DU LLM 2020 Solved Paper | DU LLM Entrance Solved Papers PDF

By | September 14, 2021
DU LLM Entrance Solved Papers

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DU LLM QUESTION PAPER 2020 | Click Here to Download PDF

DU LLM QUESTION PAPER, 2020

Duration of examination: 2 hours

Maximum marks: 400

Negative marking: 1

1. Match List I with List II

List I

A. N. G. Dastane v. S. Dastane, (1975)2 SCC 326

B. Court on its Own Motion (Lajja Devi) v. State, 2012 (193) DLT 61

C. Saroj Rani v. Sudharshan Kumar, AIR 1984 SC 1562

D. Bipin Chandra v. Prabhavati, AIR 1957SC 176

List II

I. Desertion as a ground for divorce

II. Prohibition of Child Marriage Act 2006 will prevail over personal law

III. S.23(1)(a) is not a bar to file a petition under S.13 (1-A)

IV. Cruelty as a ground for divorce

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  2. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

Answer: (b)

2. Which of the following statements are correct? The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 …………………………………………

A. Does not permit polygamy

B. Permits conversion to Islam and to take a second wife

C. Does not permit Sagotra marriage

D. Does not permit marriage within prohibited relationship

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B, C and D
  2. A, C and D only
  3. A and C only
  4. A and D only.

Answer: (d)

3. Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Two Hindus married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 are governed by the Indian Succession Act, 1925 in matters of inheritance.

Statement II: Two Muslims married under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 are governed by the Indian Succession Act, 1925 in matters of inheritance. In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

Answer: (d)

4. Which of the following statements are incorrect regarding the Special Marriage Act, 1954 .

A. A marriage shall be null and void if one of the parties to the marriage is impotent at the time of marriage and at the time of institution of suit

B. One of the conditions for marrying under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 is that the male must have completed the age of 21 years and the female the age of 18 years

C. Any marriage celebrated in other forms may be registered under the Special Marriage Act, 1954 and both the parties must have completed 21 years of age at the time of registration

D. A divorce petition may be filed if the respondent is undergoing a sentence of imprisonment for seven years or more for an offence under IPC

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. All the above are incorrect
  2. All the above are correct
  3. B and D are incorrect
  4. C and D are incorrect.

Answer: (b)

5. In case of judicial separation …………….

A. The marital tie is severed by a judicial order

B. The marital obligations and rights are suspended

C. The husband has to pay maintenance to the wife

D. They can reunite after getting the order rescinded

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A, B, C and D only
  2. None of these
  3. B, C and D only
  4. A, B and C only.

Answer: (c)

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6. Which among the following may be an absolute property of a female Hindu under the Hindu Succession Act, 1956?

  1. Property acquired by a female Hindu in lieu of partition
  2. Property acquired by a female Hindu in lieu of maintenance
  3. Property acquired by a female Hindu for arrears of maintenance
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

7. Match List I with List II

List I (Features)

A. Children of the same father, but by different mothers

B. Children of the same mother, but by different fathers

C. A person related to the propositus through one or more female links

D. A person related to the propositus through male links

List II (Legal Terms)

I. Uterine

II. Agnate

III. Consanguine

IV. Cognate

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
  2. A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.

Answer: (b)

8. Match List I with List II

List I (Decisions)

A. Right to adopt a child is inherent in the right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution

B. Right to adopt a child under the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 would prevail over all other personal laws. However, the present is not an appropriate time where the right to adopt’ and ‘to be adopted can be raised to the status of a fundamental right under Article 21 of the Constitution of India

C. Innocent second wife, who is unaware of the first marriage of the husband, is entitled to maintenance under section 125 Cr.P.C

D. Wife, for the purpose of section 125 Cr.P.C, means only a legally wedded wife

List II (Cases)

I. Badshah v. Urmila Badshah

II. Savitaben Somabhai Bhatiya v. State of Gujarat

III. Philips Alfred Malvin v. Y.J. Gonsalvis

IV. Shabnam Hashmi v. Union of India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  3. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II.

Answer: (d)

9. Bigamy under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 includes ……………………………….

  1. Polygamy i.e. having more than one wife
  2. Polyandry i.e. having more than one husband
  3. Both option 1 and 2
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

10. Which of the following statements hold true regarding the Hindu Succession (Amendment) Act, 2005?

  1. Daughters can now act as the Karta of a joint Hindu family
  2. Daughters can now become a coparcener in a Joint Hindu Family
  3. A only
  4. A and B.

Answer: (d)

11. Islamic law provides for ………………..

  1. monogamy
  2. unlimited polygamy
  3. bigamy
  4. controlled polygamy.

Answer: (d)

12.The rule of Nemo dat quod non-habet is related to Section …………… of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.

  1. 28
  2. 23
  3. 6
  4. 20

Answer: (b)

13. The intention of a mortgagee to deposit title deeds in equitable mortgage is to ……………………….

  1. take an interest
  2. take possession
  3. create security
  4. take consideration.

Answer: (c)

14. A transfer of property occurring due to insolvency, forfeiture or sale in execution of a decree is called a ………………

  1. transfer by will
  2. transfer by operation of law
  3. transfer by act of parties
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

15. ‘A direct transfer of property in favour of an unborn person cannot be done.’ This sentence is ………………

  1. partly false
  2. absolutely true
  3. absolutely false
  4. partly true.

Answer: (b)

16. Which among the following cannot be transferred as per section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882?

  1. All interest in property restricted in its enjoyment to the owner personally
  2. A right to future maintenance
  3. A public office
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

17. A gift comprising of both existing and future property is ……………………………..

  1. void
  2. valid
  3. void only in respect of future property
  4. void only in respect of existing property.

Answer: (c)

18. Which among the following cases is related to ‘curative petition’?

  1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  2. Rupa Ashok Hurra v. Ashok Hurra & Another
  3. Shreya Singhal v. Union of India
  4. S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India.

Answer: (b)

19. Which among the following provisions of the Constitution of India maintains that it shall be the duty of every citizen of India “to safeguard public property and to abjure violence”?

  1. 51 A (a)
  2. 51 A (e)
  3. 51 A (i)
  4. 51 A (g).

Answer: (c)

20. Which of the following is called a revising chamber?

  1. Lok Sabha
  2. Rajya Sabha
  3. President Office
  4. Option 1 and 3.

Answer: (b)

21. Originally the Constitution of India had ………………………….

  1. 395 Articles 22 Parts 8 Schedules
  2. 359 Articles 20 Parts 8 Schedules
  3. 414 Articles 24 Parts 12 Schedules
  4. 141 Articles 22 Parts 12 Schedules.

Answer: (a)

22. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India said that “establishment of the egalitarian social order through rule of law is the basic structure of the Constitution”?

  1. S. Nakara v. Union of India
  2. State of Bihar v. Subhash Singh
  3. Samatha v. State of Andhra Pradesh
  4. Minerva Mills v. Union of India.

Answer: (c)

23. Which of the following is not true about the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

  1. Contains the enacting clause
  2. Declares the basic types of the Government
  3. Provides the source of the Constitution
  4. Provides powers to Courts.

Answer: (d)

24. “The test of ‘pith and substance of the subject matter’ and of ‘the object of the legislation’ were irrelevant, to the question of infringement of fundamental rights and the true test was the ‘direct effect’ of the impugned action on a particular fundamental right.” It was observed in the case of …………………………..

  1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  2. R C Cooper v. Union of India
  3. Bennett Coleman & Co. v. Union of India
  4. Sankari Prasad v. Union of India.

Answer: (c)

25. Party system is not prescribed in the Constitution of India, but has become an established system to run the parliamentary democratic system. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court of India pointed out that for a strong vibrant democratic government, parliamentary system is necessary which can be best achieved by party system?

A. Rama Kant Pandey v. Union of India

B. Rai Ramkrishna v. State of Bihar

C. S. Kodar v. State of Kerala

D. Kanhiyalal Omar v. R.K. Trivedi

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A and B only
  2. B and C only
  3. A and D only
  4. B, C and D only.

Answer: (c)

26. ‘Supreme Court is not only a court of law but also a court of equity.’ This was said in …………………………..

  1. Engineering Mazdoor Sabha v. Hind Cycles Ltd.
  2. Kihoto Hollahan v. Zachillhu
  3. Chandra Bansi Singh v. State of Bihar
  4. Arunachalam v. Sadhanantham.

Answer: (c)

27. The doctrine of basic structure, till now, has not been used by a constitutional court to strike down …………………………..

  1. enactments by legislator
  2. constitutional amendments
  3. executive actions
  4. None of these.

Answer: (d)

28. Who among the following does not hold an office of profit during the pleasure of the President?

  1. Judge of the Supreme Court of India
  2. Election Commissioner of India
  3. Member of the Union Public Service Commission
  4. None of these.

Answer: (d)

29. Which of the following Fundamental Rights is not enforceable against a non-state entity?

  1. Article 15(2)
  2. Article 16(2)
  3. Article 17
  4. Article 23.

Answer: (b)

30. The Supreme Court of India held that Article 14 of the Constitution of India embodies the principle of non-arbitrariness for the first time in …………………….

  1. Ajay Hasia v. Khalid Mujib Sehravardi
  2. AK Roy v. Union of India
  3. EP Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu
  4. AK Kraipak v. Union of India.

Answer: (c)

31. The Supreme Court of India in National Legal Services Authority v. Union of India (2014) held that transgender persons have the right to identify their gender as ……………………………….

  1. Female only
  2. Either male or female
  3. Third gender only
  4. Either male or female or third gender.

Answer: (d)

32. How many freedoms have been enumerated in the ‘liberty’ clause of the Preamble of the Constitution of India?

  1. Three
  2. Four
  3. Five
  4. Six

Answer: (c)

33. No person can hold the office of the director in more than …………………………..

  1. 10 Public companies at a time
  2. 15 Public companies at a time
  3. 20 Public companies at a time
  4. 50 Public companies at a time.

Answer: (a)

34. Which two types of business structures are created via a process of incorporation?

  1. Companies and sole proprietorships
  2. Partnerships and limited liability partnerships
  3. Companies and limited liability partnerships
  4. Companies and partnerships.

Answer: (c)

35. On incorporation of a company, the Registrar of Companies, in addition to the Certificate of Incorporation, issues a unique identification number, namely ………………………………

  1. Unique corporate number
  2. Corporate identification number
  3. Company identification number
  4. Unique identification number.

Answer: (b)

36. Starax Ltd. has the paid-up equity capital structure in the following proportion – Central Government: 38%; State Government: 10%; Subsidiary of a Government Company: 17.50%; and remaining shares by retail shareholders. Which of the following classes of companies would it belong to?

  1. government company
  2. non-government company
  3. deemed public company
  4. deemed private company.

Answer: (a)

37. Contracts made after incorporation of a public company, but before issuing the certificate of commencement of business are ………………………………

  1. provisional contracts
  2. post-incorporation contracts
  3. preliminary contracts
  4. contracts in the normal course of business.

Answer: (a)

38. Producer company is based on the principles of ……………………………..

  1. Patronage
  2. Mutual Assistance
  3. Limited Return
  4. All of these.

Answer: (b)

39. Which among the following remedies is available for a person who acted upon a false prospectus?

  1. Damages for fraudulent misrepresentation
  2. Compensation for untrue statement
  3. Damages for non-compliance with the requirements of section 26 of the Companies Act, 2013
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

40. Which among the following is regarded as the most important document of a company?

  1. Annual Report
  2. Prospectus
  3. Articles of Association
  4. Memorandum of Association.

Answer: (d)

41. The responsibility of a finder of goods is the ………………………….

  1. same responsibility as a trustee
  2. same responsibility as a bailee
  3. same responsibility as the owner
  4. same responsibility as a pledgee.

Answer: (b)

42. An agreement made without consideration is void, unless it is a promise to compensate, wholly or in part, a person who has …………………………. done something for the promisor, or something which the promisor was legally compellable to do.

  1. lawfully and willingly
  2. under a mistake of fact
  3. under a mistake of law
  4. already voluntarily.

Answer: (d)

43. Which of the following act does not constitute fraud under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?

  1. the suggestion, as a fact, of that which is not true, by one who does not believe it to be true
  2. the active concealment of a fact by one having knowledge or belief of the fact
  3. where a person stands in a fiduciary relation with the other and induces the other person to act on his directions
  4. a promise made without any intention of performing it.

Answer: (c)

44. Which of the following agreement is void?

  1. A owes B Rs 1000, but the debt is barred by the Limitation Act. A signs a written promise to pay B Rs. 500 on account of the debt
  2. A supports B’s infant son. B promises in writing to pay A’s expenses in so doing
  3. A finds B’s purse and gives it to him. B orally promises to give A Rs. 500
  4. A, for love and affection, promises to give his neighbour’s son, B, Rs. 9,000. A puts his promise to B into writing.

Answer: (d)

45. A owes money to B under a contract. It is agreed between A, B and C, that B shall thenceforth accept C as his debtor, instead of A. This agreement is called as …………………………

  1. Alteration
  2. Rescission
  3. Novation
  4. Extinction

Answer: (c)

46. Which of the following is/are exceptions to the doctrine of privity of contract?

  1. Beneficiaries
  2. Marriage settlement, partition or other family arrangements
  3. Covenants running with land
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

47. A sells, by auction to B, a horse which A knows to be unsound and A says nothing to B about the horse’s unsoundness. Choose the correct option from the following:

  1. This amounts to fraud
  2. This does not amount to fraud
  3. This amounts to undue influence
  4. This amounts to misrepresentation.

Answer: (b)

48. Where the proposal and acceptance are through letters, the contract is made at …………………………..

  1. the place where the letter of acceptance is posted
  2. the place where the letter of acceptance is received
  3. the place where the letter of acceptance is addressed
  4. All of these.

Answer: (a)

49. Agreement restraining legal proceeding is void only if restraint is ………………………………..

  1. partial
  2. absolute
  3. written
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

50. Section 72 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with unjust enrichment on account of …………………………..

  1. mistake
  2. coercion
  3. non-gratuitous act
  4. Both option 1 and 2.

Answer: (d)

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51. Which of the following amendments were made in the Copyright Act, 1957 in the year 2012?

A. Section 65A – Protection of Technological Measures

B. Section 65B – Protection of Rights Management Information

C. Section 31B – Compulsory License for benefit of disabled

D. Section 31C – Statutory License for cover versions

  1. C and D only
  2. A and B only
  3. A, B and C only
  4. A, B, C and D.

Answer: (d)

52. What is the maximum term of a patent in India?

  1. 20 years
  2. 25 years
  3. 15 years
  4. unlimited

Answer: (a)

53. In which year, did India accede to the Nice Agreement Concerning the International Classification of Goods and Services for the Purposes of the Registration of Marks, Vienna Agreement Establishing an International Classification of the Figurative Elements of Marks and the Locarno Agreement Establishing an International Classification for Industrial Designs?

  1. 2018
  2. 2019
  3. 2010
  4. 2013

Answer: (b)

54. Who was nominated as the Director General of the World Intellectual Property Organization by the Coordination Committee on March 4, 2020?

  1. Francis Gurry
  2. Kamil Idris
  3. Daren Tang
  4. Wang Binying.

Answer: (c)

55. What is the concept of originality under the Designs Act, 2000?

  1. Novelty
  2. Originality in application
  3. Discovery
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

56. Which among the following is the oldest decision on issues relating to environment and ecological balance is?

  1. Rural Litigation and Entitlement Kendra v. State of UP
  2. Pradeep Krishen v. Union of India
  3. People’s Union of Democratic Rights & Ors v. Union of India
  4. Murli S Deora v. Union of India.

Answer: (a)

57. Under the Environment Protection Act, 1986 which one of the following has power to constitute authorities?

  1. Central Pollution Control Board
  2. State Government
  3. State Pollution Control Board
  4. Central Government.

Answer: (d)

58. Which among the following legal instruments is not related to climate change?

  1. Kyoto Protocol
  2. Paris Agreement
  3. Copenhagen Accord
  4. Nagoya Protocol.

Answer: (d)

59. The Public Trust Doctrine lays down that State is a trustee of natural resources so ……………………..

  1. the property subject to trust must be made available to public
  2. the property may not be sold
  3. the property must be maintained for particular use
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

60. Who is considered as the founder of the ‘Uppsala school’ of the modern Scandinavian realist movement?

  1. Karl Olivercrona
  2. Vilhelm Lundstedt
  3. Axel Hagerstrom
  4. Alf Ross.

Answer: (c)

61. The Benthamite legislator who wishes to ensure happiness for the community must strive to attain four goals. What are those goals?

  1. To grant liberty, to promote equality, to offer security; to ensure freedom
  2. To maintain harmony, to provide pleasure, to establish democracy; to ensure participation
  3. To provide subsistence; to produce abundance; to favour equality; to maintain security
  4. None of these.

Answer: (c)

62. Cultural relativism logically implies tolerance for different cultures. In the context of human rights, cultural relativists are generally supportive of ………………………………….

  1. Traditional, regional or indigenous approaches to human rights
  2. Universal idea of human rights
  3. Asian approach to human rights in contrast to the values of the rest of the civilisation
  4. European and American approach to human rights and justice.

Answer: (a)

63. Which one of the propositions mentioned below does not explain the character of Critical Legal Studies (CLS)?

  1. Law is just and stable
  2. Law is politics
  3. Law is the reflection of power and maintains the imperfect societal status quo
  4. Law is in-determinate.

Answer: (a)

64. Which of the following statements explain the feature of natural law?

  1. Law is natural to legal systems as they follow different divine principles
  2. Law is a product of certain immutable principles intrinsic to human beings
  3. Law, as a phenomenon, is natural to every civilisation and important for their survival
  4. Law, as command of the sovereign, can be accepted only when it is in consonance with regionally accepted principles.

Answer: (b)

65. Which of the following elements is not present in Austin’s definition of ownership?

  1. Indefinite Use
  2. Absolute user
  3. Unrestricted disposition
  4. Unlimited duration.

Answer: (b)

66. The Kellogg-Briand Pact of 1928 …………………………

  1. Declared war as illegal and provided for compensation to state against which the war was waged
  2. Prohibited use of force and threat of use of force by any state
  3. Renounced war as an instrument of national policy
  4. Laid down the conditions under which the States could legally use force.

Answer: (c)

67. Which of the following cases decided by the International Court of Justice is related to the right to remedial secession?

  1. Kosovo case
  2. Chagos Islands case
  3. Nicaragua case
  4. Jadhav case.

Answer: (a)

68. International law is regarded as a product of colonisation because ………………………………..

  1. European states justified colonisation with the help of international law
  2. European states used international law to institutionalise colonisation
  3. European states used international institutions to perpetuate colonisation
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

69. Which of the following is false?

  1. Hugo Grotius wrote his famous works to justify Dutch colonial and trade expansion
  2. Berlin Conference, 1885 was convened to divide African colonies among European powers amicably
  3. Both option 1 and 2
  4. Neither option 1 nor 2.

Answer: (d)

70. Which of the following is true?

  1. Individual is not a subject of international law
  2. General Assembly resolutions are binding
  3. General principles of law are also sources of international law
  4. Decisions of the International Court of Justice have precedential value.

Answer: (c)

71. Which of the following theories is not connected with the relationship between international law and municipal law?

  1. Evidentiary theory
  2. Theory of monism
  3. Theory of dualism
  4. Specific adoption theory.

Answer: (a)

72. The International Court of Justice (ICJ) may have jurisdiction based on forum prorogatum and such a jurisdiction may result from ………………………

  1. Conduct of parties before court or with each other
  2. Agreement of the parties
  3. Declaration of acceptance under Article 36(2) of the Statute of ICJ
  4. Compromissory clause in a treaty.

Answer: (a)

73. The rule of extradition that the requesting state is under a duty not to try or punish the offender for any other offence than that for which he was extradited, is known as:

  1. Rule of Double Criminality
  2. Rule of Speciality
  3. Rule of Reciprocity
  4. Rule of Territoriality.

Answer: (b)

74. The International Law Commission was established by a ………………………………..

  1. General Assembly resolution in 1947
  2. Security Council resolution in 1947
  3. Judgment of the International Court of Justice in 1945
  4. Resolution of the UN Secretariat.

Answer: (a)

75. The Universality Principle is one of the main general principles on which States claim a more or less extensive penal jurisdiction at the present under International Law. Under this principle, the jurisdiction is determined by reference to ………………………………………….

  1. The place of commission of offence
  2. The nationality or national character of the person who committed the offence
  3. National interest injured by the offence
  4. Custody of the person the person who committed the offence.

Answer: (d)

76. If the defendant has not been able to properly control the animal which he knew or ought to have known to be having a tendency to do harm, he is liable. This forms part of ………………………………….

  1. the Bolam test
  2. the Scienter rule
  3. the Eggshell Skull Rule
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

77. A willful and unjustified dealing with the goods in such a manner that another person, who is entitled to immediate use and possession of the same, is deprived of that is known as ………………………………..

  1. Conversion
  2. Trover
  3. Both option 1 and 2
  4. None of these.

Answer: (c)

78. Which among the following cases is related to the rule that causing death of a person is not a tort?

  1. Jackson v. Watson
  2. Rookes v. Barnard
  3. Baker v. Bolton
  4. Tillet v. Ward.

Answer: (c)

79. Which of the following cases is not an example of a rescue case, that provides an exception to the doctrine of volenti non fit injuria?

  1. Haynes v. Harwood
  2. Wagner v. International Railway
  3. Baker v. T.E. Hopkins & Sons
  4. Storey v. Ashton.

Answer: (d)

80. Match List I with List II

List I

A. Wagon Mound Case

B. Polemis Case

C. Smith v. Leech Brain & Co.

D. Smith v. Charles Baker & Sons

List II

I. Test of Reasonable Foreseeability

II. Test of Directness

III. Egg-Shell Skull Rule

IV. Volenti non fit Injuria

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  1. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
  3. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  4. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III.

Answer: (a)

81. As per the judgment in the case of Indian Medical Association v. V. P. Shantha, which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. Service rendered free of charge by a medical practitioner attached to a hospital/nursing home or a medical officer employed in a hospital/nursing home where such services are rendered free of charge to everybody, would not be ‘service’ as defined in section 2(1)(o) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986
  2. Service rendered at a non-government hospital/nursing home where charges are required to be paid by the persons availing of such services falls within the purview of the expression ‘service’ as defined in section 2(1)(o) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986
  3. The service rendered by a medical officer to his employer under the contract of employment would be outside the purview of ‘service’ as defined in section 2(1)(o) of the Consumer Protection Act, 1986
  4. None of these.

Answer: (d)

82. A willful act done without just cause or excuse is called ………………………………….

  1. Malice in fact
  2. Malice in law
  3. Mistake of law
  4. Mistake of fact.

Answer: (b)

83. Which of the following statements is false in connection with the legal principle ‘volenti non fit injuria’?

  1. Knowledge regarding the danger is consent
  2. Consent must be free
  3. Rescue cases form an exception to the application of the maxim volenti non fit injuria
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

84. Vis major stands as an exception to ……………………………

  1. The rule of strict liability
  2. The rule of absolute liability
  3. Res ipsa loquitur
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

85. When the negligence of two or more persons results in the same damage, there is said to be …………………….

  1. Contributory negligence
  2. Composite negligence
  3. Joint liability
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

86. What is the meaning of the expression ‘felonious tort’?

  1. A tort which is actionable before civil courts only
  2. A tort which is actionable before the criminal court only
  3. A tort which is not at all actionable
  4. A wrong which is both a crime as well as a tort.

Answer: (d)

87. Section 1(2) of the Information Technology Act, 2000 states that:

  1. It shall extend to the whole of India only
  2. It shall extend to the whole of India except Jammu and Kashmir
  3. It applies only to any offence or contravention committed outside India by any person
  4. It shall extend to whole of India and it applies also to any offence or contravention thereunder committed outside India by any person.

Answer: (d)

88. Public key under the Information Technology Act, 2000 means …………………………

  1. the key of a key pair used to verify a digital signature and listed in the Digital Signature Certificate
  2. the key pair as mentioned by state government
  3. the key used by group
  4. all of these.

Answer: (a)

89. Power to make rules in respect of electronic signature under the Information Technology Act, 2000 lies with …………………………..

  1. Respective state government
  2. Central government
  3. Controller of Certifying Authorities
  4. The Deputy Controllers and Assistant Controllers.

Answer: (b)

90. Under the Information Technology Act, 2000, a Certifying Authority may revoke a Digital Signature Certificate …………………………………

  1. on request by the subscriber
  2. on death of the subscriber
  3. upon the dissolution of the firm or winding up of the company where the subscriber is a firm or a company
  4. all of these.

Answer: (d)

91. Which of the following is an inchoate crime?

  1. Public Nuisance
  2. Criminal Attempt
  3. Unlawful Assembly
  4. Riot

Answer: (b)

92. Causing of the death of a child in the mother’s womb is not homicide as provided under …………………………

  1. Explanation 5 to section 300
  2. Explanation 1 to section 299
  3. Explanation 2 to section 299
  4. Explanation 3 to section 299.

Answer: (d)

93. Mens Rea can be excluded by:

  1. Express provisions of law
  2. Necessary Implication
  3. Both option 1 and 2
  4. None of these.

Answer: (c)

94. Which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 are not punishable with death?

  1. Rape on a woman under twelve years of age
  2. Gang rape on woman under sixteen years of age
  3. Inflicting an injury in the course of commission of rape which causes the woman to be in a persistent vegetative state
  4. Kidnapping for ransom.

Answer: (b)

95. Which of the following statements is correct about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

  1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable
  2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable
  3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable
  4. All of these.

Answer: (d)

96. In which of the following judgments did the Supreme Court of India direct all States and Union Territories to take appropriate steps for inclusion of acid attack victims under the disability list?

  1. Laxmi v. Union of India
  2. Parivartan Kendra v. Union of India
  3. Anuja Kapur v. Union of India
  4. Common Cause v. Union of India.

Answer: (b)

97. Which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 was not amended/inserted by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2018?

  1. Section 166A
  2. Section 166B
  3. Section 228A
  4. Section 376E.

Answer: (b)

98. Which of the following is not a gender-neutral offence under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?

  1. Trafficking
  2. Acid attack
  3. Voyeurism
  4. All of these.

Answer: (c)

99. Which of the following general exceptions in the Indian Penal Code, 1860 relates to the maxim ‘furiosi nulla voluntas est’?

  1. Mistake of fact
  2. Act of child above seven and under twelve years of age
  3. Unsoundness of mind
  4. Private defence.

Answer: (c)

100. In which of the following offences under the Indian Penal Code, 1860 the right of private defence is not available to the extent of causing death?

  1. Acid attacks
  2. Robbery
  3. Dacoity
  4. Extortion

Answer: (d)

DU LLM QUESTION PAPER 2020 | Click Here to Download PDF


  1. Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary and Entrance Exams
  2. Legal Bites Academy – Ultimate Test Prep Destination

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