Haryana Judiciary Prelims 2018 Solved Paper | Haryana Judiciary Entrance Solved Papers PDF

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Haryana Judiciary Prelims

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HARYANA JUDICIARY PRELIMS 2018 QUESTION PAPER 2018| Click Here to Download PDF

Haryana Judiciary Prelims Paper
2018

Number of questions- 125

Marks- 500

1. The calling of at least one attesting witness to prove a document under Section 68 of the Indian Evidence Act is not necessary:

  1. when the document other than a Will is registered under the Indian Registration Act, 1908
  2. when the document including Will is registered under the Indian Registration Act, 1908
  3. when the document irrespective of whether it is a Will, is registered under the Indian Registration Act, 1908
  4. both (a)&(c) are correct.

Answer: (a)

2. Which statement is true in relation to a child witness?

  1. A child of tender age can be allowed to testify if he has intellectual capacity to understand questions and give rational answers thereto
  2. A child witness may be eàsy prey of tutoring and when it is established that he is under the influence of tutoring it is not safe to solely rely on his evidence
  3. The law recognizes the child as a competent witness but a child of a tender age of six years is not considered by the Court to be a witness whose sole testimony can be relied without other corroborative evidence
  4. All above statements are true.

Answer: (d)

3. Under Section 145 of Evidence Act, a witness may be contradicted as to previous statement in writing:

  1. without proving the same but only after showing the same to the witness
  2. after proving the same may be before showing the showing the same to the witness
  3. after proving the same & showing the same to the witness
  4. without proving the same and without showing the same to the witness.

Answer: (a)

4. The Narco-Analysis technique involves the intravenous administration of:

  1. Sodium Pentothal
  2. Potassium Pentothal
  3. Magnesium Pentothal
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

5. The evidence unearthed by the sniffer dog falls under:

  1. oral evidence
  2. documentary evidence
  3. hearsay evidence
  4. scientific evidence.

Answer: (c)

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6. A non-testamentary document is one:

  1. Which is intended to take effect or be operative immediately on its execution
  2. Which is final
  3. Which is irrevocable
  4. All of the above
  5. Which is revocable.

Answer: (d)

7. What is the effect of opinion of the experts upon the court?

  1. Binding on the judge
  2. Only advisory in nature
  3. The judge can form an opinion contrary to that of expert
  4. Both (b)&(c)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

8. Use of violence by a member of unlawful assembly, in furtherance of their common object will constitute offence of:

  1. Assault
  2. Rioting
  3. Affray
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

9. A is arrested by police and accused of murder of B. During investigation A voluntarily agrees to undergo narco analysis and therein he confesses to have murdered B.

  1. The confession is relevant and can be sole basis of conviction
  2. The confession is irrelevant
  3. The confession is relevant but requires corroboration
  4. Only that much of A’s statement can be used as leads to discovery of a fact
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

10. The general rule is that leading questions cannot be asked during examination in chief. However, there are some exceptions to this rule. Choose the exceptions:

  1. any question at the discretion of judge
  2. as to matters which are introductory or undisputed
  3. as to matters which have already been sufficiently proved
  4. Both (b) &(c)
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

11. Secondary evidence of a document is admissible in evidence as a substitute for:

  1. Inadmissible primary evidence under certain circumstances
  2. Admissible primary evidence
  3. Both (a) & (b)
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

12. As per the Evidence Act, admissions:

  1. Are conclusive proof of the matters admitted
  2. Are not conclusive proof of the matters admitted but operate as estoppel
  3. Are conclusive proof of the matter and also operate as estoppel
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

13. In criminal trials, the accused has to establish his plea for the mitigation or justification of an offence:

  1. Substantially
  2. Beyond reasonable doubt
  3. Prima facie
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

14. All statements which the court permits or requires to be made before it by witness in relation to matters of fact under inquiry is/are:

  1. Primary evidence
  2. Oral evidence
  3. Hearsay evidence
  4. Both (A) & (B).

Answer: (b)

15. Under Section 116 of the Evidence Act, the tenant is stopped from denying:

  1. This title to the property of the actual owner
  2. The title to the property of the landlord
  3. Both (A) & (B)
  4. None of these.

Answer: (b)

16. The test of ascertaining the burden of proof lies on the person who would fall if that part is not proved is contained in Section_________of Evidence Act.

  1. 202
  2. 203
  3. 102
  4. 101.

Answer: (c)

17. Section 124 of the Evidence Act provides for privileges in respect of:

  1. Official Communication
  2. Professional Communication
  3. Communication as to the information of commission of offence
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

18. In execution of a decree for the maintenance, salary of a person can be attached to the extent of:

  1. one fourth
  2. one third
  3. two third
  4. one half.

Answer: (c)

19. The Commissioner appointed for the purposes of recording evidence (cross- examination) is obliged to submit his report to the court appointing the commission within:

  1. 15 days from the date of issue of the commission
  2. 30 days from the date of issue of the commission
  3. 60 days from the date of issue of the commission
  4. 90 days from the date of issue of the commission.

Answer: (c)

20. Where a mortgagee obtains a decree for payment of a money in satisfaction of claim arising under the mortgage:

  1. he is entitled to bring the mortgage property to sale without instituting a suit for sale in enforcement of the mortgage under Order 34 Rule 14 CPC
  2. he is entitled to bring the mortgage property to sale only by instituting a suit for sale in enforcement of the mortgage under Order 34 Rule 14 CPC
  3. he is entitled to bring the mortgage property to sale in execution proceedings.
  4. Either (a) or (c).

Answer: (b)

21. Order 6, Rule 1, CPC empowers the court, at any stage of the pleadings to strike out any matter contained in it:

  1. If it is unnecessary, scandalous, frivolous or vexatious
  2. If it tends to prejudice, embarrass or delay the fair trial of suit
  3. If it is an abuse of the process of the court
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

22. Mark the correct statement:

  1. In set-off, court-fee is payable by the defendant
  2. Order 8, Rule 6, CPC deals with legal set-off
  3. Legal set-off can be claimed as of right, the equitable set-off is dependent on the court’s discretion
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

23. An agreement entered into or compromise, on behalf of a minor without the leave of the court, under Order 32, Rule 7 of CPC is:

  1. Voidable against all the parties other than the minor
  2. Valid
  3. Void
  4. Voidable.

Answer: (a)

24. On dismissal of the suit for non-compliance with an order for discovery under Order XI, Rule 21 of CPC:

  1. the plaintiff can bring a fresh suit on the same cause of action as a matter of right
  2. the plaintiff can bring a fresh suit on the same cause of action only with the leave of the court
  3. the plaintiff is precluded from bringing any fresh suit on the same cause or action
  4. the plaintiff can bring a fresh suit on the same cause of action only if the court dismissing the suit has granted liberty to file a fresh suit.

Answer: (c)

25. Order XVII, Rule 2 and Order XVII, Rule 3 of CPC are:

  1. in conflict with each other
  2. independent & mutually exclusive
  3. Order XVII, Rule 3 of CPC is dependent on Order XVIL, Rule 2 of CPC
  4. Order XVII, Rule 3 of CPC controls Order XVII, Rule 2 of CPC.

Answer: (b)

26. Arrest & detention of a person in civil imprisonment in execution of the decree:

  1. absolves him from liability under the decree but can be re-arrested
  2. does not absolve him and the person can be re-arrested
  3. does not absolve him but the person cannot be re-arrested
  4. Absolves him from the liability altogether and cannot be re-arrested.

Answer: (c)

27. In cases of withdrawal of suit by the plaintiff, under Order XXIII, Rule 1A of CPC:

  1. defendants cannot be transposed as plaintiffs
  2. defendants can be transposed as plaintiffs under all circumstances
  3. defendants can be transposed as plaintiff if substantial question is to be decided against any of the other defendants
  4. either (A) or (B).

Answer: (c)

28. The land for the beneficial enjoyment of which the easementary right exists is called:

  1. Profit-a-prendre
  2. Servient heritage
  3. Dominant heritage
  4. Customary heritage.

Answer: (c)

29. Under section 34(2) of the CPC, 1908, where a decree is silent with respect to the payment of further interest on the principal sum from the date of the decree to the date of the payment or other earlier date.

  1. further interest shall be paid at the contractual rate up to the date of decree
  2. the court shall be deemed to have refused such interest
  3. further interest shall be paid at the contractual rate of 6% per annum
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (b)

30. During the execution proceedings, if a question arises as to whether any person is a representative of a party, such question shall be determined by:

  1. The court which passed the decree
  2. The court executing the decree
  3. The appellate court
  4. A separate suit.

Answer: (b)

31. Private alienation of property, by the judgment debtor after attachment under section 64(1) of CPC is:

  1. Valid
  2. Voidable
  3. Void
  4. None.

Answer: (c)

32. Under Order 32, Rule 2A, CPC a person guilty of disobedience of breach can be penalized by:

  1. Attachment of property
  2. Detention in civil imprisonment
  3. Either (A) or (B) or both
  4. Either (A) or (B).

Answer: (c)

33. Under the provision of Civil Procedure Code plea of adverse possession is a defence available:

  1. Only to plaintiff against defendant
  2. Only to defendant against plaintiff
  3. Both plaintiff and defendant
  4. Only to movable property
  5. Only immovable property.

Answer: (b)

34. Preliminary decree can be passed in a suit:

  1. For partition
  2. Of partnership
  3. For possession and mesne profits
  4. All of above
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

35. Which of the following is not a decree?

  1. Dismissal in default
  2. Rejection of a plaint
  3. Both (A) & (B)
  4. Neither (A) nor (B)
  5. Only (A).

Answer: Question Deleted

36. Under_________ redemption of mortgage can be sought by any one of the legal representatives after death of mortgagor.

  1. Order 34 Rule 1 CPC
  2. Order 33 Rule 1 CPC
  3. Order 32 Rule 1 CPC
  4. Order 31 Rule 1 CPC
  5. Order 35 Rule 1 CPC.

Answer: (a)

37. In which of the following writs, the doctrine of res judicata is not applicable?

  1. Habeas Corpus
  2. Certiorari
  3. Mandamus
  4. Quo Warranto.

Answer: (a)

38. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court, the acts performed by the President incumbent before the date of such decision of court are:

  1. valid but subject to judicial review
  2. invalid
  3. valid
  4. valid but subject to the approval of the Parliament.

Answer: (c)

39. Which of the following sentence(s) is/are correct?

(I) The President can commute death sentence to the life imprisonment

(II) The Governor cannot commute death sentence to the life imprisonment

(III) The President’s power to pardon extends to the punishment or sentence by court martial.

  1. (I), (II) and (III)
  2. (II)
  3. (I) and (III)
  4. (I).

Answer: (c)

40. In 2017, the Supreme Court held that right to privacy is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India in the context of:

  1. State Surveillance
  2. Power of search & seizure
  3. Homosexuality
  4. Indian Biometric Identification Scheme.

Answer: (d)

41. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court of India to adjudicate disputes between the Centre and the States through:

  1. Appellate Jurisdiction
  2. Original Jurisdiction
  3. Advisory Jurisdiction
  4. Writ Jurisdiction
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

42. Which of the following is not true about the Attorney General of India?

(I) He is the highest legal officer of the Union Government of India

(II) He has the right of audience in all the courts in India

(III) He has the voting right in the proceeding of the parliament

(IV) His term of the office and remuneration is decided by the president

(V) One of the eligibility criteria for appointment as the attorney general of India is that the candidate must be qualified to be appointed as a judge of Supreme Court of India

  1. Only (II)
  2. Only (III)
  3. (II) & (III)
  4. None of the above
  5. Only (V).

Answer: (b)

43. Which the following are true about the fundamental duties for Indian citizens?

(I) They require us to safeguard public  property

(II) They require us to protect and improve the natural environment

(III) They are contained in Article 51A of the Constitution of India

(IV) They are added by 42nd Amendment of the Constitution of India

(V) They require us to develop the scientific temper and spirit of enquiry

(VI) There were originally 11 fundamental duties

(VII)  They can be enforced through writs as well as promoted through constitutional methods

  1. (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V), (VII) are true
  2. (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V) are true
  3. All are true
  4. (I), (II), (III), (IV), (V), (VI) are true
  5. None of them are true.

Answer: (b)

44. Match the following:

List I

(a) Indra Sawhney v. Union of India

(b) Keshavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

(c) Aruna Ramachandra Shanbaug v. Union of India

(d) Selvi v. State of Karnataka

List II

(i) Doctrine of legitimate Expectation

(ii) Validity of Narco Analysis

(iii) Doctrine of Basic Structure

(iv) Mandal commission case

(v) Passive Euthanasia

  1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii), (e)-(i)
  2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(v), (d)-(i), (e)-(ii)
  3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii), (e)-(iii)
  4. (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(v), (d)-(ii), (e)-(i).

Answer: (a)

45. Doctrine of legitimate expectation and Wednesbury principles were read by Supreme Court into:

  1. Article 12
  2. Article 14
  3. Article 13
  4. Article 25.

Answer: (b)

46. Reference by the President of India under Article 143(1) of the Constitution (Keshav Singh’s case, AIR 1965 SC 745) relates to:

  1. Ayodhya issue
  2. Delhi Laws
  3. Privileges
  4. Judges appointment.

Answer: (c)

47. Which of the following statements are true regarding a decree of declaration?

(I) It creates no new rights

(II) It cannot be prayed as a matter of right

(III) If all the parties are not joined, declaration cannot be granted

(IV) Such a decree is conclusive between the parties to it and persons litigating through them

  1. (I), (II), (III), (IV)
  2. (I), (III), (IV)
  3. (I), (II), (III)
  4. (I) & (II).

Answer: (a)

48. Extended period of limitation for institution of a suit for specific performance of a contract cannot stretch beyond________ from the cessation of the disability.

  1. 1 year
  2. 2 years
  3. 3 years
  4. 6 years.

Answer: (c)

49. Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, the suit can be brought by:

  1. A servant
  2. A manager
  3. A tenancy by holding over
  4. A trespasser.

Answer: (c)

50. By virtue of Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act, a suit for possession of an immovable property can be filed within a period of____________ dispossession.

  1. 3 years
  2. 3 months
  3. 6 months
  4. 1 year.

Answer: (c)

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51. It is mandatory that transfer of an actionable claim can be effected only by an instrument in writing but it does not have effect on:

  1. negotiable instrument
  2. arrears of rent
  3. an amount due under a letter of credit
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

52. Which of the following statements are true?

(I) Minor’s Contract can be ratified on attaining majority

(II) Minor’s Contract cannot be ratified on attaining majority

(III) Minor’s Contract can be ratified jointly by both the parties to the contract

(IV) Minor is not liable under minor’s contract

(V) Minor’s contract is an enforceable contract

  1. (I) & (III)
  2. (V) & (II)
  3. (II) & (IV)
  4. (II) & (III)
  5. (III) & (V).

Answer: (c)

53. In case of specific performance of part of contract the purchaser:

  1. May not relinquish claim to further performance of the remaining part of the contract and has no right to compensation
  2. May relinquish claim to further performance of the remaining part of contract and has no right to compensation
  3. Specific Performance of part of contract not possible
  4. All of the Above
  5. None of the Above.

Answer: Question Deleted

54. Contract in restraint of trade is:

  1. void
  2. voidable
  3. opposed to public policy
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (a)

55. Novation amounts to:

  1. discharge of contract
  2. formation of consideration
  3. remission
  4. waiver.

Answer: (a)

56. Law of contract creates:

  1. Jus in rem
  2. Jus in personam
  3. Ubi jus ibi remedium
  4. None of the above.

Answer: Question Deleted

57. Void agreements include:

  1. Agreements in restraint of marriage
  2. Agreements in restraint of legal proceedings
  3. Agreements with minors
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

58. A minor is:

  1. not liable either personally or through his estate
  2. capable of ratifying agreements
  3. liable for necessaries supplied out of property
  4. not permitted to plead minority as defence.

Answer: (c)

59. Which is the first country to allow voting through mobile phone?

  1. Estonia
  2. Finland
  3. France
  4. Germany.

Answer: (a)

60. Who said that “The people have a right, an inalienable, indisputable, indefeasible, divine right to that most dreaded and envied kind of knowledge-I mean, of the character and conduct of their rulers.”?

  1. Abraham Lincoln
  2. Mahatma Gandhi
  3. Martin Luther
  4. John Adams.

Answer: (d)

61. Match the following persons in List-l with their achievements in List II

List I

(a) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur

(b) Leila Seth

(c) Sucheta Kriplani

(d) C.B. Muthamma

List II

(i) First woman Chief Minister

(ii) First woman High Court Judge

(iii) First woman Ambassador

(iv) First woman Central Minister

  1. (a)- (iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
  2. (a)- (iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
  3. (a)- (iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  4. (a)- (ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i).

Answer: Question Deleted

62. ________ won the “first justice prize” from India who is also named as “Living Legend of Law” by the International Bar Association?

  1. Krishna Iyer, retired Judge of Supreme Court of India
  2. Fali S. Nariman, Senior Advocate
  3. Kapil Sibal, Senior Advocate
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

63. Which one of the following decided to set up a website, which will compare the World’s Constitutions by themes online “to arm drafters with a better tool for Constitution and design and writing”?

  1. UN
  2. Microsoft
  3. Google
  4. Amnesty.

Answer: (c)

64. In deciding the question of negligence by professionals, the classical statement of law which has been widely accepted both by professionals generally and by medical practitioner in particularly is popularly called:

  1. Stephen test
  2. Friedmann test
  3. Bolam test
  4. Hyde test.

Answer: (c)

65. Which one of the following disputes cannot be raised before the Consumer Forum?

  1. A dispute relating to services by a government servant
  2. A dispute relating to services provided by the medical professional
  3. A dispute relating to banking services
  4. A dispute relating to insurance services.

Answer: (a)

66. Which of the following won the 2018 UNESCO Asia-Pacific award for Cultural Heritage conservation?

  1. Ladakh Restoration Project
  2. Restoration of Phumdis
  3. Revival of Sundarbans Mangrove Forests
  4. Renovation of Namgyal Monastery
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

67.Which among the following is not a Constitutional body in India?

  1. Goods and Services Tax Council
  2. Finance Commission
  3. Planning Commission
  4. National Commission for Scheduled Castes.

Answer: (c)

68. Who authored the award-winning book Fault lines: How Hidden Fractures Still Threaten the World?

  1. Raghuram Rajan
  2. Urjit Patel
  3. Aravind Subramanyam
  4. Gita Gopinath.

Answer: (a)

69. The voting age for elections to House of Peoples and to the Legislative Assemblies Was lowered from 21 years to 18 years by:

  1. The Constitution (Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988
  2. The Constitution (Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956
  3. The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

70. The liability by holding out, in case of retiring partner, continues up to:

  1. date of retirement
  2. date of public notice about such retirement
  3. date of notice to other partners about such retirement
  4. whichever is either out of (a), (b) & (c).

Answer: (b)

71. If a partner withdraws from a firm by dissolving it, then:

  1. It is a dissolution and not retirement of a partner
  2. It is a novation and not retirement of a partner
  3. It is a retirement of a partner
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

72. According to Section 44 of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, the Court may dissolve a firm on the suit of a partner on any of the following grounds:

  1. Insanity
  2. Permanent incapacity
  3. Breach of agreement
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

73. The age of consent for sexual intercourse between husband and wife has been made __________from__________ years by the Supreme Court of India.

  1. 18, 16
  2. 16, 15
  3. 21, 18
  4. 18, 15.

Answer: (d)

74. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct?

  1. Where a court is not competent to frame charge in an offence it shall not be competent to permit, withdrawing from prosecution
  2. The Public Prosecutor is bound to receive instructions from the government and such instructions would not amount to an extraneous influence
  3. An order granting permission to withdraw the prosecution solely on the ground that where about of the accused was not available, is permissible
  4. The Magistrate has discretion to grant or refuse permission to withdraw the prosecution.

Answer: (c)

75. The maximum period of solitary confinement provided under Section 73 of I.P.C. is:

  1. one month
  2. two months
  3. three months
  4. six months.

Answer: (c)

76. If the act is a lawful one and not a criminal act and if in the course of such act any one of the person’s jointly doing that act commits an offence, then:

  1. All the persons shall be liable under Section 34 of I.P.C.
  2. only the doer of the act shall be liable for it and not others and Section 34 of I.P.C. shall not apply
  3. Nobody shall be liable for it and not others and Section 34 of I.P.C. shall not apply
  4. No other person except the real doer of the act shall be liable for it and Section 34 of I.P.C. shall apply.

Answer: (b)

77. Right to private defence is:

  1. Available where there is no time to have recourse to the protection of public authorities
  2. Available under all circumstances
  3. Available where there is time to have the recourse to the protection of public authorities
  4. Available under no circumstances
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

78. Punjab State Reorganisation Act was enacted in the year:

  1. 1947
  2. 1950
  3. 1951
  4. 1956
  5. 1966.

Answer: (e)

79. A child who doesn’t understand or distinguish between the right and the wrong is called as doli incapax. This is defined under which section of the IPC 1860.

  1. Section 86
  2. Section 87
  3. Section 84
  4. Section 83
  5. Section 82.

Answer: (e)

80. Section 396 of IPC deals with:

  1. Only dacoity
  2. Dacoity and murder
  3. Only culpable homicide not amounting to murder
  4. Attempt to cause dacoity or robbery by using deadly weapon
  5. Both (a) & (d).

Answer: (b)

81. Which of the following statements is true about malice-in-law and malice-in-fact?

  1. The former is a wrongful act done intentionally without just cause whereas the latter is a wrongful act done intentionally with evil motive
  2. The former is a wrongful act done intentionally with evil motive whereas the latter is a wrongful act done intentionally without a just cause
  3. The former is a wrongful act done intentionally whereas the latter i5 a wrongful act done intentionally
  4. Both have same consequences.

Answer: (a)

82. The term ‘pari-passu’ means:

  1. Equal right of another creditor with that of the secured creditor
  2. Unequal right of another creditor with that of the secured creditor
  3. Share in the remaining, after due appropriation
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

83. In 2016, the Supreme Court has clarified that the “Third Gender” will include(s):

  1. Bisexuals
  2. Gays & Lesbians
  3. Transgender
  4. All of these.

Answer: (c)

84. Qui facit per alium, facit per se means:

  1. The Welfare of the State is the Supreme law
  2. He who acts through another acts himself
  3. Nobody can be judge in his own case
  4. The law must not be violated even by the King.

Answer: (b)

85. Who has no right to partition under Hindu Law?

  1. mother
  2. son, grandson, great grandson
  3. son conceived at the time of partition Fi
  4. none of the above.

Answer: (d)

86. A Hindu female propositus died leaving behind a sister, two Sons, one daughter, mother and father. Find the share of the daughter.

  1. 1/2
  2. 1/3
  3. 1/4
  4. 1/5
  5. 1/6.

Answer: (b)

87. In the debate on the custody, guardianship or adoption of the child, the courts in India is governed by which of the following principle:

  1. Best interest of the child
  2. Right of parenthood
  3. Claims of the biological parents
  4. Consanguinity
  5. Religious affiliation.

Answer: (a)

88. Order of permanent alimony under Section 25 of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 can be varied, modified or rescinded:

(I) if the party in whose favour the order has been passed, re-marries.

(II) if has party in whose favour the order has been passed is the wife, and she has not remained chaste

(III) if the party in whose favour the order has been passed is the husband, and he had sexual intercourse with any other woman

  1. Only (I) is correct
  2. Only (II) is correct
  3. Both (II) and (III) are correct
  4. All of the above are correct
  5. None of the above are correct.

Answer: (d)

89. Find out the correct statement(s) from the following:

(I) A void marriage remains valid until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent Court.

(II) A void marriage is never a valid marriage and there is no necessary of a decree annulling it.

(III) A voidable marriage is regarded as a valid subsisting marriage until a decree annulling it has been passed by a competent Court.

  1. (I) & (II) are correct
  2. (II) & (III) are correct
  3. Only (II) is correct
  4. Only (III) is correct
  5. All (I), (II) & (III) are correct.

Answer: (b)

90. Under Hindu law, after passing of a decree for judicial separation, if one of the spouse dies intestate, the other spouse:

  1. can inherit the property of the deceased spouse
  2. cannot inherit the property of deceased spouse
  3. can inherit the property of the spouse only with the consent of the children
  4. is decided by the Court on case to case basis
  5. can inherit the property of the deceased spouse if the judicial separation was on grounds other than mutual consent.

Answer: (a)

91. A married B and subsequently married C during the life time of B. One Mr. D petitions to the court for declaring A’s marriage with C as void. Examine the maintainability:

  1. Only either party to the marriage can get the relief of nullity of the marriage
  2. Only state can make it
  3. Any public spirited person can initiate and get the decree of nullity
  4. D can succeed.

Answer: (a)

92. Adoption does not deprive the adoptive father or mother of the power to dispose of his or her property by transfer inter vivos or by will. Which Section of the Hindu Adoptions and Maintenance Act provides for the same?

  1. Section 12
  2. Section 11
  3. Section 13
  4. Section 9.

Answer: (c)

93. Agnates are the heirs:

  1. Wholly related through females
  2. Wholly related through males
  3. Strangers
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

94. Any property possessed by a female Hindu whether acquired before or after the commencement of the Hindu Succession Act shall be held by her:

  1. As a limited owner
  2. As a life estate
  3. As a full owner
  4. As a co owner.

Answer: (c)

95. Sapinda relationship for the purpose of Hindu Marriage act includes:

  1. Five degrees of ascent through mother and five degrees of ascent through father
  2. Three degrees of ascent through mother and three degrees of ascent through father
  3. Three degrees of ascent through mother and five degrees of ascent through father
  4. Five degrees of ascent through mother and seven degrees of ascent through father.

Answer: (c)

96. A partition of joint family property has to be done:

  1. Only by registration
  2. Only in writing
  3. Can be oral or in writing
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

97. Under section 173 of the Cr.P.C. as amended in 2018, the investigation into the offence of rape shall be completed within a span of:

  1. Six Months
  2. Four Months
  3. One Month
  4. Two Months.

Answer: (d)

98. A person can be arrested without warrant:

  1. As preventive or precautionary measure
  2. For obtaining correct name and address
  3. For securing attendance of accused
  4. All the above.

Answer: (d)

99. A warrant of arrest is a command and should be:

  1. Must be in writing
  2. Must be signed, sealed and issued by a Magistrate
  3. Addressed to a police officer
  4. All the above.

Answer: (d)

100. Who among the following is not entitled to claim maintenance under Section 125 Cr.P.C.:

  1. Divorced wife so long as she does not marry
  2. Unmarried sister
  3. Adoptive mother
  4. Illegitimate minor child
  5. Concubine.

Answer: Question Deleted

101. Chapter XXI-A of Cr.P.C. dealing with Plea Bargaining has been inserted by:

  1. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2005
  2. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 1993
  3. The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2001
  4. The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 1993.

Answer: (a)

102. Section 167 of the Cr.P.C. provides that, the nature of custody can be altered from judicial custody to police custody and vice versa. This alteration can be done during the period of first:

  1. 15 days
  2. 16 days
  3. 14 days
  4. 12 days.

Answer: (a)

103. The maximum number offences of the same kind that can be tried together is:

  1. 5
  2. 6
  3. 2
  4. 3.

Answer: (d)

104. As per the provisions of the Cr.P.C. as amended in 2005, a surety has to declare the number of accused for whom he is surety under Section:

  1. 441
  2. 441-A
  3. 144
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

105. Evidence shall be taken down by the Magistrate either himself or by dictation in open court. Which amended provision of the Cr.P.C. permits audio-video electronic means in the presence of Advocate of the accused:

  1. Section 274
  2. Proviso to Section 275(1)
  3. Section 276
  4. Section 473.

Answer: (b)

106. Rehabilitation scheme for victim compensation is prepared on the recommendation of the court____________shall decide the quantum of compensation.

  1. District Legal Services Authority
  2. State Legal Services Authority
  3. Either (a) or (b)
  4. None of these.

Answer: (c)

107. As per the provisions of Cr.P.C. offences can be compounded under section 320 by the legal guardian of a person:

  1. Under the age of 18 years
  2. Who is an Idiot
  3. Who is Lunatic
  4. All the above.

Answer: (d)

108. As per the provisions of Section 315 of the Cr.P.C. an accused:

  1. Can be compelled to give his own evidence generally
  2. Cannot be a witness
  3. Can be called as a witness only on his own request in writing
  4. None of these.

Answer: (c)

109. As per the provisions of Section 437 of the Cr.P.C. the jurisdiction to cancel the bail vests with:

  1. The Magistrate competent to try and entertain the offence
  2. The Magistrate where the Magistrate has not ordered the release on bail
  3. The Magistrate only where the Magistrate has ordered release on bail
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

110. As per the provisions of the Cr.P.C. surety can be sentenced to civil imprisonment in default of payment of penalty under the surety bond for a maximum period of:

  1. 2 months
  2. 6 months
  3. 5 months
  4. 9 months.

Answer: (b)

111. Delay in filing the suit:

  1. Can be condoned under Order VII, Rule 6. C.P.C.
  2. Cannot be condoned
  3. Can be condoned under Section 3, Limitation Act
  4. Can be condoned under Section 6, Limitation Act
  5. Can be condoned under Section 5, Limitation Act.

Answer: (b)

112. Section 3 and Section 14 of Limitation Act are:

  1. Both independent and not mutually exclusive
  2. Mutually exclusive of each other
  3. Neither independent nor mutually exclusive
  4. None of the above
  5. Only mutually exclusive.

Answer: (a)

113. Identify the correct statement:

  1. The Section 10 of the Indian Limitation Act, 1963 is applicable only to the situation where the appeal is already filed
  2. The Section 5 of the Indian Limitation Act, 1963 is applicable only to the situation where the suit or appeal is already filed and pending for disposal
  3. The Section 5 of the Indian Limitation Act, 1963 is applicable only to the situation where suit is to be filed
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

114. Limitation period prescribed in filling a suit by a mortgagor to recover possession of immovable property mortgaged:

  1. 20 years
  2. 12 years
  3. 10 years
  4. 30 years.

Answer: (d)

15. When can landlord converts a residential building into a non-residential building under section 11 of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973:

  1. At his/her own will
  2. With the permission of the Controller
  3. After making an application to the High Court
  4. After evicting the previous tenant in a lawful manner
  5. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

116. Under section 1(3) of the Haryana Urban (Control of Rent and Eviction) Act, 1973, an exemption for a period of_________from the operation of the Act is allowed to buildings, the construction of which commenced or was completed on or after the date of commencement of the Act:

  1. 11 years
  2. 10 years
  3. 20 years
  4. 15 years.

Answer: (b)

117. The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriages) Ordinance 2018 provides for:

(I) It declares instant triple talaq illegal and criminalizes it

(II) It makes declaration of talaq a non-bailable offence

(III) A husband declaring talaq can be imprisoned for up to two years along with a fine.

(IV) It entitles Muslim Woman against whom triple talaq has been declared to seek subsistence allowance from her husband for herself and for her dependent children.

  1. (I) & (IV)
  2. (I), (III) & (IV)
  3. (I), (II) & (IV)
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

118. A Muslim gift is:

  1. Compulsory registrable
  2. Not compulsorily registrable
  3. Optionally registrable
  4. Only (b) & (c)
  5. Not necessary to register.

Answer: Question Deleted

119. If husband swears that he will not have sexual intercourse with his wife for four months or more it amounts to a form of divorce known:

  1. I’la
  2. Zihar
  3. Tafweez
  4. Mubarat.

Answer: (a)

120. Payment and delivery under Sale of Goods Act, 1930 is:

  1. Implied Condition
  2. Express Condition
  3. Concurrent Condition
  4. May be implied Condition or Express Condition
  5. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

121. Goods are deemed to be in course of transit from the time when they are delivered to a carrier or other bailee for the purpose of transmission to the buyer:

  1. until the buyer or his agent in that behalf takes delivery of them from such carrier or other bailee
  2. until the buyer himself takes delivery of them from such carrier or other bailee
  3. until the buyer or his agent personally communicates to the carrier or bailee that the delivery is taken
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

122. In the case of ________ it was held that lottery tickets are good and not actionable claims. Thus, sale of lottery tickets is sale of goods:

  1. Anraj v. Government of Tamil Nadu (AIR 1986 SC 63)
  2. P. Cooperative Cane Unions Federation v. West U.P. Sugar Mills Association (AIR 2004 SC 3697)
  3. Commissioner of Sales Tax v. Madhya Pradesh Electricity Board (AIR 1970 SC 732)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

123. A brought a horse from B, A wanted to enter the horse in a race. Turns out the horse was not capable of running a race on account of being lame. But A did not inform B of his intention. So B will not be responsible for the defects of the horse.

  1. The Doctrine of Caveat Emptor will apply
  2. The Doctrine of Caveat Emptor will not apply
  3. The Doctrine of Caveat Emptor may apply
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

124. Documents of which registration is optional:

  1. Will
  2. Instruments not acknowledging the receipt or payment of any consideration on account of the creation, declaration assignment, limitation or extinction of any such right, title or interest
  3. Leases of immovable property for any team exceeding one year
  4. All the above.

Answer: (a)

125. Identity the correct proposition:

  1. A decree is not exempted from registration under section 17(2) of the Registration Act, 1908.
  2. A consent decree purporting to create a gift does not require registration under section 17(1)(a) and is not exempt from registration under section 17(2) of the Registration Act, 1908
  3. A consent decree purporting to create a gift does not require registration under section 17(1)(a) and is not exempt from registration under section 15(2) of the Registration Act, 1908
  4. A consent decree purporting to create a git is exempted from registration under section 17(2) of the Registration Act, 1908.

Answer: (b)

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