DU LLB 2020 Solved Paper | DU LLB Entrance Solved Paper PDF

By | September 15, 2021
Delhi University LLB Prelims

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DU LLB QUESTION PAPER 2020 | Click Here to Download PDF

DU LLB QUESTION PAPER, 2020

Duration of exam: 2 hours

Maximum marks: 400

Negative marking: 1

Section I: English Language Comprehension

1. Read the passage and answer the following question:

What I have tried to do is to discern and articulate the natural laws of a particular kind of human undertaking, which I have described as “the enterprise of subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules”. These natural laws have nothing to do with any “brooding omnipresence in the skies.” Nor have they the slightest affinity with any such proposition as that the practice of contraception is a violation of God’s law. They remain entirely terrestrial in origin and application.

They are not “higher” laws; if any metaphor of elevation is appropriate they should be called “lower” laws. They are like the natural laws of carpentry, or at least those laws respected by a carpenter who wants the house he builds to remain standing and serve the purpose of those who live in it.

Though these natural laws touch one of the most vital of human activities they obviously do not exhaust the whole of man’s moral life. They have nothing to say on topics as polygamy, the study of Marx, the worship of God, the progressive income tax, or the subjugation of women. If the question be raised whether any of these subjects, or others like them, should be taken as objects of legislation, that question relates to what I have called the external morality of law.

As a convenient (though not wholly satisfactory) way of describing the distinction being taken we may speak of a procedural, as distinguished from a substantive natural law. What I have called the internal morality of law is in this sense a procedural version of natural law, though to avoid misunderstanding the word ‘procedural’ should be assigned a special and expanded sense so that it would include, for example, a substantive accord between official action and enacted law. The term ‘procedural’ is, however, broadly appropriate as indicating that we are concerned, not with the substantive aims of legal rules, but with the ways in which a system of rules for governing human conduct must be constructed and administered if it is to be efficacious and at the same time remain what it purports to be.

The passage is an explanation of….

  1. Legal Morality
  2. The Worship of God
  3. Natural Law
  4. God’s Law

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 1,2,3 & 4
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 3 only.

Answer: (b)

2. Read the passage and answer the following question:

What I have tried to do is to discern and articulate the natural laws of a particular kind of human undertaking, which I have described as “the enterprise of subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules”. These natural laws have nothing to do with any “brooding omnipresence in the skies.” Nor have they the slightest affinity with any such proposition as that the practice of contraception is a violation of God’s law. They remain entirely terrestrial in origin and application.

They are not “higher” laws; if any metaphor of elevation is appropriate they should be called “lower” laws. They are like the natural laws of carpentry, or at least those laws respected by a carpenter who wants the house he builds to remain standing and serve the purpose of those who live in it.

Though these natural laws touch one of the most vital of human activities they obviously do not exhaust the whole of man’s moral life. They have nothing to say on topics as polygamy, the study of Marx, the worship of God, the progressive income tax, or the subjugation of women. If the question be raised whether any of these subjects, or others like them, should be taken as objects of legislation, that question relates to what I have called the external morality of law.

As a convenient (though not wholly satisfactory) way of describing the distinction being taken we may speak of a procedural, as distinguished from a substantive natural law. What I have called the internal morality of law is in this sense a procedural version of natural law, though to avoid misunderstanding the word ‘procedural’ should be assigned a special and expanded sense so that it would include, for example, a substantive accord between official action and enacted law. The term ‘procedural’ is, however, broadly appropriate as indicating that we are concerned, not with the substantive aims of legal rules, but with the ways in which a system of rules for governing human conduct must be constructed and administered if it is to be efficacious and at the same time remain what it purports to be.

The procedural version of natural law relates to:

  1. Internal morality
  2. External morality
  3. Objects of legislation
  4. Human activities.

Answer: (a)

3. Read the passage and answer the following question:

What I have tried to do is to discern and articulate the natural laws of a particular kind of human undertaking, which I have described as “the enterprise of subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules”. These natural laws have nothing to do with any “brooding omnipresence in the skies.” Nor have they the slightest affinity with any such proposition as that the practice of contraception is a violation of God’s law. They remain entirely terrestrial in origin and application.

They are not “higher” laws; if any metaphor of elevation is appropriate they should be called “lower” laws. They are like the natural laws of carpentry, or at least those laws respected by a carpenter who wants the house he builds to remain standing and serve the purpose of those who live in it.

Though these natural laws touch one of the most vital of human activities they obviously do not exhaust the whole of man’s moral life. They have nothing to say on topics as polygamy, the study of Marx, the worship of God, the progressive income tax, or the subjugation of women. If the question be raised whether any of these subjects, or others like them, should be taken as objects of legislation, that question relates to what I have called the external morality of law.

As a convenient (though not wholly satisfactory) way of describing the distinction being taken we may speak of a procedural, as distinguished from a substantive natural law. What I have called the internal morality of law is in this sense a procedural version of natural law, though to avoid misunderstanding the word ‘procedural’ should be assigned a special and expanded sense so that it would include, for example, a substantive accord between official action and enacted law. The term ‘procedural’ is, however, broadly appropriate as indicating that we are concerned, not with the substantive aims of legal rules, but with the ways in which a system of rules for governing human conduct must be constructed and administered if it is to be efficacious and at the same time remain what it purports to be.

Natural laws, according to this passage, are

  1. the ones, having brooding omnipresence in the skies
  2. terrestrial in origin and application
  3. higher laws
  4. lower laws

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 1 and 3 both
  2. 1,2 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 both
  4. 2 and 4 both.

Answer: (d)

4. Read the passage and answer the following question:

What I have tried to do is to discern and articulate the natural laws of a particular kind of human undertaking, which I have described as “the enterprise of subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules”. These natural laws have nothing to do with any “brooding omnipresence in the skies.” Nor have they the slightest affinity with any such proposition as that the practice of contraception is a violation of God’s law. They remain entirely terrestrial in origin and application.

They are not “higher” laws; if any metaphor of elevation is appropriate they should be called “lower” laws. They are like the natural laws of carpentry, or at least those laws respected by a carpenter who wants the house he builds to remain standing and serve the purpose of those who live in it.

Though these natural laws touch one of the most vital of human activities they obviously do not exhaust the whole of man’s moral life. They have nothing to say on topics as polygamy, the study of Marx, the worship of God, the progressive income tax, or the subjugation of women. If the question be raised whether any of these subjects, or others like them, should be taken as objects of legislation, that question relates to what I have called the external morality of law.

As a convenient (though not wholly satisfactory) way of describing the distinction being taken we may speak of a procedural, as distinguished from a substantive natural law. What I have called the internal morality of law is in this sense a procedural version of natural law, though to avoid misunderstanding the word ‘procedural’ should be assigned a special and expanded sense so that it would include, for example, a substantive accord between official action and enacted law. The term ‘procedural’ is, however, broadly appropriate as indicating that we are concerned, not with the substantive aims of legal rules, but with the ways in which a system of rules for governing human conduct must be constructed and administered if it is to be efficacious and at the same time remain what it purports to be.

The term ‘procedural’ means and includes

  1. A substantive accord between official action and enacted law
  2. Administration of a system of rules for governing human conduct
  3. Construction of a system of rules for governing human conduct
  4. External morality

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 1,2,3 & 4
  2. 1,2 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 4 only.

Answer: (b)

5. Read the passage and answer the following question:

What I have tried to do is to discern and articulate the natural laws of a particular kind of human undertaking, which I have described as “the enterprise of subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules”. These natural laws have nothing to do with any “brooding omnipresence in the skies.” Nor have they the slightest affinity with any such proposition as that the practice of contraception is a violation of God’s law. They remain entirely terrestrial in origin and application.

They are not “higher” laws; if any metaphor of elevation is appropriate they should be called “lower” laws. They are like the natural laws of carpentry, or at least those laws respected by a carpenter who wants the house he builds to remain standing and serve the purpose of those who live in it.

Though these natural laws touch one of the most vital of human activities they obviously do not exhaust the whole of man’s moral life. They have nothing to say on topics as polygamy, the study of Marx, the worship of God, the progressive income tax, or the subjugation of women. If the question be raised whether any of these subjects, or others like them, should be taken as objects of legislation, that question relates to what I have called the external morality of law.

As a convenient (though not wholly satisfactory) way of describing the distinction being taken we may speak of a procedural, as distinguished from a substantive natural law. What I have called the internal morality of law is in this sense a procedural version of natural law, though to avoid misunderstanding the word ‘procedural’ should be assigned a special and expanded sense so that it would include, for example, a substantive accord between official action and enacted law. The term ‘procedural’ is, however, broadly appropriate as indicating that we are concerned, not with the substantive aims of legal rules, but with the ways in which a system of rules for governing human conduct must be constructed and administered if it is to be efficacious and at the same time remain what it purports to be.

The enterprise of subjecting human conduct to the governance of rules relates to

  1. Natural laws
  2. God’s Laws
  3. Objects of legislation
  4. Higher laws

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 1,2,3 & 4
  2. 1 only
  3. 2 and 3 both
  4. 4 only.

Answer: (b)

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Section II: General Knowledge and Legal Awareness

6. According to the World Bank’s ‘Ease of Doing Business rankings’, benchmarked to May 2019, India is ranked at:

  1. 89
  2. 75
  3. 63
  4. 91

Answer: (c)

7. The difference between total revenue and total expenditure of a government is termed as:

  1. Fiscal deficit
  2. Revenue deficit
  3. Primary deficit
  4. Monetised deficit.

Answer: (a)

8. In 2019, the Sveriges Riksbank Prize in Economic Sciences in memory of Alfred Nobel was awarded to:

  1. Richard H. Thaler
  2. William D. Nordhaus
  3. Paul M. Romer
  4. Michael Kremer.

Answer: (d)

9. As per law, the monetary policy framework in India shall be operated by:

  1. NITI Aayog
  2. Reserve Bank of India
  3. Department of Economic Affairs
  4. Department of Revenue.

Answer: (c)

10. The head office of the Securities and Exchange Board of India is located at:

  1. Delhi
  2. Kolkata
  3. Mumbai
  4. Chennai

Answer: (c)

11. Who among the following was not a recipient of a Nobel Prize?

  1. Madam Marie Curie
  2. Abhijeet Banerjee
  3. Mahatma Gandhi
  4. Mother Teresa.

Answer: (d)

12. Which of the following represents the correct order of organising Tennis Grand Slams in an year (from January to December)?

  1. Australian Open, French Open, Wimbledon, US Open
  2. US Open, Wimbledon, Australian Open, French Open
  3. Australian Open, Wimbledon, French Open, US Open
  4. Wimbledon, French Open, US Open, Australian Open.

Answer: (a)

13.  Who among the following was not in the list of Bharat Ratna awardees in 2019?

  1. Pranab Mukherjee
  2. Bhupen Hazarika
  3. Nanaji Deshmukh
  4. Deen Dayal Upadhyay.

Answer: (d)

14. Who won the Dadasaheb Phalke Award, 2019?

  1. Rajnikant
  2. Amitabh Bachchan
  3. Bhupen Hazarika
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

15. Who among the following are the recipients of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, 2019?

  1. Virat Kohli and Cheteshwar Pujara
  2. Deepa Malik and Bajrang Punia
  3. Fouaad Mirza and Gaurav Singh Gill
  4. Pooja Dhanda and Gurmeet Singh Sandhu.

Answer: (b)

16. Who among the following was the recipient of Raman Magsaysay Award, 2019?

  1. Ravish Kumar
  2. Arnab Goswami
  3. Sandip Pandey
  4. Punya Prasun Bajpai.

Answer: (a)

17. Which country won the FIFA World Cup Final 2018?

  1. Croatia
  2. France
  3. Brazil
  4. Germany

Answer: (b)

18. Where was the ICC Women’s T20 World Cup 2020 organised?

  1. England
  2. South Africa
  3. Australia
  4. West Indies.

Answer: (c)

19. Who among the following have won the best actress and best actor awards for 66 National Film Awards 2019?

  1. Keerthy Suresh, Ayushmann Khurana, Vicky Kaushal
  2. Deepika Padukone, Ayushmann Khurana, Akshay Kumar
  3. Kangana Ranaut, Vicky Kaushal, Swanand Kirkere
  4. Keerthy Suresh, Akshay Kumar, Swanand Kirkere.

Answer: (a)

20. Which of the following city was granted cleanest capital city award as per the Swachh Survekshan Awards 2019?

  1. Lucknow
  2. Mumbai
  3. Panaji
  4. Bhopal

Answer: (d)

21. Who won the Ranji Trophy 2019‐20?

  1. Saurashtra
  2. Vidarbha
  3. Delhi
  4. Karnataka

Answer: (a)

22. ‘Vyom Mitra’ is ________

  1. An unmanned aerial vehicle to observe air quality
  2. A nanosatellite developed by India in association with Japan
  3. A humanoid which will be sent by ISRO in space
  4. An indigenously designed aircraft to rescue people from natural disasters.

Answer: (c)

23. Which of the following reports is/are released by the World Bank?

  1. Women, Business and the Law
  2. The World’s Women
  3. Economic Freedom Index

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A only
  2. C only
  3. A & C only
  4. A and B only.

Answer: (a)

24. Consider the following statements regarding Bharat Interface for Money BHIM﴿ and answer the following question.

  1. It is a payment interface developed by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to allow real‐time fund transfer.
  2. It allows for the linking of multiple bank accounts and the option of applying in Initial Public Offer (IPO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 & 2
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

25. Which among the following releases the Human Capital Index?

  1. World Bank
  2. International Monetary Fund
  3. United Nation Development Program
  4. World Economic Forum.

Answer: (a)

26. ‘Mohiniyattam’, a classical solo dance, originated in:

  1. Odisha
  2. Kerala
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

27. Which among the following stands for USB in relation to laptops and computers?

  1. Unique Storage Bus
  2. Universal Series Bus
  3. Universal Serial Bus
  4. Unique Serial Bus.

Answer: (c)

28. Which one of these is not a specialized agency of the United Nations?

  1. International Civil Aviation Organization
  2. International Labour Organization
  3. Food and Agricultural Organization
  4. World Trade Organization.

Answer: (d)

29. Which Indian Judge was a member of the International Criminal Tribunal for the Far East (Tokyo Tribunal)?

  1. Judge Radha Binod Paul
  2. Judge Nagendra Singh
  3. Judge Dalveer Bhandari
  4. Judge Hiralal J. Kania.

Answer: (a)

30. Which one of the following is a tripartite UN agency?

  1. International Civil Aviation Organization
  2. International Maritime Organization
  3. International Labour Organization
  4. International Criminal Court.

Answer: (c)

31. Which one of the following was established by the Rome Statute?

  1. International Criminal Court
  2. International Criminal Tribunal for Rwanda
  3. International Crimes Tribunal, Bangladesh
  4. Special court for Sierra Leone.

Answer: (a)

32. Which one of the following is not a principal organ of the United Nations?

  1. Trusteeship Council
  2. General Assembly
  3. Human Rights Council
  4. Security Council.

Answer: (c)

33. In India, the writ of prohibition may be issued, when there is _________

  1. Both an absence of jurisdiction or excess of jurisdiction & violation of principles of natural justice
  2. Violation of principles of natural justice
  3. An absence of jurisdiction or excess of jurisdiction
  4. A request to produce the body of the person.

Answer: (a)

34. Which Schedule of the Constitution of India, 1950 prescribes the forms of oaths or affirmations for constitutional functionaries?

  1. Sixth Schedule
  2. Second Schedule
  3. Fifth Schedule
  4. Third Schedule.

Answer: (d)

35. Who declared a state of emergency in India under Article 352 of the Constitution of India in the year 1975?

  1. Indira Gandhi
  2. Giani Zail Singh
  3. Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
  4. Sanjay Gandhi.

Answer: (c)

36. Who among the following has a casting vote over a bill in a joint parliamentary session?

  1. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  2. Speaker of Lok Sabha
  3. Deputy Speaker of Rajya Sabha
  4. President of India.

Answer: (b)

37. Exchange of Enclaves between India and Bangladesh was executed through:

  1. 100 Constitutional Amendment Act
  2. 101 Constitutional Amendment Act
  3. 102 Constitutional Amendment Act
  4. 99 Constitutional Amendment Act.

Answer: (a)

38. Article 44 of the Constitution of India is related to:

  1. Uniform Civil Code for citizens
  2. Provision of early childhood care and education to children below the age of 6 years
  3. The duty of the state to raise the level of nutrition
  4. Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry.

Answer: (a)

39. Supreme Court of India’s judgement in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy (Retd.) and Anr. v Union of India and Ors is related to:

  1. Right to Privacy
  2. 2G Spectrum
  3. Coal gate Scam
  4. Section 377 of IPC.

Answer: (a)

40. Indian legal system confers citizenship in the following manner:

Choose the correct option:

  1. By Birth
  2. By Descent
  3. By Naturalisation
  4. By Registration
  1. A and B only
  2. B and C only
  3. A, B and C only
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

41. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 provides for special provisions for citizenship for migrants from the following countries:

A. Myanmar

B. Afghanistan

C. Bangladesh

D.Pakistan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, C and D only
  2. B, C and D only
  3. A, B and C only
  4. All of these.

Answer: (b)

42. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following fundamental rights cannot be suspended during national emergency?

  1. Article 19 and 21
  2. Article 14 and 21
  3. Article 14 and 19
  4. Article 20 and 21.

Answer: (d) 

43. The pardoning power of the Governor of a state includes:

A. Power to pardon a sentence of life imprisonment

B.Power to grant pardon where the punishment or sentence is by Court Martial

C. Power to remit a sentence.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and C only
  2. B and C only
  3. A only
  4. All of these.

Answer: (a)

44. Which among the following recommended the inclusion of Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?

  1. Swaran Singh Committee
  2. Nehru Committee
  3. Gadgill Committee
  4. Mandal Commission.

Answer: (a)

45. Which of the following option(s) are available for a party aggrieved by a decision of the Supreme Court of India?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. Curative Petition
  2. Review Petition
  3. Writ Petition
  4. Public Interest Litigation
  1. A and B only
  2. B, C and D only
  3. B and C only
  4. All of these.

Answer: (a)

46. Under Article 25 of the Constitution of India, the right to profess, practice and propagate religion is subject to the following restrictions:

A. Public Interest

B. Morality

C. Health

D. Other Provisions of Part III (Fundamental Rights) of the Constitution of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and B only
  2. B, C and D only
  3. B and C only
  4. All of these.

Answer: (b)

47. The provision relating to ex post facto law is embodied in:

  1. Article 20 (1)
  2. Article 20 (2)
  3. Article 20 (3)
  4. Article 13 (2).

Answer: (a)

48. Which of the following terms was inserted in the Preamble of the Constitution of India through the 42 Constitutional Amendment Act?

  1. Sovereign
  2. Democratic
  3. Secular
  4. Unity

Answer: (c)

49. Which of the following grounds can be invoked to restrict freedom of speech and expression according to the Constitution of India?

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

A. Sovereignty and Integrity of India

B.Friendly relations with foreign States

C. Security of the State

D. Contempt of court

  1. A, B and D only
  2. B, C and D only
  3. A, B and C only
  4. All of these.

Answer: (a)

50. Which is not true with regard to “common intention” under the Indian Penal Code?

  1. Acts done by several persons
  2. Pre‐arranged plan
  3. Prior meeting of minds
  4. Membership of an unlawful assembly.

Answer: (d)

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51. Which of the following is an offence under the Indian Penal Code?

  1. Marital rape
  2. Adultery
  3. Stalking
  4. Both, Marital rape and Stalking.

Answer: (c)

52. Which chapter of the Indian Penal Code deals with general exceptions?

  1. Chapter III
  2. Chapter IV
  3. Chapter V
  4. Chapter VI.

Answer: (b)

53. When a man inserts, to any extent, any object or a part of the body, not being his penis, into the vagina, the urethra or anus of a woman or makes her to do so with him or any other person, he commits:

  1. Rape
  2. Sexual Harassment
  3. Sexual Assault
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

54. The Doctrine of Rarest of Rare was established in:

  1. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
  2. Mithu v. State of Punjab
  3. Shatrughan Singh Chauhan v. Union of India
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

55. Mens rea is not a necessary condition for:

  1. Kidnapping
  2. Murder
  3. Theft
  4. Wrongful Restraint.

Answer: (a)

56. The Maxim ‘ignorantia facti excusat, ignorantia juris non excusat’ means:

  1. Ignorance of fact excuses, ignorance of law does not excuse
  2. Ignorance of law excuses, ignorance of fact does not excuse
  3. Ignorance due to which mistake occurs is excused if done in good faith
  4. Ignorance due to which a vital mistake occurs, is not excused even if done in good faith.

Answer: (a)

57. Under the Indian Penal Code, nothing is considered to be an offence if it is done by a child under_____ years of age.

  1. Six
  2. Seven
  3. Eight
  4. Nine

Answer: (b)

58. The right of private defence under the Indian Penal Code is available for the protection of:

  1. Other humans only
  2. Only self
  3. Self and other humans
  4. Only property.

Answer: (c)

59. X threatens to publish a defamatory libel concerning Y unless Y gives you money. He thus induces Y to give him money. Here X has committed the offense of:

  1. Defamation
  2. Mischief
  3. Criminal Intimidation
  4. Extortion

Answer: (d)

60. In Navtej Singh Johar case, dealing with transgenders’ issues, the Supreme Court of India asked the Centre to include them in:

  1. Other Backward Classes
  2. Scheduled Castes/Tribes
  3. Economically Backward Classes
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

61. ‘A’ in his madness, attempts to kill ‘B’. ‘B’ hits ‘A’ with an iron rod seriously injuring him. Choose the correct option from below.

  1. ‘B’ has no right of private defence since ‘A’ is mad
  2. ‘B’ has right of private defence though ‘A’ is mad
  3. ‘B’ is guilty of inflicting grievous injury on ‘A’
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

62. The Fundamental Duties towards environment were imposed on the citizens in the year:

  1. 1978
  2. 1974
  3. 1976
  4. 1992

Answer: (c)

63. Bharat Stage Emission Standards (BSES) are set by the:

  1. Central Pollution Control Board
  2. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  3. Ministry of Transport and Highways
  4. Supreme Court of India.

Answer: (a)

64. The Blue Flag, a certification that a beach, marina, or sustainable boating tourism operator meets its stringent standards, is awarded by.

  1. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  2. Foundation for Environmental Education (FEE)
  3. United Nations
  4. International Seabed Authority.

Answer: (b)

65. The United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) is also known as the:

  1. Earth Summit
  2. Paris Convention
  3. Kyoto Protocol
  4. Montreal Protocol.

Answer: (a)

66. Which among the following is an international treaty related to the protection of the ozone layer?

  1. Kyoto Protocol
  2. Paris Agreement
  3. Montreal Protocol
  4. Aarhus Convention.

Answer: (c)

67. The United Nations Programme on Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (or UN‐REDD Programme) is a collaborative programme of the…..

A.Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO)

B.United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

C.United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and C only
  2. B and C only
  3. None
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

68. Which of the following is a legal effect of adoption?

  1. An adopted child shall be deemed to be the child of his or her adoptive father or mother
  2. All the ties of the child in the family of his or her birth shall be deemed to be severed
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of these.

Answer: (c)

69. Under Muslim law, a legal guardian may:

  1. Sell the movable property in the interest of the child
  2. Exercise right of pre‐emption on behalf of the child
  3. Acknowledge a debt on behalf of the child
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

70. Which among the following is not a ground for divorce under the Special Marriage Act, 1954?

  1. Adultery
  2. Desertion
  3. Mental disorder
  4. Irretrievable breakdown of marriage.

Answer: (d)

71. Degrees of prohibited relationships is applicable between two persons if they are related by:

  1. Full blood
  2. Half or uterine blood
  3. Adoption
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

72. Which of the following is provided in section 7 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

  1. Registration
  2. Ceremonies for solemnising a Hindu marriage
  3. Adoption of child
  4. All of these.

Answer: (b)

73. The manager of Waqf is known as:

  1. Mujawar
  2. Mutawalli
  3. Khadim
  4. Sajjada Nashin.

Answer: (a)

74. Which Amendment of the Constitution of India reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years?

  1. 73rd Constitutional Amendment
  2. 69th Constitutional Amendment
  3. 61st Constitutional Amendment
  4. 83rd Constitutional Amendment.

Answer: (c)

75. The Election Commission of India does not have the power to:

  1. Register a political party
  2. Re‐register a political party
  3. Conduct election to State Legislatures
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

76. Who elects the representatives of the states in Rajya Sabha?

  1. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies
  2. All registered voters in India
  3. Elected Members of Parliament
  4. Elected members of State Legislative Assemblies and Parliament.

Answer: (a)

77. Which practices among the following constitute ‘corrupt practice’ in the Parliamentary election?

  1. Bribery
  2. Procuring assistance of the government servants
  3. Promoting the feeling of hatred and enmity between different classes of citizens on ground of religion, caste etc.
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

78. What can be the maximum number of representatives of States and Union Territories in the Council of States?

  1. 238
  2. 240
  3. 245
  4. 250

Answer: (a)

79. An agreement consists of reciprocal promises between at least….

  1. Four parties
  2. Six parties
  3. Three parties
  4. Two parties.

Answer: (d)

80. Who among the following does not have the capacity to enter into a contract?

  1. Corporation
  2. Minor
  3. A person convicted of an offence
  4. All of these.

Answer: (b)

81. The age of majority for entering into a contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872 is:

  1. 18 years
  2. 21 years
  3. 16 years
  4. 25 years.

Answer: (a)

82. A contract of insurance is an example of:

  1. Quasi Contract
  2. Contingent Contract
  3. Both
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

83. Agreement of social nature is unenforceable because it lacks:

  1. Intention to create moral relationship
  2. Intention to create social relationship
  3. Intention to create legal relationship
  4. Intention to create an agreement.

Answer: (c)

84. Doctrine of privity of contract implies:

  1. Only those persons who are party to a contract can enforce the same
  2. Only those persons who are not party to a contract can enforce the same
  3. Only those persons who are known to the promisor can enforce the contract
  4. Only those persons who are known to the promisee can enforce the contract.

Answer: (a)

85. In India, provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 apply to:

  1. Citizens
  2. Persons
  3. Companies
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

86. Product patent in India was introduced in:

  1. 2004
  2. 2005
  3. 2003
  4. 2006

Answer: (b)

87. Industrial design specifically refers to:

  1. Form of expression
  2. Functionality
  3. Form of expression with aesthetic appeal
  4. Invention

Answer: (c)

88. Which among the following combinations is not mentioned under the TRIPS?

  1. Patents, Trademarks and Copyright
  2. Patents, Trademarks and Industrial Designs
  3. Patents, Copyright and Data Exclusivity
  4. Patents, Copyright and Undisclosed Information.

Answer: (c)

89. Intellectual property rights are ________ in their enforcement.

  1. Territorial
  2. Regional
  3. International
  4. All of these.

Answer: (a)

90. The trade‐related intellectual property disputes are settled by:

  1. WIPO
  2. WTO
  3. ICJ
  4. World Economic Forum.

Answer: (b)

91. The formula of making Coca Cola is protected under:

  1. Copyright
  2. Trademarks
  3. Trade Secrets
  4. None of these.

Answer: (c)

Section III: Analytical Abilites

92. In the following question, choose the correct alternative which can replace the question mark

Ignominious: Honourable:: Cajole:?

  1. Notorious
  2. Coax
  3. Bully
  4. Filch

Answer: (c)

93. In the following question, choose the correct alternative which can replace the question mark

Condign: Deserved :: Veracity : ?

  1. Mercy
  2. Boring
  3. Obloquy
  4. Accuracy

Answer: (d)

94. Complete the series.

RESTITUTION, ESTITUTIO, TITUTIO, ITUTI,

  1. UTI
  2. TUT
  3. ITU
  4. TI

Answer: (a)

95. If A x B means A is to the north of B; A + B means A is to the south of B; A % B means A is to the west of B; A ‐ B means A is to the east of B; then in P % Q + R ‐ S, S is in which direction with respect to Q?

  1. South‐West
  2. South‐East
  3. North‐East
  4. North‐West.

Answer: (d)

96. Read the passage and answer the following question:

Nine diplomats R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a table facing the centre. Z sits 5th to the right of X. T is not an immediate neighbour of either X or Z. S sits between Y and V. T sits 4th to the left of V. U sits 2nd to the right of W. Y is not an immediate neighbour of Z.

Which of the following is U’s position with respect to S in the anti‐clock wise direction starting from S?

  1. 3rd to the Left
  2. 4th to the Left
  3. 5th to the Right
  4. 7th to the Right.

Answer: (c)

97. Read the passage and answer the following question:

Nine diplomats R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z are sitting around a table facing the centre. Z sits 5th to the right of X. T is not an immediate neighbour of either X or Z. S sits between Y and V. T sits 4th to the left of V. U sits 2nd to the right of W. Y is not an immediate neighbour of Z.

Three of the following pairs are alike based on their seating positions in the above arrangement and so form a group. Find the odd one out.

  1. TR
  2. ZS
  3. YW
  4. UV

Answer: (d)

98. Read the passage and answer the following one question:

A wildlife sanctuary contains animals of at least two of the following six kinds‐‐nilgai, chinkara, black buck, wild boar, leopards, jackals. No other kinds of animals are in the sanctuary. The following conditions must hold:

  1. Jackals are not in the sanctuary if Chinkaras are
  2. Black bucks are not in the sanctuary if Wild boars are
  3. Either wild boar or jackal, but not both, are in the sanctuary
  4. Jackals are in the sanctuary if Nilgais, Leopards, or both are in the sanctuary.

If there are no wild boars in the sanctuary, then which one of the following is a kind of animal that cannot be in the sanctuary:

  1. Nilgai
  2. Chinkara
  3. Black buck
  4. Jackal

Answer: (b)

99. Given A ÷ B means A is father of B, A x B means A is wife of B, A + B means A is the brother of B, A ‐ B means A is the daughter of B. If, E ÷ F x G + H, then how is H related to F?

  1. Brother‐in‐law
  2. Brother
  3. Father
  4. Father‐in‐law.

Answer: (a)

100. Choose the odd one out:

  1. FCDE
  2. UQRS
  3. KGHI
  4. PLMN

Answer: (a)

DU LLB QUESTION PAPER 2020 | Click Here to Download PDF


  1. Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary and Entrance Exams
  2. Legal Bites Academy – Ultimate Test Prep Destination

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