

20. In a suit for partition, three defendants were set ex parte. A preliminary decree was passed. On the application of one of the three defendants, the Court set aside the decree as against all the defendants. The order of the court is:

  1. Legal
  2. Irregular
  3. Unjustified
  4. Illegal.

Answer: (a)

21. After the trial of the suit, the Court found that the suit was barred by the principle of res judicata and did not discuss and answer the other issues. The procedure adopted by the court is:

  1. Legal
  2. Justified
  3. Proper
  4. Illegal.

Answer: (d)

22. When a court desires that its decree shall be executed by another court, it shall send to the other court:

  1. A decree and certificate of non-satisfaction
  2. Judgment and decree
  3. Judgment and execution petition
  4. Execution petition and certificate of non-satisfaction.

Answer: (a)

23. A court to which decree has been transferred for execution cannot while executing:

  1. Order attachment
  2. Execute the decree against the legal representatives of the deceased judgment debtor
  3. Send the decree for execution to another court
  4. Order execution at the instance of the transferee of the decree.

Answer: (d)

24. Under Civil Procedure Code, in which of the following cases the court cannot reject the plaint?

  1. Where the relief claimed is undervalued, and the plaintiff, on being required by the court to correct the valuation within a time to be fixed by the Court, fails to do so
  2. Where the suit appears from the statement in the plaint to be barred by any law
  3. When the plaint is insufficiently stamped and the plaintiff on being required by the Court to supply the requisite stamp-paper within a time to be fixed by the court, fails to do so
  4. Where the plaint discloses a cause of action.

Answer: (d)

25. Under Civil Procedure Code, when application for review is dismissed:

  1. Appeal can be filed against the Order
  2. No appeal lies
  3. With the permission of Court, appeal can be filed against the order
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

26. The object of oral examination under Order X Rule 2 of CPC is:

  1. To elucidate the matters in controversy in the suit
  2. To record evidence
  3. To secure admissions
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

27. When was the Constitution of India adopted?

  1. 26th January 1950
  2. 15th August 1947
  3. 15th August 1950
  4. 26th November 1949.

Answer: (d)

28. In which year was the first amendment to the Constitution effected?

  1. 1950
  2. 1952
  3. 1951
  4. 1953.

Answer: (c)

29. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with the Fundamental Rights?

  1. Part I
  2. Part II
  3. Part III
  4. Part IV.

Answer: (c)

30. The Seven Judge Bench of the Supreme Court of India in Pradeep Kumar Biswas v. Indian Institute of Chemical Biology 2002 (5) SCC 111 overruled its judgments in the case of:

  1. Sabhajit Tewary
  2. R.D. Shetty
  3. Ajay Hasia
  4. Basi Reddy.

Answer: (a)

31. Which Article in the Constitution of India outlaws untouchability and makes it a punishable offence?

  1. Article 12
  2. Article 13
  3. Article 17
  4. Article 18.

Answer: (c)

32. Which Article of the Constitution of India guarantees citizens the right to settle in any part of the territory of India?

  1. Article 19(1)(a)
  2. Article 19(1)(d)
  3. Article 19(1)(e)
  4. Article 19(1)(g).

Answer: (c)

33. Article 48-A of the Constitution of India deals with:

  1. Right to work, education and public assistance
  2. Living wage, etc. for workers
  3. Separation of Judiciary from executive
  4. Protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forests and wildlife.

Answer: (d)

34. Article 30 guarantees the right:

  1. To freedom of religion
  2. To minorities to establish educational institutions of their choice
  3. To be informed of the grounds for one’s arrest
  4. Against trafficking and forced labour.

Answer: (b)

35. Article 39(4) of the Constitution of India obliges the State to secure:

  1. An adequate means of livelihood
  2. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
  3. The material resources are so distributed to serve the common good
  4. The health and strength of workers, men and women and the tender age of children are not abused and the citizens are not forced by economic necessity to enter avocations unsuited to their age or strength.

Answer: Question Deleted

36. Which Article of the Constitution of India obliges the State to organise Village Panchayats?

  1. Article 40
  2. Article 41
  3. Article 42
  4. Article 43.

Answer: (a)

37. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the power of the President to grant pardons etc. and to suspend, remit or commute sentences in certain cases?

  1. Article 71
  2. Article 72
  3. Article 162
  4. Article 77.

Answer: (b)

38. The Right to move to Supreme Court of India for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights is guaranteed under:

  1. Article 226
  2. Article 14
  3. Article 32
  4. Article 33.

Answer: (c)

39. The Supreme Court of India has been established under Article:

  1. 124
  2. 125
  3. 126
  4. 127.

Answer: (a)

40. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the control of the High Court over subordinate Courts in matters of posting, promotion, leave etc.?

  1. Article 226
  2. Article 227
  3. Article 235
  4. Article 225.

Answer: (c)

41. Article 262 of the Constitution of India relates to:

  1. Adjudication of disputes relating to waters of inter-State rivers or river valleys
  2. Provisions with respect to an inter-State Council
  3. Consolidated Funds and Public Accounts of India and of the States
  4. Contingency Fund.

Answer: (a)

42. Which Constitution Amendment Act relating to appointments of judges came for consideration of the Supreme Court and was struck down, being in violation of the basic feature doctrine of the Constitution of India?

  1. 99th Amendment
  2. 100th Amendment
  3. 101st Amendment
  4. 98th Amendment.

Answer: (a)

43. In which case the Supreme Court of India propound the basic feature doctrine for the first time?

  1. Golaknath’s case
  2. Minerva Mills case
  3. Kesavananda Bharti case
  4. Waman Rao case.

Answer: (c)

44. Which Article in the Constitution of India relates to the subject matter of laws made by Parliament to give effect to treaties and international agreements?

  1. Article 247
  2. Article 246
  3. Article 254
  4. Article 253.

Answer: (d)

45. The “Arbitral Award” as defined in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 includes:

  1. Final award
  2. Interim award
  3. Both final and interim award
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

46. An Arbitration agreement is deemed to be in writing if it is contained in:

(A) a document signed by the parties.

(B) an exchange of letters, telex, telegram or other means of telecommunication, including communication through electronic means providing a record of agreement.

(C) an exchange of submissions in which the existence of the agreement is alleged by one party and not denied by the other.

  1. Only (A) and (B) and not (C)
  2. Only (A) and not (B) and (C)
  3. All the three
  4. None of these.

Answer: Question Deleted

47. A party seeking appointment of an Arbitrator through the High Court or its designate shall make a request under:

  1. Section 11(3) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  2. Section 11(2) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  3. Section 11(6) of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  4. Section 10 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

Answer: (c)

48. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 was enacted taking into consideration:

  1. International Chamber of Commerce Rules
  2. Model law and conciliation rules adopted by the United Nations Commission on International Trade Law
  3. LCIA India Arbitration Rules
  4. Indian Arbitration Act, 1940.

Answer: (b)

49. A party seeking interim measures from a Court would file an application under:

  1. Section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act
  2. Section 9 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act
  3. Section 11 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act
  4. Section 17 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act.

Answer: (b)

50. International Commercial Arbitration means an arbitration relating to disputes, where at least one of the parties is:

(A) an individual who is a national of or habitually resident in any country other than India.

(B) a body corporate which is incorporated in any country other than India.

(C) an association or a body of individuals whose central management and control is exercised in any country other than India.

(D) a Government of a foreign country.

Code:

  1. (A) and (B) and not (C) and (D)
  2. (A), (B) and (C) and not (D)
  3. All the four
  4. None of these.

Answer: (d)

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51. In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitration proceedings are said to have commenced on:

  1. The date on which the first party dispatches a notice of request to the second party for referring the dispute to arbitration
  2. The date on which a request to refer the dispute to arbitration is received by the second party
  3. When one of the parties submit the claim petition before the arbitrator
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

52. An application for setting aside the Arbitral Award is filed under:

  1. Section 32 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  2. Section 33 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  3. Section 34 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  4. Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

Answer: (c)

53. An arbitral award can be enforced under:

  1. Section 35 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  2. Section 36 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  3. Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  4. Section 38 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

Answer: (b)

54. An arbitral award given on 21st August, 1996 can be challenged under:

  1. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  2. Arbitration Act, 1940
  3. Code of Civil Procedure, 1908
  4. High Court Rules.

Answer: Question Deleted

55. Which of the statements is not in accordance with the provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996?

  1. An arbitral award shall be made in writing and shall be signed by the members of the arbitral tribunal
  2. In the absence of an agreement between the parties, the arbitral award shall state the reasons upon which it is based
  3. After the arbitral award is made, a signed copy shall be delivered to each party
  4. The arbitral tribunal shall not, during the arbitral proceedings, make an interim award.

Answer: Question Deleted

56. An appeal under Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 read with Ordinance of 2015 shall lie:

  1. Refusing to refer the parties to arbitration under Section 8
  2. Granting or refusing to grant any measure under Section 9
  3. Setting aside or refusing to set aside an arbitral award under Section 34
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

57. Part II of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 relates to:

  1. Enforcement of domestic award
  2. Enforcement of certain foreign awards
  3. Appeal against the order setting aside or refusing to set aside an arbitral award under Section 34
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

58. Which cricketer was given the Arjuna Award in the year 2014?

  1. Virat Kohli
  2. Virendra Sehwag
  3. Sachin Tendulkar
  4. Ashwin.

Answer: (d)

59. Who is the cabinet minister for Road, Transport, and Highways, Shipping, Government of India?

  1. Venkaiah Naidu
  2. Suresh Prabhu
  3. Manohar Parrikar
  4. Nitin Jairam Gadkari.

Answer: (d)

60. Who Is the Secretary General of the United Nations Organisation?

  1. Jim Yong Kim
  2. Ban Ki Moon
  3. Takehiko Nakao
  4. Roberto Azevedo.

Answer: (b)

61. Who was the first and last Indian Governor General of free India?

  1. Rajendra Prasad
  2. Rajagopalachari
  3. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. Mahatma Gandhi.

Answer: (b)

62. Kuchipudi is the dance form of:

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Karnataka
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Kerala.

Answer: (c)

63. Who is the author of the book “Ghosts of Calcutta”?

  1. Sebastian Ortiz
  2. Amiya Chandra
  3. Amitav Ghosh
  4. Gina Rinehart.

Answer: (a)

64. Which Indian American who recently sworn in as the US Surgeon General?

  1. Nikesh Arora
  2. Vivek Murthy
  3. R.S. Sharma
  4. Sundar Pichai.

Answer: (b)

65. Who was the founder of Ramakrishna Mission?

  1. Shiv Narain Agnihotri
  2. Keshab Chandra Sen
  3. Swami Vivekananda
  4. Atmaram Pandurang.

Answer: (c)

66. Who was the author of the book “Anandamath”?

  1. Bhushan Banerjee
  2. Swami Dayanand
  3. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
  4. Lala Lajpat Rai.

Answer: (c)

67. Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2014 was given to:

  1. Amitabh Bachchan
  2. A.R. Rehman
  3. Shashi Kapoor
  4. Shahrukh Khan.

Answer: (c)

68. Who won the Indira Gandhi Award for National Integration?

  1. Dr. M.S. Swaminathan
  2. Vishwanath Pillai
  3. Dr. A.S. Pillai
  4. Dr. K.K. Goenka.

Answer: (a)

69. Gandhi Peace Prize, 2014 was awarded to:

  1. Dalai Lama
  2. Barack Obama
  3. Indian Space Research Organisation
  4. United Nations Organisation.

Answer: (c)

70. Who was awarded Bharat Ratna in the year 2015?

  1. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Atal Bihari Vajpayee
  2. Sachin Tendulkar and Prof. C.N.R. Rao
  3. Pandit Bhim Sen joshi and Ustad Bismillah Khan
  4. Jayaprakash Narayan and Pandit Ravi Shankar.

Answer: (a)

71. The study of bees is known as:

  1. Anthropology
  2. Apiology
  3. Etymology
  4. Horticulture.

Answer: (b)

72. Where is Ushakothi National Park situated?

  1. Andhra Pradesh
  2. Kerala
  3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. Odisha.

Answer: (d)

73. Who was the first man to reach North Pole?

  1. Roald Amundsen
  2. Phu Dorji Sherpa
  3. Robert Peary
  4. Alexei Leonel.

Answer: (c)

74. The first man to compile encyclopaedia:

  1. Aspheosis
  2. Nicolaus Copernicus
  3. Caroline Mikkelsen
  4. Toni Morrison.

Answer: (a)

75. On which river the Hirakud Dam is built?

  1. Kosi
  2. Gandak
  3. Mahanadi
  4. Krishna.

Answer: (c)

76. What is the chemical formula of methane?

  1. CaO
  2. Ca(OH)
  3. CH₄
  4. CH₃OH.

Answer: (c)

77. What is the chemical name of Gypsum?

  1. Calcium Hydroxide
  2. Calcium Carbonate
  3. Calcium Sulphate Dihydrate
  4. Sodium Sulphate Decahydrate.

Answer: (c)

78. Who won the Nobel Prize for Literature in the 2014?

  1. Jean Tirole
  2. Eric Betzig
  3. Moser
  4. Patrick Modiano.

Answer: (d)

79. Which country won the FIFA Women’s World Cup, 2015?

  1. Brazil
  2. Argentina
  3. USA
  4. Germany.

Answer: (c)

80. Which country is the leading producer of Coconut?

  1. India
  2. Indonesia
  3. Malaysia
  4. South Africa.

Answer: (b)

81. Where is the Veld grassland situated?

  1. Argentina
  2. USA
  3. Hungary
  4. South Africa.

Answer: (d)

82. Monge Waterfalls are situated in:

  1. Egypt
  2. Greece
  3. Sweden
  4. Norway.

Answer: (d)

83. Part II of the Limitation Act, 1963 deals with limitation of:

  1. Suits
  2. Appeals
  3. Applications
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

84. For the purpose of Limitation Act, a suit is instituted:

(i) in an ordinary case, when the plaint is presented to the proper officer.\

(ii) in the case of a pauper when his application for leave to sue as a pauper is made.

(iii) in the case of a claim against a company which is being wound-up by the Court when the claimant first sends in the claim to the official liquidator.

Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. Only (i)
  2. Only (i) and (ii)
  3. None of these
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

85. Where the prescribed period for any suit, appeal or application expires on a day when the Court is closed, the suit, appeal or application may be instituted, preferred or made:

  1. On the day when the Court reopens
  2. On the day before the Court is closed
  3. Within 10 days after the Court reopens
  4. Within a reasonable time.

Answer: (a)

86. Section 5 of the Limitation Act does not apply to:

  1. Suit
  2. Appeal
  3. Application
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

87. Which Section of the Limitation Act prescribes that in computing the period of limitation for any suit, appeal or application, for leave to appeal or for revision or for review of a judgment, the day on which the judgment complained of was pronounced and the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the decree, sentence or order appealed from or sought to be revised or reviewed shall be excluded?

  1. Section 11
  2. Section 12
  3. Section 13
  4. Section 14.

Answer: (b)

88. Exclusion of time of proceeding bona fide in court without jurisdiction is stipulated in:

  1. Section 13
  2. Section 14
  3. Section 15
  4. Section 16.

Answer: (b)

89. In computing the period of limitation for an application to set aside an award, the time requisite for obtaining a copy of the award shall be excluded under:

  1. Section 12(1)
  2. Section 12(2)
  3. Section 12(3)
  4. Section 12(4).

Answer: (d)

90. Where once the time has begun to run, no subsequent disability or inability to institute a suit or make an application stops it under:

  1. Section 9
  2. Section 10
  3. Section 11
  4. Section 6.

Answer: (a)

91. Section 18 of the Limitation Act deals with:

  1. Effect of payment on account of debt or of interest on legacy
  2. Effect of acknowledgement in writing
  3. Effect of acknowledgement or payment by another person
  4. Effect of fraud or mistake.

Answer: (b)

92. Directions (Questions 92-96): Pick out the most effective word from the given word to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

As a general rule, politicians do not ………….. centre stage.

  1. Foster
  2. Forsake
  3. Forgive
  4. Forward.

Answer: (b)

93. Indications are that the Government is ………….. to the prospect of granting bonus to the striking employees.

  1. Relieved
  2. Aligned
  3. Obliged
  4. Reconciled.

Answer: (d)

94. The ………….. study on import of natural gas from Iran through pipeline would be completed shortly.

  1. Natural
  2. Economic
  3. Feasibility
  4. Calculated.

Answer: (c)

95. Man is ………….., however, he is more in need of mental companionship than of physical companionship.

  1. Biological
  2. Egoistic
  3. Gregarious
  4. Democratic.

Answer: (c)

96. We still have not given our ………….. to conduct the survey of natural resources in our state.

  1. Consent
  2. Request
  3. Provision
  4. Projection.

Answer: (a)

97. Directions (Questions 97-101): In each of these questions, out of the four given alternatives choose the one which best expresses the meaning of the given word.

APLOMB:

  1. Adventure
  2. Assurance
  3. A powerful bomb
  4. Fear.

Answer: (b)

98. RISQUE:

  1. Slightly humorous
  2. Slightly improper
  3. Slightly risky
  4. Very risky.

Answer: (c)

99. ILLICIT:

  1. Not sociable
  2. Not legible
  3. Not legal
  4. Not attractive.

Answer: (c)

100. COMPLEMENT:

  1. To complete
  2. Words to praise
  3. A grammatical category
  4. A geographical category.

Answer: (a)

101. OCULIST:

  1. One who makes optical instruments
  2. One who possesses occult knowledge
  3. A specialist in the treatment of ENT diseases
  4. A specialist in the treatment of the diseases of the eye.

Answer: (d)

102. …………………………… is the law of place.

  1. National law
  2. Lex Loci
  3. Jus Remedium
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

103. Ultra Vires is a term used for:

  1. A document corrupted by virus
  2. Beyond the scope of power allowed or granted by a Charter or by law
  3. An act authorised by Law
  4. An illegal act.

Answer: (b)

104. Which one of the following statements is correct? The power of judicial review means the power of the Supreme Court to:

  1. Set aside any executive decision if it is against statutory law
  2. Set aside any provision of law if it is contrary to the Fundamental Rights
  3. Examine Constitutional validity of any administrative action as well as legislative provision and strike it down if not found in accordance with the Constitutional provisions
  4. Review its own decisions or decisions of any court or tribunal within the territory of India.

Answer: (c)

105. Give the meaning of “Puerile”.

  1. Withdraw
  2. Charge
  3. Childish
  4. Framework of ship.

Answer: (c)

106. The group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word ‘Vanished’ is:

  1. Gone missing
  2. Was found
  3. Was killed
  4. Was left behind.

Answer: (a)

107. From the following words, the mis-spelled word is:

  1. Relinquish
  2. Illuminant
  3. Exodes
  4. Dependency.

Answer: (c)

108. The word which is most opposite in meaning to the word ‘Random’ is:

  1. Accidental
  2. Haphazard
  3. Incidental
  4. Deliberate.

Answer: (d)

109. One who walks in sleep is:

  1. Hypocrite
  2. Imposter
  3. Somnambulist
  4. Sarcastic.

Answer: (c)

110. Antonym for “MARVELLOUS” is:

  1. Awful
  2. Contentious
  3. Fictitious
  4. Malicious.

Answer: (a)

111. Synonym of “BLEMISH” is:

  1. Evil
  2. Attraction
  3. Blot
  4. Virtue.

Answer: (c)

112. Choose the word which best expresses the meaning of ‘veracity’.

  1. Truth
  2. Freedom
  3. Wisdom
  4. Loyalty.

Answer: (a)

113. Monkeys are able to move quickly. They are very:

  1. Hasty
  2. Agile
  3. Prompt
  4. Rapid.

Answer: (b)

114. ………. most important event in India’s history was the revolution of 1857.

  1. The
  2. It was the
  3. That the
  4. There was.

Answer: (a)

115. In the case of an accused facing inquiry or trial though not of unsound mind but not capable of understanding the proceedings:

  1. The court shall proceed with the inquiry or trial
  2. The court shall not proceed with the inquiry or trial
  3. The court may proceed with the inquiry or trial after obtaining necessary orders from the High Court
  4. The court may proceed with inquiry or trial and in the case the same results in conviction, forward the proceeding to the High Court along with a report on which High Court shall pass such orders as deemed fit.

Answer: (d)

116. A contract, which is formed without the free consent of the parties is:

  1. Void ab initio
  2. Void
  3. Illegal
  4. Void at the instance of the party whose consent was not free.

Answer: (d)

117. Goodwill of a partnership business is the property of the partnership:

  1. Under Section 14
  2. Under Section 13
  3. Under Section 12
  4. Under Section 11.

Answer: (a)

118. Estoppel:

  1. Is a cause of action in itself
  2. Creates a cause of action
  3. Both a and b are correct
  4. Neither a nor b is correct.

Answer: (d)

119. A notice under section 111 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 can be waived:

  1. By express or implied consent of the person to whom it is given
  2. By implied consent of the person to whom it is given
  3. By express consent of the person to whom it is given
  4. By notice from either party.

Answer: Question Deleted

120. On the death of a sole proprietor, his/her heirs automatically become the partners of old firm. The statement is:

  1. True
  2. Partly true
  3. False
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

121. Which is correct?

  1. Proposal + acceptance = promise
  2. Promise + consideration = agreement
  3. Agreement + enforceability = contract
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

122. A Garnishee order is an order:

  1. Prohibiting the judgment debtor’s debtor from making any payment to the judgment debtor
  2. Directing the decree holder to take the payment from the judgment debtor’s debtor
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

123. Section 12(1)(a) of the Hindu Marriage Act is related to:

  1. Impotency
  2. Mental Disorder
  3. Fraud
  4. None of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

124. “In a usufructuary mortgage, the mortgagee is placed in possession of the property and has right to receive rents and profits from it till:

  1. Contract is rescinded
  2. Period of 99 years
  3. Mortgage money is repaid
  4. Period of 30 years.

Answer: Question Deleted

125. In terms of Section 3 of the Limitation Act, the court is required to consider the question of Limitation:

  1. When an objection on that point is made by the defendant
  2. Only if it is not contested by the defendant
  3. If an issue is framed in that regard
  4. Suo Motu on its own.

Answer: (d)

126. Both husband and wife are competent for and against each other:

  1. In civil proceedings
  2. In criminal proceedings
  3. In both civil and criminal proceedings
  4. Neither in civil nor in criminal proceedings.

Answer: (c)

127. Which of the following is the correct meaning of “”privity of contract”?

  1. Parties must maintain privacy of contract
  2. The main object of the contract should be maintained
  3. Only parties know under what circumstances it was made
  4. Only parties to a contract can sue on it.

Answer: (d)

128. The doctrine of subrogation enables:

  1. A third person to stand in the shoes of a creditor
  2. Creditor to sue the debtor
  3. The debtor to postpone the payment
  4. Includes all these.

Answer: (a)

129. Consider the following statements with regard to “uberrima fides”:

(a) It falls within the class of cases which require utmost good faith.

(b) Every contract is a contract “uberrima fides”.

(c) Contract of insurance is an instance of “uberrima fides”.

  1. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
  2. (a) and (c) are correct
  3. (b) and (c) are correct
  4. (a) and (b) are correct.

Answer: (b)

130. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the list:

List I

(a) Dowry death

(b) House-breaking

(c) Assault

(d) Wrongful confinement

List II

(I) Section 340 IPC

(II) Section 351 IPC

(III) Section 303B IPC

(IV) Section 445 IPC

Codes:

  1. (a)-(IV), (b)-(III), (c)-(II), (d)-(I)
  2. (a)-(III), (b)-(IV), (c)-(I), (d)-(II)
  3. (a)-(III), (b)-(IV), (c)-(II), (d)-(I)
  4. (a)-(I), (b)-(II), (c)-(III), (d)-(IV).

Answer: (c)

131. Some provisions of the IPC have been amended by the:

  1. Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
  2. Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
  3. Information Technology Act, 2009
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

132. Section 76 of IPC provides that nothing is an offence, which is done by a person who is or who by reason of:

  1. Mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
  2. Mistake of fact in good faith believes himself to be bound by law to do it
  3. Mistake of fact believes himself to be bound by morals to do it
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

133. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ go to murder ‘Z’, ‘X’ stood on guard with a spear in hand but did not hit ‘Z’ at all. ‘Y’ killed ‘Z’.

  1. Only ‘Y’ is liable for murder of ‘Z’
  2. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ both are liable for murder of ‘Z’
  3. ‘X’ is not liable as he did not perform over act
  4. Both A and C.

Answer: (b)

134. Under which provision of the Indian Evidence Act is expert opinion relevant?

  1. Section 41
  2. Section 43
  3. Section 44
  4. Section 45.

Answer: (d)

135. Which of the following statements is wrong?

  1. Oath may be administered to an accused before her examination under Section 313 Cr.P.C.
  2. Accused can refuse to answer any question when he is examined under Section 313 Cr.P.C.
  3. Accused can be put any question by the court at any stage of the trial
  4. Evidence that incriminates the accused has to be put to him or her by the court.

Answer: (a)

136. Which among the following statements is incorrect?

  1. A death sentence imposed by a Sessions Court is subject to confirmation by the High Court
  2. A death sentence imposed by a Sessions Court can be confirmed by the High Court only when a Bench consisting of two judges or more hears the case
  3. No confirmation of a death sentence imposed by the Sessions Court can be made before the expiry of the period for preferring the appeal
  4. The High Court cannot acquit the convict while considering the case for confirmation unless he prefers an appeal.

Answer: (d)

137. In a summons case, at the time of appearance of the accused before the Magistrate, it is unnecessary to:

  1. State the particulars of the offence of which he is accused
  2. Frame a formal charge
  3. Ask him whether he pleads guilty
  4. Ask him whether he has any defence to make.

Answer: (b)

138. When does a trial commence in warrant cases instituted on police report?

  1. With issuance of process against accused
  2. With submission of police report
  3. On framing of formal charge by court
  4. On the appearance of the accused pursuant to process issued by court.

Answer: (c)

139. Which Supreme Court case discusses the law relating to narco-analysis, from amongst the following decided cases?

  1. Ram Reddy v. State of Maharashtra
  2. Selvi v. State of Karnataka
  3. State of Bombay v. Kathi Kalu Oghad
  4. Sharda v. Dharmpal.

Answer: (b)

140. If the person who is competent to compound offence is dead, the compounding:

  1. Cannot be done
  2. Can be done by the legal representative of the deceased without the permission of the court
  3. Can be done by the legal representative of the deceased only with the permission of the court
  4. Both b & c.

Answer: (c)

141. Under Section 216 of Cr.P.C., the Court has the power to:

  1. Add to the charge(s) already framed
  2. Alter the charge(s) already framed
  3. Neither to alter nor to add to the charge already framed
  4. Add to and alter the charge both.

Answer: (d)

142. Under Section 315 of Cr.P.C.:

  1. An accused cannot be a witness
  2. An accused can be compelled to give his own evidence generally
  3. An accused can be called as a witness only on his own request in writing
  4. Either a or b.

Answer: (c)

143. ‘A’, with the intention to kill, shoots aiming at ‘B’, instead ‘C’ gets killed. The principle for holding ‘A’ liable is known as:

  1. The doctrine of intention
  2. The doctrine of transferred malice
  3. The doctrine that no one can escape
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

144. The difference between Section 34 and Section 149 of Indian Penal Code is:

  1. That whereas in Section 34 there must at least be five persons, Section 149 requires only two persons
  2. That Section 149 is only a rule of evidence whereas Section 34 creates a specific offence and provides for its punishment
  3. That Section 34 requires active participation in action whereas Section 149 requires mere passive membership of the unlawful assembly
  4. That Section 34 need not be joined with the principle offence, whereas Section 149 must be combined with the principle offence.

Answer: (c)

145. The Constitution of India vests residuary legislative powers and executive functions in:

  1. The States
  2. The States and Union Government jointly, because of the Concurrent List, in the Seventh Schedule
  3. The Union
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

146. Which of the following countries has the highest population density?

  1. Pakistan
  2. Sri Lanka
  3. Bangladesh
  4. India.

Answer: (c)

147. The only State to have a sex ratio of above 1000 is:

  1. Tamil Nadu
  2. Karnataka
  3. Andhra Pradesh
  4. Kerala.

Answer: (d)

148. Who decides disputes regarding disqualification of Member of Parliament?

  1. President of India
  2. Concerned House of Parliament
  3. Election Commission
  4. President in consultation with Election Commission.

Answer: (d)

149. Who currently holds the office of Chief Election Commissioner?

  1. H.S. Brahma
  2. P.K. Sinha
  3. Nasim Zaidi
  4. K.V. Chowdhary.

Answer: (c)

150. Who won the Women’s Single title in Wimbledon Championship 2015?

  1. Lucie Safarova
  2. Serena Williams
  3. Martina Hingis
  4. Elena Vesnina.

Answer: (b)

151. Which country won the ICC Cricket World Cup Championship held in 2015?

  1. South Africa
  2. New Zealand
  3. Australia
  4. Sri Lanka.

Answer: (c)

152. Which of the following decisions of the Supreme Court did not propound or apply the basic structure doctrine, in respect of amendment to the Constitution?

  1. Chandra Kumar
  2. Minerva Mills
  3. Kesavananda Bharti
  4. Sajjan Singh.

Answer: (d)

153. The first Asian Games were held at:

  1. Manila
  2. Tokyo
  3. New Delhi
  4. Jakarta.

Answer: (c)

154. Gol Gumbaz, the largest dome, is located in the State of:

  1. Bihar
  2. Maharashtra
  3. Madhya Pradesh
  4. Karnataka.

Answer: (d)

155. How many members of Rajya Sabha can be nominated by the President of India from amongst persons who have distinguished themselves in art, literature, social service, etc?

  1. 2
  2. 10
  3. 12
  4. 6.

Answer: (c)

156. Which of the following Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during the period of proclamation of emergency?

  1. Freedoms under Article 19
  2. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty under Article 21
  3. Freedom of Conscience under Article 25
  4. Freedom to move Courts for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Answer: (b)

157. A State in India has one of the largest human development indicators, has the lowest infant mortality as well as the lowest birth rate and also has the highest rate of rural and urban unemployment as per the 66th round of National Sample Survey. Which is that State?

  1. Mizoram
  2. Kerala
  3. Punjab
  4. Rajasthan.

Answer: (b)

158. Which wildlife reserve is known for the Great Indian One Horned Rhino?

  1. Corbett
  2. Dudhwa
  3. Kaziranga
  4. Gir.

Answer: (c)

159. Why did Muhammad Bin Tughlaq shift his capital from Delhi to Devagiri?

  1. Because he was fed up with Delhi
  2. He wanted to punish people of Delhi
  3. As he wanted to extend his empire to the South
  4. Because the new capital occupied a central and strategic location.

Answer: (d)

160. Which of the following atmospheric gases constitute “Green House Gases”?

(a) Carbon dioxide

(b) Nitrogen

(c) Nitrous Oxide

(d) Water vapour

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. (a) & (c)
  2. (a), (b) & (d)
  3. (a), (c) & (d)
  4. (a) & (d).

Answer: (c)

161. Which Convention adopted the International Treaty for Elimination or Restriction of Production and Distribution of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs) that pose a threat to human health?

  1. Basel Convention
  2. Espoo Convention
  3. Stockholm Convention
  4. Vienna Convention.

Answer: (c)

162. The smallest living cell is that of:

  1. Bacterium
  2. Bread mold
  3. Microplasma
  4. Virus.

Answer: Question Deleted

163. Insider trading is an offence under Indian laws. Who among the following in the normal circumstances, will not be accused of insider trading?

  1. A financial journalist covering a company
  2. A Director of the company
  3. An auditor of the company
  4. An employee of the company.

Answer: (a)

164. B.B. King, who passed away in 2015 was a famous:

  1. Singer
  2. Musician
  3. Writer
  4. Cartoonist.

Answer: (b)

165. Who was the first Chief Justice of India?

  1. Mehar Chand Mahajan
  2. Patanjali Sastri
  3. Harilal Jekisundas Kania
  4. Bijan Kumar.

Answer: (c)

166. The Freedom of Speech under the Indian Constitution is subject to reasonable restrictions on the ground of protection of:

  1. Sovereignty and integrity of the country
  2. The dignity of the office of the Prime Minister
  3. The dignity of the Council of Ministers
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

167. The Vice President of India is:

  1. Directly elected by the people
  2. Elected by the same electoral college which elects the President
  3. Elected by the members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha in a joint sitting
  4. Elected by the members of Rajya Sabha only.

Answer: (c)

168. Who is the Supreme Commander of armed forces in India?

  1. Defence Minister
  2. President
  3. Prime Minister
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

169. A criminal court shall not take cognizance of an offence after the expiry of:

  1. Six months, if the punishment does not exceed one year imprisonment
  2. One year, if the punishment does not exceed one year imprisonment
  3. Three years, if the punishment does not exceed one year imprisonment
  4. Three months, if the punishment does not exceed one year imprisonment.

Answer: (b)

170. The period of limitation for taking cognizance of an offence starts:

  1. From the date of the offence
  2. From the date of the arrest of the suspect
  3. From the date of the lodging of the case
  4. From the date of the surrender of the accused.

Answer: (a)

171. For constituting double jeopardy:

  1. The person should have been tried by court of competent jurisdiction
  2. He should have been convicted
  3. He should have been acquitted
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

172. FIR is not substantive evidence; it can be used during trial:

  1. To corroborate the informant
  2. To contradict the informant
  3. Both a and b
  4. Neither a nor b.

Answer: (c)

173. Under Section 311 of Cr.P.C. a witness can be called:

  1. On the motion of the prosecution
  2. On the motion of the defence
  3. On its own motion by the court
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

174. “Anticipatory bail under Section 438 Cr.P.C. can be granted by:

  1. Metropolitan Magistrate
  2. Court of Sessions
  3. High Court
  4. Both b and c.

Answer: (d)

175. A is working in a field with a spade. The iron head of the spade flies off and hits a person who dies.

  1. A cannot be prosecuted of any offence
  2. A can be accused of murder
  3. A can be accused of attempt to murder
  4. A’s act is not an offence if it is found that he had taken proper caution.

Answer: (d)

176. Right of private defence extends to:

  1. Defence of body only
  2. Defence of property
  3. Defence of both body and property
  4. Cannot say.

Answer: (d)

177. The right of private defence of the body can extend to causing death:

  1. In case of apprehension of grievous hurt and death
  2. In case of apprehension of being raped
  3. In case of assault with the intention of kidnapping or abducting
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

178. Culpable homicide is not murder, if it is committed:

  1. Under intoxication
  2. In anger
  3. Without planning
  4. On grave and sudden provocation.

Answer: (a)

179. A, on provocation by B, kills C, B’s child:

  1. A can be charged for murder
  2. A cannot be charged for murder
  3. B is guilty of abetment
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

180. If a child under 12 years of age is abandoned by his parents and the child dies, the parents can be prosecuted for:

  1. Murder
  2. Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
  3. For offence under section 317 of the IPC
  4. For all of the above.

Answer: (d)

181. A makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, but finds none. A is guilty of:

  1. Theft
  2. Burglary
  3. Dacoity
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

182. A finds Rs. 1,000/- note on the road. He has no idea as to whom the Rs. 1,000/- note belongs. He picks up the note. A has committed:

  1. Theft
  2. Misappropriation of property
  3. Attempt to theft
  4. Has not committed any offence.

Answer: (d)

183. Which of the following is not “Grievous Hurt”?

  1. Permanent privation of the hearing of either ear
  2. Dislocation of a tooth
  3. Emasculation
  4. Any hurt which causes the sufferer bodily pain for ten days.

Answer: (d)

184. A statement made by any person to a police officer in the course of investigation:

  1. If duly proved can be used as substantive evidence by the accused and the prosecution
  2. If duly proved can be used by the accused and the prosecution to contradict such witness
  3. If duly proved can be used by the accused and the prosecution to corroborate such witness
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

185. In case the offence is punishable with both imprisonment and fine, maximum sentence that can be awarded by the Court in default of payment of fine is:

  1. Equal to the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence
  2. Half of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence
  3. One-third of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offences
  4. One-fourth of the term of imprisonment which is the maximum fixed for the offence.

Answer: (d)

186. Provisions of Chapter-XXI-A Cr.P.C. are not applicable to cases where the final report discloses:

(i) offences punishable for death.

(ii) offences punishable for imprisonment of life.

(iii) offences punishable for a term exceeding seven years’ imprisonment.

(iv) offences punishable for a term exceeding three years’ imprisonment.

Which of the following is correct?

  1. (i), (iii) & (iv)
  2. (ii), (iii) & (iv)
  3. (i), (ii) & (iii)
  4. (i), (ii) & (iv).

Answer: (c)

187. When six men and women extort Rs. 1,000/-from a teenager putting him to fear of instant hurt by showing a knife, the offence(s) committed by them would be:

  1. Extortion
  2. Robbery
  3. Dacoity
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

188. Which of the following Acts does not relate to offences affecting the socio-economic condition of the country as notified under sub-section (2) of Section 265A Cr.P.C.?

  1. The Explosives Act, 1884
  2. The Immoral Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956
  3. The Arms Act, 1959
  4. The Cinematograph Act, 1952.

Answer: (c)

189. The offence of “stalking” is punishable under:

  1. Section 354A IPC
  2. Section 354B IPC
  3. Section 354C IPC
  4. Section 354D IPC.

Answer: (d)

190. The report of which of the following experts is not admissible per se?

  1. Director of the Finger Print Bureau
  2. Post Mortem Report by a Board of doctors
  3. Chief Controller of Explosives
  4. Serologist to the Government.

Answer: (b)

191. A, with six others, commits the offences of rioting, grievous hurt and assaulting a public servant endeavoring in the discharge of his duty as such to suppress the riot. A may be separately charged with, and convicted of, offences under sections:

  1. 107, 324 & 353
  2. 147, 325 & 152
  3. 353, 326A & 34
  4. 148, 152 & 323.

Answer: (b)

192. Which of the following is primary evidence?

  1. Copies made from and compared with the original
  2. Counterpart of document as against the parties who did not execute them
  3. Counterpart of a document as against the parties who executed it
  4. Certified copies of a document.

Answer: (c)

193. The period for limitation for taking cognizance for an offence punishable under Section 379 IPC is:

  1. Six months
  2. One year
  3. Three years
  4. No limitation.

Answer: (c)

194. Statement of a person who is dead or cannot be found is not relevant:

  1. When it is made in the course of business
  2. When it is in favour of the interest of the maker
  3. When it relates to the circumstances of the transaction resulting in his death
  4. When it relates to existence of relationships.

Answer: (b)

195. Who amongst the following unable to maintain herself due to physical abnormality cannot claim maintenance under Section 125 Cr.P.C.?

  1. Illegitimate minor unmarried daughter
  2. Illegitimate major married daughter
  3. Illegitimate minor married daughter
  4. Illegitimate major unmarried daughter.

Answer: (b)

196. Test Identification Parades are held at the instance of:

  1. The Metropolitan Magistrate
  2. Station House Officer
  3. Inquiring Officer
  4. Complainant.

Answer: Question Deleted

197. Under Section 604 Cr.P.C., a person can be arrested:

  1. In case of commission of offence in the presence of a police officer
  2. On credible information about commission of an offence punishable with imprisonment for more than seven years
  3. On a complaint by a victim, when a police officer has reasons to believe that the concerned person has committed the offence
  4. Under all these circumstances.

Answer: (d)

198. A police officer may arrest somebody accused of an offence:

  1. To prevent such person from committing any further offence
  2. For proper investigation of the case
  3. To prevent tampering of evidence
  4. For all of the above.

Answer: (d)

199. For recording a confession, the Magistrate should:

  1. Get that person arrested
  2. Summon the complainant
  3. Inform such person about the accusation against him
  4. Inform such person that he is not bound to make a confession.

Answer: (d)

200. To ensure fairness and accuracy in a Test Identification Parade, the requirement is:

  1. Parading persons of same social status
  2. Parading persons of same or similar physical appearance along with the suspect
  3. Parading be done in presence of all the witnesses simultaneously
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

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