Haryana Judiciary Prelims 2014 Solved Paper | Haryana Judiciary Prelims Solved Papers PDF

By | October 11, 2021
Haryana Judiciary Prelims

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HARYANA JUDICIARY PRELIMS 2014 QUESTION PAPER| Click Here to Download PDF

HARYANA JUDICIARY PRELIMS PAPER

2014

Duration- 2 hours

Marks- 500

Negative marking- 1/5

1. The cardinal principle of Criminal Law nullum crimen nulla poena sine lege means:

  1. No crime or punishment can exist without a pre-existing penal law
  2. A man is presumed to be innocent until proven guilty
  3. Ignorance of law is no excuse
  4. An act must be accompanied by a criminal intent to constitute an offence.

Answer: (a)

2. The doctrine of Necessity has been elaborately considered in the landmark decision of:

  1. R v. M’Naghten(1843) 8 Eng Rep 718
  2. Basdev v. State of PEPSU AIR 1956 SC 488
  3. R v. Dudley and Stephens (1884) 14 QBD 273
  4. Bimbadhar Pradhan v. State of Orissa AIR 1956 SC 469.

Answer: (c)

3. In his will, Mr. Y wrote: “I intend my property to be equally divided between my three children A, S and H.” A dishonestly scratched out the name of H, intending that it may be believed that the whole of the property was left to be divided between S and himself alone. A is guilty of:

  1. Cheating
  2. Forgery
  3. Misappropriation
  4. Theft.

Answer: (b)

4. The general rules of succession in case of a female Hindu have been laid down in Section ………. of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956.

  1. 11
  2. 12
  3. 15
  4. 14.

Answer: (c)

5. The limitation period for initiating action where no period of limitation is prescribed anywhere is:

  1. Three years from the date on which the right to apply accrues
  2. One year from the date on which the right to apply accrues
  3. Anytime from the date on which the right to apply accrues
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

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6. According to Article 227 of the Constitution, every High Court shall have …………………………………. over all courts and tribunals throughout the territories in relation to which it exercises jurisdiction.

  1. Supervision
  2. Superintendence
  3. Overview
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

7. According to Article 233 of the Constitution, a District Judge is appointed by the:

  1. Chief Justice of the State High Court
  2. Governor of the State
  3. Chief Minister of the State
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

8. Courts have jurisdiction to try all suits of a civil nature except suits, the cognizance of which is either expressly or impliedly barred, by virtue of:

  1. Section 7 of the CPC
  2. Section 8 of the CPC
  3. Section 9 of the CPC
  4. Section 6 of the CPC.

Answer: (c)

9. Constructive res judicata is contained in:

  1. Explanation III to Section 11 of the CPC
  2. Explanation VI to Section 11 of the CPC
  3. Explanation VII to Section 11 of the CPC
  4. Explanation IV to Section 11 of the CPC.

Answer: (d)

10. The Court under Section 89(1) of the CPC can refer the dispute for:

  1. Meditation or Lok Adalat
  2. Arbitration or conciliation
  3. Conciliation or mediation
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

11. Raju dies leaving behind a son Ravi and a married daughter Kavita. A suit filed by Raju, under his death, can be continued by:

  1. Ravi alone as legal representative
  2. Kavita alone as legal representative
  3. Ravi, Kavita and her husband as legal representative
  4. Ravi and Kavita both as legal representative.

Answer: (d)

12. Which section of the Cr.P.C. provides for confirmation by the High Court of an order of death sentence passed by the Sessions Court prior to its execution?

  1. Section 371
  2. Section 366
  3. Section 368
  4. Section 369.

Answer: (c)

13. When the High Court or any Sessions Judge calls for to examine the record of any proceeding before any inferior criminal court, it is known as:

  1. Review
  2. Revision
  3. Reference
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

14. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a:

  1. Sentence of imprisonment exceeding 7 years
  2. Sentence of imprisonment not exceeding 7 years
  3. Sentence for life imprisonment
  4. Death sentence.

Answer: (b)

15. Application for anticipatory bail may be made before:

  1. Chief Judicial Magistrate
  2. Sessions Court
  3. High Court
  4. Both (b) and (c).

Answer: (d)

16. Surjit meets Gopi on high road, shows a pistol and demands Gopi’s purse. Gopi in consequence surrenders his purse. Here Surjit has committed:

  1. Extortion
  2. Dacoity
  3. Theft
  4. Robbery.

Answer: (d)

17. Acid attack is an offence as mentioned in:

  1. Section 326
  2. Section 320
  3. Section 326A
  4. Section 354.

Answer: (c)

18. Acts against which the right of private defence is not available have been laid down in Section ………. of the IPC.

  1. 101
  2. 100
  3. 99
  4. 98.

Answer: (c)

19. ‘A’ finds a valuable ring on the road not knowing to whom it belongs. He sells it immediately without making an attempt to find the owner. ‘A’ is guilty of:

  1. Theft
  2. Dishonest Misappropriation of Property
  3. Criminal Breach of Trust
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

20. Under the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956, the custody of a minor who has not completed the age of …………. years shall be with the mother ordinarily.

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 2
  4. 10.

Answer: (a)

21. The period of limitation for a review of the judgments is:

  1. 30 days
  2. 60 days
  3. 90 days
  4. 180 days.

Answer: (a)

22. Where the price of the goods under a contract of sale is to be fixed by the valuation of a third party who fails to fix the valuation, but goods are supplied to the buyer, under Section 10 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930, the buyer is:

  1. liable to pay the reasonable price of the goods
  2. liable to pay the minimum price of the goods
  3. not liable to pay any price until fixed by the valuer
  4. liable to pay the maximum retail price.

Answer: (a)

23. The limitation period for filing a suit by a person dispossessed of immovable property is:

  1. within six months from the date of dispossession
  2. within six months from the date on which the petitioner comes to know of the dispossession
  3. within twelve months from the date of possession
  4. within twelve months from the date on which the petitioner comes to know of the dispossession.

Answer: (a)

24. Which provision of the Code of Civil Procedure deals with right to lodge a caveat?

  1. Section 148 of the Civil Procedure Code
  2. Section 148A of the Civil Procedure Code
  3. Section 147 of the Civil Procedure Code
  4. Section 146 of the Civil Procedure Code.

Answer: (b)

25. The consequences of non-compliance with the order to answer interrogatories or for discovery or inspection of documents have been dealt with under:

  1. Order XI Rule 12 of the Civil Procedure Code
  2. Order XII Rule 12 of the Civil Procedure Code
  3. Order XI Rule 21 of the Civil Procedure Code
  4. Order XII Rule 21 of the Civil Procedure Code.

Answer: (c)

26. Under Section 27 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, in which of the following relation an agreement in restraint of trade is valid?

  1. Mutual adjustment
  2. Business contingency
  3. Sale of Goodwill
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

27. In which of the following circumstance a surety stands discharged?

  1. By release or discharge of the principal debtor
  2. By variance in the terms of contract
  3. (a) and (b) both
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

28. ‘A’ is tried for the murder of ‘B’ by poison. The fact that before the death of ‘B’, ‘A’ procured poison similar to that which was administered to ‘B’ is:

  1. relevant
  2. non relevant
  3. partly relevant
  4. neither relevant nor irrelevant.

Answer: (a)

29. Dumb witness may give his evidence by writing or signs in open court, such evidence shall be deemed to be:

  1. written evidence
  2. oral evidence
  3. not admissible in evidence
  4. It depends on the discretion of the Court to accept it or not.

Answer: (b)

30. In which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, special provision is mentioned regarding evidence relating to electronic record?

  1. Section 59
  2. Section 65A
  3. Section 63
  4. Section 67A.

Answer: (b)

31. The case of Pakala Narayana Swami v. Emperor relates to:

  1. Doctrine of Estoppel
  2. Dying Declaration
  3. Cross Examination
  4. Accomplice.

Answer: (b)

32. Under Section 25 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 the liability of the partners for the acts of the firm is:

  1. joint and several
  2. several
  3. joint or several
  4. joint.

Answer: (a)

33. Which statement is correct?

  1. A partnership firm is a juristic person
  2. A partnership firm is a distinct legal entity from its partners
  3. A partnership firm is not a distinct legal entity from its partners
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

34. In which of the following cases the Privy Council made a distinction between ‘common intention’ and ‘similar intention’?

  1. Bannu Mal v. Emperor
  2. Mehboob Shah v. King Emperor
  3. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor
  4. Srinivas Barolia v. Emperor.

Answer: (b)

35. Criminal Breach of Trust deals with:

  1. stolen property
  2. entrusted property
  3. illegally acquired property
  4. movable property.

Answer: (b)

36. Section 173(8) of the Code of Criminal Procedure deals with:

  1. fresh investigation
  2. further investigation
  3. re investigation
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

37. Form No. 32 of the Second Schedule of Cr.P.C. provides the format for framing of:

  1. charges
  2. summons to witness
  3. warrant of execution of a sentence of death
  4. warrant after commutation of a sentence.

Answer: (a)

38. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

  1. Fundamental Rights
  2. Fundamental Duties
  3. Directive Principles of State Policy
  4. Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties.

Answer: (c)

39. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

  1. Second Schedule
  2. Fifth Schedule
  3. Eighth Schedule
  4. Tenth Schedule.

Answer: (d)

40. The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its:

  1. advisory jurisdiction
  2. appellate jurisdiction
  3. original jurisdiction
  4. writ jurisdiction.

Answer: (c)

41. An offer was sent by post, the acceptor wrote accepted on the letter, put it in his drawer and forgot about it. The transaction is a:

  1. Valid contract
  2. A voidable contract
  3. A void contract
  4. No agreement as the acceptance was never communicated to the proposer.

Answer: (d)

42. Execution of document may be presumed if the document is ……………………… old.

  1. Ten Years
  2. Twenty Years
  3. Thirty Years
  4. Forty Years.

Answer: (c)

43. The word probate as used in Section 41 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, is defined under:

  1. Section 3 of the Indian Evidence Act
  2. Section 2(m) of the Transfer of Property Act
  3. Section 2(f) of the Indian Succession Act
  4. Section 3 of the General Clauses Act.

Answer: Question Deleted

44. Minimum sentence for ‘ten years imprisonment’ is necessary for which of these offences?

  1. Section 326 voluntarily causing grievous hurt by dangerous weapon
  2. Section 326(2)(g) Gang rape
  3. Section 395 Dacoity
  4. Section 409 Criminal Breach of Trust by a Public Servant.

Answer: Question Deleted

45. ‘H’ takes property belonging to ‘S’ out of the possession of ‘S’ in good faith, believing at the time when he takes it, that the property belongs to himself. Later on realizing his mistake, ‘H’ continues to appropriate the property to his own use. ‘H’ has committed the offence of:

  1. Robbery
  2. Criminal Breach of Trust
  3. Criminal Misappropriation
  4. Cheating.

Answer: (c)

46. Which of the following is provided under Section 9 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930?

  1. Ascertainment of price
  2. Conditions and warranties
  3. Agreement to sell
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

47. Which of the following Sections deals with specific performance of a part of a contract?

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 13.

Answer: (c)

48. Which of the following Sections lays down the rule that the discretionary power of the Court to grant specific performance is not arbitrary but sound and reasonable?

  1. 10
  2. 14
  3. 20
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

49. Article …………… of the Constitution of India vests the residuary power of legislation with the Parliament.

  1. 246
  2. 247
  3. 248
  4. 250.

Answer: (c)

50. The general power of transferring suits under Section 24 of CPC lies with:

  1. High Court and District Court
  2. High Court and Supreme Court
  3. High Court
  4. District Court.

Answer: (a)

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51. Where a decree is to be sent to a Court in another state for execution, it has to be sent by:

  1. the High Court
  2. the District Court
  3. the Court which passed the decree
  4. the Court which passed the decree with the consent of the High Court.

Answer: (c)

52. When a decree is passed against the Union of India, execution of such decree shall not be issued unless it remains unsatisfied for the period of …………………………. computed from the date of such decree.

  1. 1 Month
  2. 2 Months
  3. 3 Months
  4. 6 Months.

Answer: (c)

53. The provision regarding inter-pleader suit has been incorporated in Section:

  1. 87
  2. 88
  3. 89
  4. 90.

Answer: (b)

54. Which of the following is correct?

  1. Section 113-Review, Section 114-Revision, Section 115-Reference of the CPC
  2. Section 113-Reference, Section 114-Review, Section 115-Revision of the CPC
  3. Section 113-Reference, Section 114-Revision, Section 115-Review of the CPC
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

55. Which provision of the Cr.P.C. 1973 resembles the writ of Habeas Corpus?

  1. Section 93
  2. Section 97
  3. Section 91
  4. Section 96.

Answer: (b)

56. According to Order 2 Rule 3 of CPC, a plaintiff may unite in the same suit several ……………….. against the same defendant.

  1. issues
  2. claims
  3. causes of actions
  4. debts.

Answer: (c)

57. Provisions of Section 10 of CPC are:

  1. Directory
  2. Mandatory
  3. Non-mandatory
  4. Discretionary.

Answer: (b)

58. General power to amend any error or defect in any proceedings in a suit vests in the Court by virtue of:

  1. Section 152 CPC
  2. Section 153 CPC
  3. Section 153A CPC
  4. Section 153B CPC.

Answer: (b)

59. Which provision deals with determination of questions relating to discharge, satisfaction, etc. of the decree?

  1. Section 48 of the Civil Procedure Code
  2. Section 46 of the Civil Procedure Code
  3. Section 47 of the Civil Procedure Code
  4. Section 21 of the Civil Procedure Code.

Answer: (c)

60. Who may record a confessional statement under Section 164 Cr.P.C.?

  1. Police Officer
  2. Executive Officer
  3. Judicial Magistrate who has jurisdiction only
  4. Any Judicial Magistrate.

Answer: (d)

61. What is the time limit in Section 468 Cr.P.C. for taking cognizance in a case of defamation?

  1. Six Months
  2. One Year
  3. Three Years
  4. No limit.

Answer: (c)

62. Permission to investigate into a non-cognizable offence can be granted by a:

  1. Magistrate in any part of India
  2. Magistrate in any part of State
  3. Magistrate having jurisdiction to try the case
  4. Sessions Judge.

Answer: (c)

63. Offences of Indian Penal Code other than mentioned in Section 320 of Criminal Procedure Code are:

  1. Not compoundable
  2. Compoundable with the permission of court
  3. Compoundable by the Court of Sessions
  4. Compoundable by the High Court.

Answer: (a)

64. The compensation to the victim under Section 357 of the Code of Criminal Procedure can be passed by:

  1. The Trial Court only
  2. The Appellate Court
  3. The Revisional Court
  4. Any of the above Court.

Answer: (d)

65. Which one of the following is not a source of law?

  1. Custom
  2. Legislation
  3. Usage
  4. Judicial Decision.

Answer: (c)

66. ‘A’ put his hand in the pocket of ‘B’ for stealing money, but the pocket was empty. ‘A’ is guilty of:

  1. Theft
  2. Mischief
  3. Attempting to commit theft
  4. No offence.

Answer: (c)

67. ‘A’ beats his wife. She fell down and became unconscious. Believing her to be dead and to save himself from being arrested for murder, ‘A’ hanged her on the fan with rope. Post mortem report disclosed her death from hanging. ‘A’ is liable for:

  1. Murder
  2. Culpable homicide
  3. Hurt
  4. Grievous hurt.

Answer: (b)

68. A voluntary gift without consideration of property or the substance of thing by one person to another so as to constitute the donee the proprietor of the subject matter of the gift is known as:

  1. Hiba
  2. Aariat
  3. Sadaqa
  4. Hiba-ba-sharat-ul-iwaz.

Answer: (a)

69. Divorce by Mutual Consent has been provided in Section ………………. of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

  1. 13A
  2. 13(1)
  3. 13B
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

70. As a general rule, a petition for dissolution of Hindu marriage cannot be presented within …………………… of marriage.

  1. 2 Years
  2. 1 Year
  3. Six Months
  4. Two Months.

Answer: (b)

71. Under Section 24 of the Punjab Courts Act, 1918 ………………………….. will be the principal civil court of original jurisdiction.

  1. High Court
  2. District Court
  3. Family Court
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

72. Section 6 of the Limitation Act, 1963 is available to:

  1. plaintiffs
  2. defendants
  3. respondents
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

73. ‘A’ stayed in the hotel of ‘B’ for one week. He organised a party for his friends on 01.11.2014 the bill of which amounted to Rs. 40,000/-. He vacated his room on 05.11.2014 and settled all his bills except the bill of the party. ‘B’ can sue ‘A’ for the payment of Rs. 40,000/- within:

  1. 1 year from 01.11.2014
  2. 1 year from 05.11.2014
  3. 3 years from 01.11.2014
  4. 3 years from 05.11.2014.

Answer: (c)

74. According to Section 7 of the Registration Act, 1908, the State Government shall establish in every ……………………. an office to be styled as the office of the Registrar.

  1. Taluka
  2. District
  3. City
  4. Sub-district.

Answer: (b)

75. Under the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 the delivery can be:

  1. symbolic only
  2. actual only
  3. constructive only
  4. all of the above.

Answer: (d)

76. The Court can take cognizance of an offence under Section 22 of Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, upon:

  1. a complaint in writing filed with the sanction of the Controller
  2. a report in writing of facts made by the Controller
  3. either (a) or (b)
  4. neither (a) nor (b).

Answer: (c)

77. Under Section 20 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 in case both the parties are under mistake as to matter of fact, the contract:

  1. is valid
  2. is invalid
  3. is void
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (c)

78. Which of the following sections incorporates the surety’s right of subrogation?

  1. 139
  2. 140
  3. 141
  4. 142.

Answer: (c)

79. Public document under the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 can be proved by:

  1. oral evidence
  2. the writer of the certified copy
  3. certified copy
  4. any of the above.

Answer: (c)

80. In case of suicide by a married woman, the court under Section 113A of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 may presume that suicide had been abetted by her husband, if:

(1) Suicide was committed by the wife within a period of seven years from the date of her marriage.

(2) The wife was subjected to cruelty.

(3) The wife was illiterate and from a poor family.

(4) The wife was deserted by the husband.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. (1) and (2)
  2. (1), (2) and (3)
  3. (1), (3) and (4)
  4. (2) and (4).

Answer: (a)

81. The case of Kashmira Singh v. State of Madhya Pradesh relates to:

  1. privileged communications
  2. dying declaration
  3. confession to police officer
  4. confession of a co-accused.

Answer: (d)

82. The question is whether a horse sold by ‘A’ to ‘B’ is sound. ‘A’ says to ‘B’ “Go and ask ‘C’. ‘C’ knows all about it.” C’s statement is a/an:

  1. confession
  2. admission
  3. presumption
  4. reference.

Answer: (b)

83. Under Section 10, every partner has a duty to indemnify the firm for any loss caused to the firm by his ……………………. in the conduct of the business of the firm.

  1. negligence
  2. wrongful act
  3. fraud
  4. all of the above.

Answer: (c)

84. A partnership for which no period or duration is fixed, under the Indian Partnership Act, 1932 known as:

  1. general partnership
  2. partnership at will
  3. particular partnership
  4. co-ownership.

Answer: (b)

85. Section ………………….. confers legitimacy on children born out of a valid or voidable marriage.

  1. 16
  2. 15
  3. 26
  4. None of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

86. The Supreme Court was established in:

  1. 1950
  2. 1949
  3. 1962
  4. 1980.

Answer: (a)

87. Adherence to precedent is called the doctrine of:

  1. stare decisis
  2. commercial impracticability
  3. substantial performance
  4. nolo contendere.

Answer: (a)

88. Under Section 28 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, every appeal from decrees or orders shall be preferred with effect from 23rd December, 2013, within a period of ……………………….. from the date of decree or order.

  1. 120 days
  2. 90 days
  3. 30 days
  4. 60 days.

Answer: (b)

89. Restitution of conjugal rights is available to:

  1. wife
  2. husband
  3. wife and husband both
  4. only husband and not wife.

Answer: (c)

90. The first non-tribal Chief Minister of Jharkhand is:

  1. Arjun Munda
  2. Babulal Marandi
  3. Raghubar Das
  4. Madhu Koda.

Answer: (c)

91. Pandit Madan Mohan Malviya was the Founder of:

  1. Gurukul Kangri, Haridwar
  2. Banaras Hindu University, Banaras
  3. Gurukul Kurukshetra, Kurukshetra
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

92. Kaushalya dam is located on the river Kaushalya:

  1. near Pinjore (Haryana)
  2. near Ropar (Punjab)
  3. near Solan (Himachal Pradesh)
  4. near Jammu (J&K).

Answer: (a)

93. The method of proportional representation is adopted in the election of:

  1. Prime Minister
  2. President
  3. Governor
  4. Chief Justice of India.

Answer: (b)

94. Under the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, provisions for determination of fair rent have been made in Section …………

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 7.

Answer: (b)

95. Under Section 19 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, the consent caused by coercion is:

  1. voidable
  2. valid
  3. illegal
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

96. Which one of the following sections of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 makes provisions for ‘Notional Partition’?

  1. Section 14
  2. Section 10
  3. Section 6
  4. Section 18.

Answer: (c)

97. Who is the Chief Law Officer of India?

  1. Advocate General
  2. Attorney General
  3. Solicitor General
  4. Law Secretary of the Department of Legal Affairs.

Answer: (b)

98. Who is known as the architect of the Constitution of Independent India?

  1. Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. Rajendra Prasad
  3. Radhakrishnan
  4. R. Ambedkar.

Answer: (d)

99. Who among the following won the Dadasaheb Phalke Award (2012)?

  1. Dev Anand
  2. Soumitra Chatterjee
  3. Yash Chopra
  4. Kamal Hassan.

Answer: (b)

100. In the case of Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose, who was the defendant in the trial court?

  1. Dharmodas Ghose
  2. Brahmo Dutt
  3. Mohori Bibee
  4. Kedar Nath.

Answer: (b)

101. ‘A’ is tried for the murder of ‘B’ by intentionally shooting him dead. The fact that ‘A’, on other occasions shot at ‘B’ is relevant as it shows …………………………………..

  1. intention to shoot ‘B’
  2. motive to shoot ‘B’
  3. preparation to shoot ‘B’
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

102. What is the meaning of “Not proved” under Evidence Act, 1872?

  1. Fact does not exist
  2. Non-existence probable
  3. Court has doubt
  4. Neither proved nor disproved.

Answer: (d)

103. Registration of a firm is:

  1. mandatory
  2. desirable
  3. not compulsory
  4. directory.

Answer: (c)

104. Conspiracy is a:

  1. continuing offence
  2. no offence unless illegal results are there
  3. civil wrong only
  4. piece of evidence only.

Answer: (a)

105. Raju is cutting wood with an axe at a place where children are playing. The axe flies off and kills a nearby child. Raju is liable for:

  1. murder
  2. culpable homicide
  3. death by negligence
  4. no offence.

Answer: (c)

106. The power to determine the language of a subordinate court is with:

  1. High Court
  2. State Government
  3. Central Government
  4. State Government with the concurrence of the High Court.

Answer: (b)

107. The Victim Compensation Scheme under Section 357A was incorporated in …………..

  1. 2004
  2. 2005
  3. 2009
  4. 2012.

Answer: (c)

108. What offence is bailable?

  1. Mentioned as bailable offence in Schedule I of Cr.P.C.
  2. All cases of summons trial
  3. All non-cognizable offences
  4. All cases which are not triable by session.

Answer: (a)

109. A man is prohibited to marry his daughter on the ground of:

  1. affinity
  2. consanguinity
  3. fosterage
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

110. The Court can forfeit the right of maintenance on the ground of:

  1. re-marriage
  2. sexual immorality
  3. only (a) and not (b)
  4. either (a) or (b).

Answer: (d)

111. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 contains the minimum period of desertion for filing a suit for judicial separation:

  1. three years
  2. five years
  3. two years
  4. seven years.

Answer: (c)

112. The system of dual citizenship within the country exists in:

  1. USA
  2. France
  3. India
  4. UK.

Answer: (a)

113. Which of the following rivers flows through the State of Haryana?

  1. Satluj
  2. Yamuna
  3. Ganges
  4. Brahmaputra.

Answer: (b)

114. Who among the following is the longest serving Chief Justice of India?

  1. S.R. Das
  2. B.P. Sinha
  3. A.N. Ray
  4. Y.V. Chandrachud.

Answer: (d)

115. Who among the following was the first Chief Justice of Punjab High Court at Shimla after independence?

  1. S.R. Das
  2. Ram Lal
  3. Eric Weston
  4. G.D. Khosla.

Answer: (b)

116. For declaration of marriage as void, petition may be presented under Section 11 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 by:

  1. aggrieved party
  2. opposite party
  3. either party
  4. family members.

Answer: (c)

117. Local limits of the jurisdiction of a Subordinate Judge is to be defined under Punjab Courts Act, 1918, by:

  1. High Court
  2. District Judge
  3. concerned State Government
  4. Supreme Court.

Answer: (a)

118. The registration of a gift of immovable property is:

  1. compulsory
  2. optional
  3. compulsory in relation to ancestral property
  4. depends on the court.

Answer: (a)

119. Section 23 of the Registration Act, 1908 speaks about any document being presented for registration to the proper office within ………………… month(s) from its date of execution.

  1. six
  2. three
  3. four
  4. one.

Answer: (c)

120. Under the Registration Act, 1908, a registered document operates:

  1. from the date of its registration
  2. from the date of its execution
  3. from the date as given for the operation of the document, in the document
  4. either of the aforesaid date.

Answer: (b)

121. Under Section 23 of the Sale of Goods Act, 1930 for passing of property in goods:

  1. the buyer is to do something for ascertaining the price
  2. the goods must be in a deliverable state
  3. the seller is to do something to put the goods in a deliverable state
  4. all of the above.

Answer: (b)

122. The rights of an unpaid seller have been listed in Section:

  1. 45
  2. 46
  3. 47
  4. 49.

Answer: (b)

123. An injunction granted during the pendency of a suit, under Section 37 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 is known as a:

  1. perpetual injunction
  2. mandatory injunction
  3. temporary injunction
  4. either (a) or (c).

Answer: (c)

124. The period of limitation for filing a suit for specific performance is:

  1. 6 years from the date fixed for performance
  2. 4 years from the date fixed for performance
  3. 3 years from the date fixed for performance
  4. 12 years from the date fixed for performance.

Answer: (c)

125. The rule that no tax shall be levied except by authority of law is embodied in Article:

  1. 262
  2. 263
  3. 264
  4. 265.

Answer: (d)

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  1. Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary and Entrance Exams
  2. Legal Bites Academy – Ultimate Test Prep Destination

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