DU LLM 2018 Solved Paper | DU LLM Entrance Solved Papers PDF

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DU LLM Entrance Solved Papers

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DU LLM QUESTION PAPER 2018 | Click Here to Download PDF

DU LLM QUESTION PAPER, 2018

Duration of examination: 2 hours
Maximum marks: 400
Negative marking: 1

1. Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?

  1. State is a creation of agreement between people
  2. Thomas Hobbes’ social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
  3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
  4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. All are correct
  2. 1 and 2 are correct
  3. 1 and 3 are correct
  4. 1 and 4 are correct.

Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty
  2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract
  3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract
  4. All these.

Answer: (b)

3. Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?

  1. Vis major
  2. Statutory authority
  3. Plaintiff’s own default
  4. Act of third party

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 3 and 4
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. All of these
  4. 1 and 3.

Answer: (d)

4. Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?

  1. The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
  2. The Information Technology Act, 2000
  3. The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

5. Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?

  1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
  2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
  3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 2 and 3 are correct
  2. Only 3 is correct
  3. Only 2 is correct
  4. 1 and 2 are correct.

Answer: (c)

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6. Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?

  1. Credit card details
  2. Medical records
  3. Mobile number
  4. Sexual orientation

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
  2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
  3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  4. All of these are correct.

Answer: (b)

7. Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?

  1. Enquiry
  2. Judicial Settlement
  3. Arbitration
  4. All these.

Answer: (d)

8. Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:

  1. The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata
  2. The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff
  3. The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats
  4. The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag.

Answer: (a)

9. Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:

  1. Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means
  2. Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention
  3. Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force
  4. Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members.

Answer: (c)

10. Which of the following are ‘Inventions Not Patentable’ under the Patent Act, 1970?

  1. Invention relating to atomic Energy
  2. A method of agriculture or horticulture
  3. All of these
  4. Topography of integrated circuits.

Answer: (c)

11. Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?

  1. Prior consent of the parties.
  2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
  3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
  4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
  5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.

Choose the correct option from:

  1. Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
  2. Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct
  3. Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  4. Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct.

Answer: (d)

12. Which of the following is an example of obligations erga omnes of states under International Law?

  1. Protection from Wars
  2. Protection from slavery
  3. Protection from Political Crimes
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

13. Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?

  1. Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them unmerchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample
  2. Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality
  3. Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample
  4. None of these.

Answer: (d)

14. Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:

  1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
  2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
  3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Only 1 and 3 are correct
  2. Only 1 and 2 are correct
  3. Only 2 and 3 are correct
  4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Answer: (d)

15. Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud?

  1. Undue Influence
  2. Deliberate Mistake
  3. Misrepresentation
  4. Coercion

Answer: (a)

16. A member of the UN may be suspended from its membership:

  1. by the Security Council
  2. by the International Court of Justice upon the request made by the UN General Assembly
  3. by the General Assembly upon the recommendations of the Security Council
  4. by the UN Secretary General.

Answer: (c)

17. According to the Information Technology Act, 2000, an electronic record is deemed to be received at a place where addressee:

  1. All these
  2. has his server
  3. has his place of business
  4. retrieves the record.

Answer: (b)

18. According to Fuller, in order to evade failure, law must have the following characteristics:

  1. Law must be publicly accessible
  2. Law must be clear and unambiguous
  3. Law must not command what cannot be done
  4. Law must introduce frequent changes

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
  2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  3. All are correct
  4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Answer: (b)

19. Who among the following remarked that international law is positive morality?

  1. Lon Fuller
  2. Jeremy Bentham
  3. L.A. Hart
  4. John Austin.

Answer: (d)

20. Trade mark includes:

  1. Certification mark
  2. Collective mark
  3. All of these
  4. Well known trade mark.

Answer: (c)

21. Lakshmi and Ram married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954. Ram died in 2010 leaving behind Lakshmi, his mother, a son and a daughter. The intestate and testamentary succession to his property would be governed by:

  1. Intestate succession according to the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 and testamentary succession according to the Indian Succession Act, 1925
  2. His ancestral property would devolve on his son and mother and separate property to his wife, son and daughter
  3. The Hindu Succession Act, 1956
  4. The Indian Succession Act, 1925.

Answer: (a)

22. Section 498A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable in cases of cruelty by husband or relatives of the husband within:

  1. 2 years of marriage
  2. 3 years of marriage
  3. No time limit
  4. 7 years of marriage.

Answer: (c)

23. John Rawls’ idea of basing justice on a contract has been challenged by:

  1. Jeremy Bentham
  2. Tom Bingham
  3. Amartya Sen
  4. Upendra Baxi.

Answer: (c)

24. Dinesh finds a gold ring on the road, not knowing to whom the ring belongs. Dinesh picks up the ring. Dinesh is guilty of which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

  1. No offence
  2. Theft
  3. Criminal breach of trust
  4. Dishonest Misappropriation.

Answer: (a)

25. First Geneva Convention of 1949 deals with:

  1. Amelioration of the Condition of the Wounded and Sick in Armed Forces in the Field
  2. Amelioration of the Condition of Wounded, Sick and Shipwrecked Members of Armed Forces at Sea
  3. Treatment of Prisoners of War
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

26. Shamim Ara claimed her dower after the death of her husband from her husband’s property. She is a/an:

  1. preferential creditor to all other creditors subject to her right to retention
  2. ordinary unsecured creditor, having no priority over other unsecured creditors, subject to her right to retention
  3. ordinary unsecured creditor but having priority over other unsecured creditors
  4. secured creditor subject to her right of retention.

Answer: (b)

27. To cede a part of the Indian Territory in favour of any foreign country, which one of the following procedural requirement must be complied with?

  1. A law made by Parliament to the effect would be relevant and sufficient
  2. A law must be passed in compliance with Article 3 of the Constitution of India
  3. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed in compliance with Article 368 of the Constitution of India
  4. A Constitutional Amendment Act must be passed to amend the Constitution as per Article 368 and followed up by a law passed relatable to Article 3 of the Constitution of India.

Answer: (c)

28. Who defined defamation as ‘publication of a statement which tends to lower a person in the estimation of right thinking members of society generally, or which tends to make them shun or avoid that person’.

  1. Winfield
  2. Glanville Williams
  3. Salmond
  4. Pollock

Answer: (a)

29. Who among the following can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?

  1. Any recognised consumer association
  2. The Central Government or any State Government
  3. A consumer
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

30. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court made it mandatory for candidates contesting elections to the legislatures and their spouses to declare their source of income at the time of filing nominations?

  1. People’s Union for Civil Liberties v. Union of India
  2. Jan Chaukidar v. Union of India
  3. Association for Democratic Reforms v. Union of India
  4. Lok Prahari v. Union of India.

Answer: (d)

31. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that the public authority providing services or goods as per the definition under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986 must be held liable to pay adequate compensation to the consumer for harassment or mental agony or oppression caused to him for capricious exercise of power and the money could then be recovered from the erring public officials?

  1. State of Gujarat v. Memom Mahomed
  2. Shyam Sunder v. State of Rajasthan
  3. Indian Medical Association v. V.P. Shantha
  4. Lucknow Development Authority v. M.K. Gupta,

Answer: (d)

32. In which of the following case, the Supreme Court held that ‘An intermediary shall be liable for a third party information hosted by him if upon receiving actual knowledge from the court order or on being notified by the appropriate government, he fails to expeditiously remove that material’?

  1. My Space Inc. v. Super Cassettes
  2. Google India Pvt. Ltd. v. M/s Visaka Industries
  3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
  4. Avinash Bajaj v. State.

Answer: (c)

33. In which of the following case, Lord Wilberforce opined that ‘It is necessary to consider three elements inherent in any claim for nervous shock: the class of persons whose claim should be recognized, the proximity of such persons to the incident and the means adopted by which shock is caused’?

  1. Page v. Smith
  2. Hinz v. Berry
  3. Bourhill v. Young
  4. McLoughlin v. O’Brian.

Answer: (d)

34. In which of the following offences minimum five offenders are required?

  1. Affray
  2. Robbery
  3. Dacoity
  4. Rioting

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  2. 2, 3 and 4 are correct
  3. 1 and 4 are correct
  4. 3 and 4 are correct.

Answer: (d)

35. A foreign company intends to merge with an Indian Company. As per the relevant provision in the Companies (Compromises, Arrangements and Amalgamation) Rules, 2016, it needs to obtain prior approval of:

  1. Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
  2. Securities and Exchange Board of India
  3. Reserve Bank of India
  4. Department of Economic Affairs.

Answer: (c)

36. Who coined the term ‘Compensatory Discrimination’?

  1. P.N. Singh
  2. Marc Galanter
  3. Upendra Baxi
  4. Justice Krishna Iyer.

Answer: (b)

37. What is the limitation period for filing a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?

  1. One year from the date of cause of action
  2. 2 years from the date of cause of action
  3. 6 months from the date of cause of action
  4. 90 days from the date of cause of action.

Answer: (b)

38. What is the role of section 135, Trade Marks Act, 1999?

  1. Relief for recovery of property
  2. Relief for specific performance
  3. Relief for infringement
  4. Declaration of the title.

Answer: (c)

39. What is the principle of complementarity in the context of the International Criminal Court (ICC)?

  1. It means the ICC will assist the domestic criminal court in trial and prosecution of the individual accused of committing crimes enlisted in the Rome Statute, 1998
  2. It means the ICC will seek for demand production of accused to its jurisdiction
  3. It means the ICC will prosecute an individual only when that individual submits to its jurisdiction
  4. It means the ICC will only prosecute an individual if states are unwilling or unable to prosecute.

Answer: (d)

40. The question regarding disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha under the X Schedule of the Constitution of India is referred for the decision to:

  1. A member elected for this purpose by the Lok Sabha
  2. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
  3. Deputy Chairperson of Rajya Sabha
  4. President of India.

Answer: (a)

41. Dissolution of a firm can be carried by:

  1. Expiry of the term for which it was constituted
  2. Adjudication of a partner as an insolvent
  3. Death of a partner
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

42. A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are partners in a partnership firm named A, B& C. ‘A’ retires from the firm without giving any public notice. Thereafter, an existing creditor lends Rs. ten lakh to the firm on the basis of his knowledge that ‘A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ are the three partners in the firm. This amount remains unpaid by the firm. The creditor wants to recover the unpaid loan amount from the firm.

  1. No one will be liable for the unpaid loan amount
  2. A’, ‘B’ and ‘C’ will be liable for the unpaid loan amount
  3. Only ‘B’ and ‘C’ will be liable for the unpaid loan amount
  4. Only ‘A’ will be liable for the unpaid loan amount.

Answer: (b)

43. Assertion (A): Distributive justice is based on the principle that there has to be equal distribution amongst the equals.

Reason (R): Reasonable classification is the essence of equality as justice cannot be achieved by promulgating uniform law for everyone.

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct reason for A.
  2. Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct reason for A.
  3. Both A and R are incorrect.
  4. A is incorrect but R is correct.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. 4

Answer: (b)

44. Consider the following statement about the Military Staff Committee:

  1. It shall advise and assist the Security Council on all questions relating to military requirements for maintenance of international peace and security.
  2. It shall consist of Chiefs of Staff of the permanent members and two non- members nominated by the General Assembly.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  2. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
  3. Only 1 is correct
  4. Only 2 is correct.

Answer: (c)

45. Consider the following statements:

  1. Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear weapons.
  2. It was passed on July 7, 2017 by the Security Council.
  3. It has not come into force.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. Only 2 is correct
  3. All of these are correct
  4. 1 and 3 are correct.

Answer: (d)

46. Consider the following statements:

  1. Moses v. Macferlan is a prominent example of theory of unjust enrichment as propounded by Lord Mansfield.
  2. According to this theory, the demands of justice and equity is to prevent the unjust enrichment of one person at the cost of another.
  3. Sinclair v. Brougham has propounded the theory of ‘Implied-in-fact’ contract to elaborate the nature of Quasi Contracts.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  2. Only 1 and 3 are incorrect
  3. Only 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Only 2 and 3 are correct.

Answer: (a)

47. Consider the following statements:

  1. A contract with a minor is void, however, a minor can after attaining majority ratify an agreement made by him during his minority.
  2. Minor is not liable for the wrongful act when the cause of action in substance is ex contractu.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
  3. Only 1 is correct
  4. Only 2 is correct.

Answer: (d)

48. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Bolitho test relates to medical negligence.
  2. The Bolitho test was referred to in Malay Kumar Ganguly v. Sukumar Mukherjee.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  2. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect
  3. 1 is correct but 2 is incorrect
  4. 1 is incorrect but 2 is correct.

Answer: (a)

49. Savithri, a married Hindu woman died intestate leaving behind her husband and mother. Properties mentioned in Schedule ‘A’ was inherited by her from her father and Schedule ‘B’ property was her self-acquired property. Pick out the correct legal proposition from below:

  1. Her husband and mother will share equally in both the properties
  2. Her husband alone will succeed to both properties
  3. Her husband will inherit Schedule ‘B’ property and mother will inherit Schedule ‘A’ property
  4. Her mother will alone succeed to both properties.

Answer: (c)

50. Article 290-A of the Constitution of India refers to:

  1. Annual payment to certain Devaswom Funds
  2. Privy purse sums of Rulers
  3. Exemption of property and income of a State from Union taxation
  4. Exemption from taxation by States in respect of water or electricity in certain cases.

Answer: (a)

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51.  Match the cases mentioned in List I with legal issues mentioned in List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I

  1. Tulasamma v. Sesha Reddy
  2. John Vallmattom v. UOI
  3. R. Kantha v. UOI
  4. Sandhya v. UOI

List II

  1. Right of a daughter to reopen the partition is valid
  2. A Hindu having a daughter cannot adopt another daughter under the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956
  3. Limited estate of a woman becomes absolute estate
  4. Section 118 of the Indian Succession Act, 1925 is unconstitutional
  1. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
  2. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
  3. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
  4. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2.

Answer: (d)

52. Match subject matters contained in List I with the provisions of the Constitution of India in List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I

  1. Maternity relief
  2. Living wage
  3. Right to work
  4. Organisation of agriculture

List II

  1. Article 41
  2. Article 42
  3. Article 43
  4. Article 48
  1. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
  2. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
  3. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
  4. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1.

Answer: (c)

53. Match List I containing cases with List II containing the important principles used in deciding these cases and choose the correct options from the codes given below:

List I

  1. Durga Prasad v. Baldeo
  2. Abdul Aziz v. Masum Ali
  3. Dutton v. Poole
  4. Tweddle v. Atkinson

List II

  1. The other party has done nothing in response to unilateral promise and hence no consideration
  2. No stranger to the consideration can take advantage of a contract, although made for his benefit
  3. Act was not done at the desire of the promisor and hence no consideration
  4. The agreement may be enforced by the third person for whose benefit the agreement was made
  1. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
  2. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
  3. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  4. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3.

Answer: (c)

54. Match the principles mentioned in List I with the associated cases in List II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:

List I

  1. Neighborhood Rule
  2. Volenti non fit injuria
  3. Vis major
  4. Res ipsa loquitur

List II

  1. Greenock Corp. v. Caledonian Rly.
  2. Donoghue v. Stevenson
  3. Achutrao Haribhau Khowda v. State of Maharashtra
  4. Smith v. Charles Baker and Sons
  1. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
  2. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
  3. A-1, B-3, C-4, D-2
  4. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3.

Answer: (d)

55. Match List I containing specific provisions of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 with List II containing corresponding subject matter and select the correct answers using the codes given below:

List I

  1. Section 2(a)
  2. Section 2 (d)
  3. Section 2 (i)
  4. Section 2(f)
  5. Section 2(e)

List II

  1. Voidable Contract
  2. Proposal
  3. Agreement
  4. Reciprocal Promises
  5. Consideration
  1. A-5, B-2, C-4, D-1, E-3
  2. A-2, B-5, C-1, D-4, E-3
  3. A-2, B-5, C-3, D-4, E-1
  4. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4, E-5.

Answer: (b)

56. Match the general defences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 in List I with the cases in List II and select the correct answer using codes given below:

List I

  1. Unsoundness of mind
  2. Intoxication
  3. Private defence
  4. Mistake of fact

List II

  1. Basdev v. State of PEPSU
  2. State of Orissa v. Ram Bahadur Thapa
  3. Dahyabhai Chhanganbhai Thakker v. State of Gujarat
  4. Deo Narain v. State of U.P.
  1. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  2. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
  3. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
  4. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1.

Answer: (a)

57. Match List I containing cases with List II containing respective areas of contract and select the correct answers using the codes given below:

List I

  1. Balfour v. Balfour
  2. Felthouse v. Bindley
  3. Krell v. Henry
  4. Harvey v. Facey

List II

  1. Frustration of contract
  2. Invitation to receive offer
  3. Intention to contract
  4. Communication of acceptance to offeror
  1. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  2. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
  3. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
  4. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1.

Answer: (b)

58. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I

  1. Brenda Cossman
  2. Bhikhu Parekh
  3. Holmes
  4. J.S. Mill

List II

  1. Rights
  2. Feminist Legal Theory
  3. Realism
  4. Utilitarian
  1. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
  2. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
  3. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
  4. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.

Answer: (a)

60. Consider the following propositions:

  1. A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
  2. A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessity of any decree annulling it.
  3. A voidable marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent court.
  4. Children born out of void marriage will get legal protection under section 16 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 on the basis of decree of nullity of such marriage.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 2 and 3 are correct
  2. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
  3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  4. 1 and 2 are correct.

Answer: (a)

60. Who among the following can remove the name of company from the register of companies on suo-moto basis in terms of section 248(1) of the Companies Act, 2013?

  1. Registrar of Companies
  2. Securities and Exchange Board of India
  3. National Company Law Tribunal
  4. Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

Answer: (c)

61. Who amongst the following accepts that “Rights are important because they can be enforced”?

  1. Lloyd
  2. John Rawls
  3. Allen Buchanan
  4. Thomas Hobbes.

Answer: (c)

62. Kelson’s theory of law suggests that:

  1. Legal order is a hierarchy of norms.
  2. The basic content of the law is determined by Grundnorm (the basic norm).
  3. Law is a command.
  4. Pure theory of law deals with law as it ought to be.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 2 and 3 are correct
  2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
  3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  4. 1 and 2 are correct.

Answer: (d)

63. Consider the following propositions:

  1. A Muslim woman, on her husband’s death, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
  2. A Muslim woman, on divorce, need not follow Iddat if her marriage is valid but not consummated.
  3. A Muslim woman, on divorce, has to observe Iddat if her marriage is irregular but consummated.
  4. A Muslim woman, whose marriage is void but consummated, has to observe Iddat till delivery if she is carrying the child in her womb in case of her husband’s death.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 2 and 3 are correct
  2. Only 4 is correct
  3. Only 2 is correct
  4. 1 and 4 are correct.

Answer: (a)

64. Consider the following statements about the International Tribunal for the Law of the Sea (ITLOS):

  1. The Tribunal is composed of 21 independent judges.
  2. It is based in Hamburg, Germany.
  3. Dr. Neeru Chadha from India has been appointed as one of the Judges of the Tribunal in 2017.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. Only 2 is correct
  3. All of these are correct
  4. Only 3 is correct.

Answer: (c)

65. Consider the following statements:

  1. Under the UN Charter, the General Assembly may take up issues relating to maintenance of international peace and security, including the principles governing disarmament and the regulation of armaments.
  2. Under the UN Charter, the Security Council has the primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. Only 2 is correct
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.

Answer: (c)

66. Consider the following statements:

  1. The motion for removal of a Supreme Court Judge submitted to the speaker of the Lok Sabha lapses with the dissolution of Lok Sabha.
  2. The Inquiry Committee appointed under the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 to ascertain the veracity of the motion for removal of the judge can be treated as a tribunal under Article 136 of the Constitution.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. Only 2 is correct
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct.

Answer: (d)

67. Consider the following statements:

  1. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is an integral part of the UN Charter.
  2. All members of the UN are ipso facto parties to the Statute of the International Court of Justice.
  3. The Statute of the International Court of Justice is a separate treaty, and members of the UN have to separately ratify it in order to be bound by the same.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. None of these is correct
  3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  4. 1 and 2 are correct.

Answer: (d)

68. Consider the following statements:

  1. All robberies are either theft or extortion.
  2. If A holds Z down and fraudulently takes Z’s money without Z’s consent. This is an example of theft as robbery.
  3. A obtains property from Z by saying that his child is in the hands of my gang and will be put to death unless a ransom of 50 lakh rupees is paid. Z was however not put in fear of instant death of child. This is an example of extortion as robbery.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  3. 1 and 2 are correct
  4. 1 and 3 are correct.

Answer: (c)

69. Consider the following statements:

  1. An agreement made without adequate consideration is void.
  2. A written and registered agreement made on account of natural love and affection between close relatives is not valid without adequate consideration.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. Only 2 is correct
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Answer: (d)

70. Consider the following statements:

  1. There may be situations where only one party is bound to the terms of the contract.
  2. In order to convert a proposal into a promise, the acceptance must be absolute and may be unqualified.
  3. Death or insanity of the proposer is considered as good ground for revocation of proposal in all circumstances.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. Only 2 is correct
  3. 1 and 2 are correct
  4. 1 and 3 are correct.

Answer: (a)

71. Consider the following statements:

  1. The minor is estopped from setting the defence of minority when by misrepresenting his age minor himself has induced the other party to enter into agreement with him.
  2. Section 11 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 declares that only minors and persons of unsound mind are incompetent to make contract.
  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. Only 2 is correct
  3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. Both 1 and 2 are incorrect.

Answer: (d)

72. A’ a resident of Mumbai has a website ‘www.caravan.co.in’ launched in 2015. ‘A’ has a business of apparels in Mumbai having a trademark ‘CARAVAN’. The website is accessible from Delhi. ‘B’ a resident of Hyderabad starts a website ‘www.caravaan.co.in’ in 2017 having the same business. The website of ‘B’ consists of a catalogue, a toll free number, and an email address. ‘A’ wants to file a suit for passing off of trade mark in Delhi.

  1. ‘A’ can file a suit in Delhi on the basis of accessibility of website of ‘B’.
  2. ‘A’ cannot file a suit merely on the accessibility of website.
  3. ‘A’ cannot file a suit in Delhi as the website of ‘B’ is not interactive.
  4. ‘A’ can file a suit if ‘B’ specifically targets the forum state resulting in harm to ‘A’ in forum State.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Only 1 is correct
  2. Only 3 and 4 are correct
  3. Only 4 is correct
  4. 2, 3 and 4 are correct.

Answer: (d)

73. ‘A’ has lent money to ‘P & Q’ firm engaged in the cement business and has agreed to take in addition to, or in place of his interest, a portion of the profits of the firm business. It can be said that:

  1. ‘A’ is a partner as well as a creditor of the ‘P&Q’ firm
  2. ‘A’ is a partner in ‘P&Q’ firm
  3. ‘A’ is not a partner in the ‘P&Q’ firm
  4. None of these.

Answer: (c)

74. Minor can be admitted to the benefits of the firm:

  1. With the consent of all the existing creditors of the firm
  2. With the consent of all the partners
  3. With the consent of the guardian of such minor
  4. All of these.

Answer: (b)

75. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to murder ‘C’. ‘B’ refuses to do so. Which offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been committed by ‘A’?

  1. No offence
  2. Abetting to commit murder
  3. Conspiracy to commit murder
  4. Attempt to murder.

Answer: (b)

76. Which of the following goals are mentioned in the preamble of the UN Charter?

  1. To save succeeding generations from the scourge of war.
  2. To reaffirm faith in fundamental human rights, in the dignity and worth of the human person, in the equal rights of men and women and of nations large and small.
  3. To promote social progress and better standards of life in larger freedom.
  4. To promote democratic order in conflict-ridden societies.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Only 1 and 3 are correct
  2. Only 1 and 2 are correct
  3. Only 2 and 4 are correct
  4. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Answer: (d)

77. Which of the following is an example of intangible property?

  1. Sale Deed of land
  2. Pass book of a bank account
  3. An autobiographical work
  4. Indemnity Bond.

Answer: (c)

78. Which of the following are jural correlatives in Hohfeld’s scheme of analysis of rights?

  1. Right – Liberty
  2. Power – Liability
  3. Liberty – No-Right
  4. Immunity – Disability

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 2, 3 and 4
  4. 1 and 2

Answer: (c)

79. Which of the following is not a body associated with the European Union (EU)?

  1. Council of the European Union
  2. Council of Europe
  3. European Commission
  4. European Council.

Answer: (b)

80. Which of the following statement is incorrect as per the Constitution of India?

  1. The President of India exercises three functions, namely, summoning, prorogation and dissolution in relation to the Houses of Parliament
  2. The President of India may address either House of Parliament or both Houses assembled together
  3. Allocation of seats in the House of the People to the States shall be readjusted upon the completion of each census
  4. The Speaker summons the House of People.

Answer: (d)

81. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the Attorney General for India?

  1. Attorney General is appointed by the President
  2. Attorney General shall have right of audience in all courts in India in the performance of his duties
  3. Attorney General shall be entitled to vote when he takes part in Parliamentary proceedings
  4. Attorney General for India shall have the right to take part in the proceedings of Parliament.

Answer: (c)

82. Which of the following statements is incorrect about the National Capital Territory of Delhi as per the Constitution of India?

  1. In the case of difference of opinion between the Lieutenant Governor and his Ministers on any matter, the Lieutenant Governor shall refer it to the President for decision
  2. If any provision of law made by the Legislative Assembly with respect to any matter is repugnant to any provision of a law made by Parliament with respect to that matter, the law made by Parliament shall prevail
  3. The Chief Minister and other Ministers shall hold office during the pleasure of the Lieutenant Governor
  4. The Union Territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi.

Answer: (c)

83. Which of the following statement about the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India is incorrect?

  1. Second Schedule of the Constitution specifies the salary and service conditions of CAG
  2. CAG is appointed by the President of India
  3. CAG shall be removed in the manner like that of Judge of the Supreme Court
  4. CAG submits the reports relating to the accounts of the State to the President of India.

Answer: (d)

84. Which of the following statements is incorrect as per the Constitution of India?

  1. There shall be a Special Officer for linguistic minorities to be appointed by the President
  2. All proceedings in the Supreme Court and every High Court shall be in the English language
  3. The official language of the Union shall be Hindi in Devanagari script
  4. Every person shall submit the representation for redress of grievances to the Union in the language of English or Hindi.

Answer: (d)

85. Which of the following presumptions/reasons best justify the validity of laws on hate speech?

  1. Equality means uniformity.
  2. Equality and liberty may sometimes become contradictory values.
  3. Law should always prioritize equality over liberty.
  4. Equality and liberty must be harmoniously construed.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 2 and 4 are correct
  2. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
  3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct
  4. 1 and 4 are correct.

Answer: (a)

86. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India provides for the constitution of Panchayats?

  1. Article 243-F
  2. Article 243-H
  3. Article 243-B
  4. Article 243-E.

Answer: (c)

87. Which of the following is true about the test of directness to determine remoteness of damage?

  1. If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, even if the actual damage is of a different kind than what was foreseeable
  2. If some harm is foreseeable, the defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act, only if the actual damage is of the same kind as was foreseeable
  3. The defendant is liable for all direct consequences of his act
  4. The defendant is liable only for those consequences that are foreseeable by a reasonable man.

Answer: (a)

88. Match the following correctly:

Conference

  1. United Nations Sustainable Development Summit
  2. United Nations Conference on Environment & Development
  3. World Summit on Sustainable Development
  4. United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development

Outcome Document

  1. Agenda 21
  2. Transforming our world: the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development
  3. “The Future We Want”
  4. Johannesburg Declaration on Sustainable Development
  1. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
  2. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  3. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
  4. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4.

Answer: (b)

89. Assertion (A): A Governor is always supposed to act on the advice of the Council of Ministers in matter of appointment of the Chief Minister.

Reason (R): Like Article 74(1), Article 163(1) of the Constitution of India make it mandatory for the Governor to act in accordance with the advice tendered by the Council of Ministers.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct reason for (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect
  3. (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
  4. (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.

Answer: (b)

90. X Ltd. is an Indian company, other than a company referred to in sub rule (2) of Rule 2 of the Companies (Restriction on number of layers) Rules, 2017 which relates to the ‘Restriction on number of layers for certain classes of holding companies’. X Ltd. has a wholly owned Indian subsidiary Y Ltd. Y Ltd. has another Indian subsidiary Z Ltd. and it owns 60% of its total share capital. Y Ltd. now seeks to form another Indian subsidiary K Ltd. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. only as its wholly owned subsidiary and not otherwise
  2. Y Ltd. is permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary
  3. Y Ltd. is not permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary as this investment will be beyond the maximum permissible layers
  4. Y Ltd. is not permitted to have K Ltd. as its subsidiary as X Ltd. is not covered by the abovementioned sub-rule (2).

Answer: (b)

91. Match List I and List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List I

  1. Rukia Khatun v. Abdul Laskar
  2. Shayara Bano v. UOI
  3. Shamim Ara v. State of UP
  4. Danial Latifi v. UOI

List II

  1. Divorced wife is entitled to Mahr, reasonable and fair provision for future
  2. Un-communicated talaq is no talaq
  3. Triple Talaq is unconstitutional
  4. Reconciliation should precede Talaq
  1. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
  2. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
  3. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
  4. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1.

Answer: (a)

92. Santosh, a jailor has charge of a prisoner Virender. Santosh with an intention to cause death, illegally omits to supply Virender with food. However, Virender does not die, though his strength is considerably reduced. Santosh is dismissed from the office and replaced by Geeta. Geeta, without collusion with Santosh, illegally omits to supply Virender with food, knowing fully well that she is likely thereby to cause Virender’s death. Virender dies of starvation. Choose the correct option:

  1. Both Geeta and Santosh are guilty of murder
  2. Only Geeta is guilty of murder and Santosh is not guilty of any offence
  3. Both Santosh and Geeta are guilty of attempt to murder
  4. Geeta is guilty of murder and Santosh is guilty of attempt to murder.

Answer: (d)

93. The egg shell skull principle was applied in:

  1. Page v. Smith
  2. Watson v. Buckley and Osborne, Garrett and Co. Ltd
  3. Smith v. Leech Brain and Company
  4. Dulieu v. White.

Answer: (c)

94. The term of copyright in cinematograph films shall subsist:

  1. Twenty five years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the film is published
  2. Sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the author dies
  3. Sixty years from the beginning of the calendar year next following the year in which the film is published
  4. None of these.

Answer: (c)

95. The word ‘reasonable’ was added in clause 2 of Article 19 of the Constitution of India through:

  1. Twenty-fourth Constitutional Amendment
  2. First Constitutional Amendment
  3. Sixteenth Constitutional Amendment
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

96. The maxim de minimis non curatlex incorporated in which section of the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

  1. Section 95
  2. Section 84
  3. Section 94
  4. Section 86.

Answer: (a)

97. The Haryana Panchayat Raj (Amendment) Act, 2015 included some categories which rendered persons falling in any of them, incapable of contesting Panchayat elections in the State of Haryana. This Amendment was declared constitutionally valid by the Supreme Court in Rajbala v. State of Haryana (2015). Who amongst the following are not included in those categories?

  1. All contestants must be matriculate
  2. Persons against whom charges are framed in cases punishable not less than 10 years
  3. Persons who have arrears of electricity bill
  4. Persons who do not have functional toilet at their home.

Answer: (a)

98. The Constitutional validity of Section 497 of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 has been challenged in which of the following cases:

  1. Shakti Vahini v. Union of India
  2. Binda Prasad v. State of M.P.
  3. Joseph Shine v. Union of India
  4. Subhash Kashinath Mahajan v. State of Maharashtra.

Answer: (c)

99. The matrimonial guilt of desertion under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955:

  1. commences when the fact of separation and the animus deserendi co-exist.
  2. is a valid ground for divorce if the period of desertion is one year.
  3. requires withdrawal from state of things as well as from place of residence.
  4. is not complete but inchoate, until a suit is instituted.

Choose the correct option from below:

  1. 2 and 4 are correct
  2. 2 and 3 are correct
  3. Only 4 is correct
  4. 1 and 4 are correct.

Answer: (d)

100. The Information Technology Act, 2000 applies to which of the following transactions/documents?

  1. Trust
  2. Promissory note
  3. Electronic cheque
  4. All these.

Answer: (c)

DU LLM QUESTION PAPER 2018 | Click Here to Download PDF


  1. Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary and Entrance Exams
  2. Legal Bites Academy – Ultimate Test Prep Destination
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