Maharashtra Judicial Services (Civil Judge) Prelims Examination 2016 Solved Paper | Maharashtra Judicial Services (Civil Judge) Prelims Examination Solved Paper PDF

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Maharashtra Judicial Services (Civil Judge) Prelims Examination 2016 Question Paper

Time: 2 hours

Maximum marks: 100

1. Which of the following is not a ground for eviction of a tenant?

1. Unlawful subletting
2. Non use of the premises without reasonable cause for more than six months
3. Acquisition of suitable accommodation by the tenant
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

2. When a person does a thing with an intention of causing a wrongful gain to one person or a wrongful loss to another, he is said to have done that thing:

1. fraudulently
2. intentionally
3. voluntarily
4. dishonestly.

Answer: (d)

3. Which of the following is not a defamation?

1. A says ironically, ‘Z is an honest man; he never stole B’s watch intending to believe otherwise’
2. A at the hearing of the case in good faith argued, “Z’s evidence is so contradictory that he must be stupid or dishonest”
3. A says at the hearing, “I do not believe what Z stated because I know him to be a man without veracity”
4. A drew a picture of Z showing him running with B’s watch, intending to be believed that Z stole B’s watch.

Answer: (b)

4. If the offence is punishable with fine only, the imprisonment in default of payment of fine shall be:

1. Simple
2. Rigorous
3. Simple or rigorous as the court may order
4. Partly Simple and partly rigorous as the court may direct.

Answer: (a)

5. Which of the following is not a punishment recognised by law?

1. Death
2. Imprison with hard-labour
3. Forfeiture of property
4. Transportation for life.

Answer: (d)

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6. How contract of sale of goods is to be made?

1. in writing
2. by words of mouth
3. partly in writing and partly by words of mouth
4. by conduct of parties

1. (A)only
2. (A), (B), (C) and (D) all
3. (A) and (B) only
4. (A), (B) and (D).

Answer: (b)

7. The Magistrate to whom accused is forwarded after arrest may from time to time authorise his detention in police custody for a term:

1. not exceeding 30 days
2. not exceeding 14 days
3. not exceeding 15 days
4. as he thinks fit.

Answer: (c)

8. In a suit against Central Government, the authority to be named as defendant shall be:

1. Government of India
2. President of India
3. Union of India
4. Prime Minister of India.

Answer: (c)

9. Sale of immovable property in execution would become absolute:

1. On full payment of price by the auction purchaser
2. When sale is confirmed by the court any time after sale
3. If no application for setting aside sale is made or where such an application filed is disallowed and court confirms the sale
4. When final bid is accepted by the court.

Answer: (c)

10. Person who lodged FIR is to be referred:

1. as a complainant
2. as an informant
3. both the terms above mentioned
4. applicant.

Answer: (b)

11. Suit on promissory note payable on demand is to be filed:

1. Within three years from the date of note
2. Within three years from the date of demand
3. Within three years from the date of transaction
4. Within one year from the date of demand.

Answer: (a)

12. Is the foreign judgement of a competent court conclusive?

1. not conclusive at all
2. conclusive when given on the merit of the case
3. conclusive even if passed exparte
4. No it is only relevant.

Answer: (b)

13. Onerous gift means:

1. gift of property in bulk by a single transfer
2. gift of several things by a single transfer, of which one is burdened by an obligation
3. gift of burdened property
4. oppressive, burdensome gift.

Answer: (c)

14. When are all the original documents to be produced by the parties to the suit?

1. With the plaint or the written statement
2. During trial with the affidavit of examination in chief
3. Even during cross-examination of the witnesses or before judgment
4. On or before settlement of issues.

Answer: (d)

15. ‘A’ Citizen of India committed offence in Uganda and came back and is arrested in India. Under what law and where is he to be tried?

1. In Uganda as the law of that country
2. In India according to the provisions of the Indian Penal Code
3. In Uganda according to the provisions of the Indian Penal Code
4. In India as per the law of Uganda.

Answer: (b)

16. Indian Penal Code was mainly drafted by:

1. Lord Macculay
2. Lord Mountbatten
3. Lord Dening
4. Salmond.

Answer: (a)

17. Which of the following is not a fundamental right?

1. Right to education
2. Right to property
3. Right to freedom of religion
4. Equality before law.

Answer: (b)

18. Against whom suit for restoration of possession under Specific Relief Act is not tenable?

1. Landlord
2. True owner
3. Government
4. Licensor.

Answer: Question Deleted

19. ‘A’ asks his son to bring a stick, saying to B, “I will give you a good beating and set you right”. What offence, if any has ‘A’ committed?

1. Criminal force
2. Assault
3. Criminal intimidation
4. No offence.

Answer: (d)

20. Res gestae means:

1. Adverse gesture of an accused
2. Ogle at some one
3. Things done or words spoken naturally as a part of the same transaction
4. Gesture made or expressed something spontaneously.

Answer: (c)

21. A person is presumed to be a legitimate son of a man though born after dissolution of marriage with his mother, if he is:

1. born within 280 days of the dissolution and his mother remained unmarried
2. born within 9 months after dissolution of marriage
3. born within 280 days after dissolution even if his mother married with some one
4. born within 280 days after dissolution and even though it is proved that above said had no access to his mother during the period he was begotten.

Answer: (a)

22. Second appeal U/s 100 of Civil Procedure Code shall lie:

1. When decree of trial court is set aside, allowing 1st appeal
2. When there are divergent views of trial court and first appeal court on material issues
3. When High Court is satisfied that in this case substantial question of law is involved
4. In any case after decision of the first appeal.

Answer: (c)

23. Against whom specific performance of contract can be enforced?

1. Parties to the contract.
2. Any person claiming under the party to the contract.
3. Transferee for value who has paid money in good faith having notice of the contract.
4. When a company entered into contract, subsequently amalgamated with another company, new company which arises out of amalgamation.

1. (A), (B) and (C)
2. (A), (B) and (D)
3. (B), (C) and (D)
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

24. What is the period within which application for setting aside abatement of suit is to be filed?

1. 30 days from the date of abatement of suit
2. 60 days from the date of abatement of suit
3. 90 days from the date of abatement of suit
4. 30 days from the date of order of abatement of suit.

Answer: (b)

25. Which of the following is a ‘Court of record’?

1. High court
2. District court
3. Family court
4. Labour court.

Answer: (a)

26. Accused is charged under section 325 IPC. All the facts except grievous hurt are proved. Whether he can be convicted of any offence?

1. Yes, for the offence punishable U/s 323 IPC
2. Yes, for the offence punishable U/s 335 IPC
3. No, he cannot be convicted of any offence

1. Only
2. (B) only
3. (C) only
4. (A) or (B).

Answer: (a)

27. What sort of acts of husband or his relatives amount to cruelty?

1. Harassment of the woman caused with the intention that she would leave matrimonial house
2. Deserting the woman without any fault on her part
3. Wilful conduct likely to drive a woman to commit suicide or cause a grave injury to her life
4. Keeping illicit relations with another woman.

Answer: Question Deleted

28. What facts should be stated in the affidavit of examination in chief of plaintiff or defendant or their witnesses?

1. All facts they asserted in their pleadings
2. Only such facts, the deponent believes to be true
3. Only such facts as the deponent is able to prove on his own
4. All such facts deponent knows personally and also those he came to know from others.

Answer: (c)

29. In case a complaint is made by a public servant in writing, in discharge of his official duties:

1. it is necessary for the Magistrate to examine him and the witnesses
2. it is not necessary for the Magistrate to examine him or the witnesses
3. it is not necessary to examine public servant but witnesses need to be examined
4. Examination of the public servant or witnesses is at the discretion of the Magistrate.

Answer: (b)

30. India is a:

1. Police state
2. Welfare state
3. Aristrocratic state
4. Socialistic state.

Answer: Question Deleted

31. Which of the following is/are the correct prepositions?

1. All agreements are contract.
2. An agreement which is enforceable by law is a contract.
3. An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one party is a voidable contract.

1. All the above
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (B) and (C) only
4. (B) only.

Answer: (c)

32. Magistrate may order U/s 125 of Cr.P.C, the non-applicant to pay to an applicant for maintenance at such monthly rate:

1. not exceeding 5000/-
2. not exceeding 1000/-
3. as such a Magistrate may think it fit
4. not exceeding 500/-.

Answer: (c)

33. Which of the following is not a document?

1. Caricature on a stone
2. Photograph
3. Currency note
4. Blood stained clothes.

Answer: (d)

34. Right of the accused to keep silence is:

1. a civil right
2. a statutory right
3. fundamental right
4. human right.

Answer: (c)

35. Transfer of immovable property is said to be fraudulant:

1. When transfer of sale is entered to defraud the purchaser
2. When transferor is insolvent
3. When transferor has no authority to transfer
4. When transfer is made with an intention to defeat or delay the creditors.

Answer: (d)

36. Complaint means:

1. allegations made to magistrate for taking action, that some person committed an offence
2. allegation made to police station officer that some person committed offence
3. such allegations made to superintendent of police
4. includes all of the above.

Answer: (a)

37. First Information Report can be used during trial:

1. only to contradict the informant
2. only to corroborate the version of the informant before court
3. to contradict and corroborate the informant when examined as a witness
4. to corroborate the oral evidence of other witnesses.

Answer: (c)

38. Suit relating to immovable property is to be filed in a court within whose jurisdiction:

1. defendant resides
2. plaintiff resides
3. property is situated
4. cause of action arose.

Answer: (c)

39. Which of the following can be transferred?

1. An actionable claim
2. An easement apart from the dominant heritage
3. A Mere right to sue
4. Spes successionis.

Answer: (a)

40. A person is entitled to protection of his possession of immovable property he got in part performance of a contract, provided:

1. Contract is in writing, signed by the transferor
2. Contract is for consideration
3. Transferee has performed or willing to perform his part of contract
4. Contract is registered

1. (A) and (B)
2. (A), (B), and (C)
3. (A), (B) and (D)
4. (A) to (D) all above requirements are fulfilled.

Answer: (d)

41. Period of limitation for regular suit for possession when plaintiff asserts dispossession by the dependant is:

1. One year
2. Three years
3. Twelve years
4. Twenty years.

Answer: (c)

42. Lurking house trespass means:

1. Trespass openly made to commit offence
2. Trespass made to insult the person in possession
3. Trespass making forceable entry in the house
4. Trespass taking precaution to conceal such a house trespass from the person who could object or eject a trespasser.

Answer: (d)

43. Which of the following is/are the correct propositions?

1. Partnership firm is a legal entity
2. Partnership firm is a collective name for partners
3. U.F. carrying business is not a partnership
4. Contract between the partners is a foundation of partnership

1. (A) only
2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (B), (C) and (D) only
4. (B) and (D) only.

Answer: (c)

44. Which of the following propositions is correct?

1. Statement of witness recorded by police cannot be used during enquiry or trial of such offence
2. Such statement of witness can be used at the enquiry or trial to contradict him when he is called as a witness by prosecution or defence
3. Such statement of witness can be used at the trial to contradict or corroborate such witness
4. Statement recorded by the police can be used in the enquiry or trial by the accused or prosecution to contradict such a witness when he is called by the prosecution.

Answer: (d)

45. Application for delivery of possession by the purchaser of immovable property at the sale in execution of decree is to be made within:

1. One year when sale becomes absolute
2. One year from the date of sale
3. Three years from the date of sale
4. 12 years from the date of sale.

Answer: (a)

46. Suit for specific performance of contract is to be filed:

1. Within three years from the date of agreement
2. Within three years from the date fixed for performance. If no such date is fixed, when performance is refused.
3. Within three years from the date when notice demanding performance is served
4. Within five years from the date, performance is refused.

Answer: (b)

47. When is symbolic possession of immovable property required to be given in execution:

1. Person in possession is a tenant or other person is entitled to occupy property despite the decree
2. Person in possession refuses to vacate or hand over possession
3. Property is locked
4. Property is in such a state that actual possession can not be delivered.

Answer: (a)

48. Which of the following propositions is a correct one?

1. Statement of a person who is dead is relevant when it relates to cause of death of anybody
2. Statement of deceased made in will, deed etc. relating to relationship by blood, marriage with the deceased and is about affairs of his family, is relevant
3. Statement of a witness recorded by a magistrate U/s 164 of Cr.P.C before his death, is relevant
4. Statement of witness recorded under section 299 of Cr.P.C, but is alive, can be used as evidence without his examination.

Answer: (b)

49. Which of the following propositions are correct?

Declaration granted U/s 34 of the Specific Relief Act:

1. is a decision binding on the parties to the suit.
2. is a decision binding on the persons claiming through such parties.
3. is also binding on other persons who are denying or are interested to deny such status, right of the party declared.
4. is a judgment in rem.

1. (A) and (B) only
2. (A), (B) and (C)
3. (A), (B) and (D)
4. All the above.

Answer: (a)

50. Application for execution of decree granting mandatory injuction is to be made:

1. Within one year
2. Within three years
3. Within twelve years
4. 90 days.

Answer: (b)

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51. Premises (under Maharashtra Rent Control Act) means:

1. Any building
2. Part of building
3. A room or apartment
4. Land or open plot

1. All of the above
2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (B) and (C) only
4. (A) and (D) only.

Answer: (b)

52. Compensatory cost can be awarded when:

1. Claim made or defence taken in any suit is found false or vexatious
2. Claim or defence in a suit is objected to by the adverse party and is found to be false or vexatious
3. Suit is dismissed on the ground that claim is not proved at all
4. The court in its discretion considers it just and proper to award such a cost.

Answer: (b)

53. Court may presume a document to be duly executed and attested:

1. When document is 20 years old and produced from proper custody
2. When document is original, produced from proper custody and 30 years old
3. When document is a copy but 30 years old and produced from proper custody
4. When notice to produce document is given but it is not produced.

Answer: (b)

54. Written statement is to be filed:

1. Within 90 days from the date of service of summons
2. Within 30 days from the date of first appearance of the defendant
3. Within 90 days from the first appearance of defendant
4. Within 30 days from the date of service of summons.

Answer: (d)

55. Which of the following is a correct proposition?

1. Contract for sale is a contract to sale property as per the terms settled
2. Contract for sale is executed, not a executory contract
3. Contract for sale creates right in the property to be sold
4. Contract for sale creates charge on the property to be sold.

Answer: Question Deleted

56. Frustration of contract means:

1. Performance of contract becomes afterward impossible because of inaction of promiser
2. Performance of contract becomes afterward impossible or unlawful for no fault of promiser
3. Performance of contract becomes difficult

1. (A) only
2. (B) only
3. (A) and (C) only
4. (A) and (B) only.

Answer: (b)

57. ‘A’ keeping bait in the pocket, dishonestly induced a dog of ‘B’ to go with him, thus he took away the dog out of possession of ‘B’. What offence, if any has A committed?

1. Criminal force
2. Abduction
3. Theft
4. No offence.

Answer: (c)

58. For what an injunction can be granted?

1. to prevent breach of obligation in favour of plaintiff.
2. to restrain a person from instituting or prosecuting criminal proceeding.
3. to prevent breach of contract, the performance of which would not be specifically enforced.

1. (A) only
2. (A) and (C) only
3. (A) and (B) only
4. In all the cases.

Answer: (a)

59. How the contents of a document are to be proved?

1. By oral evidence of the author
2. By oral evidence of the scribe
3. By primary or secondary evidence
4. By oral admissions as to the contents when party is not entitled to give secondary evidence.

Answer: (c)

60. ‘Dowry death’, means:

1. death of a woman under suspicious circumstances within 7 years of her marriage
2. death of a woman under suspicious circumstances within 5 years of her marriage
3. death of a woman under suspicious circumstances within 7 years of her marriage and she was subjected to cruelty by her husband or inlaws, just before her death
4. death of a woman under suspicious circumstances within 5 years of her marriage and she was subjected to cruelty by her husband or inlaws.

Answer: (c)

61. Court can take cognizance of the offence of defamation:

1. on a police report
2. upon a complaint made by a person aggrieved by the offence
3. upon information received from any other person
4. upon complaint filed by anybody.

Answer: (b)

62. Warrant of arrest may be directed to:

1. a police officer.
2. more than one police officer.
3. any other person.

1. (A) only
2. (B) only
3. (A) and (B) only
4. (A), (B) and (C) all.

Answer: (d)

63. Which of the following are the correct propositions?

1. Every partner has a right to have access and to inspect books of the firm.
2. Every partner has a right to take part in the business of the firm.
3. Every partner has a right to show profit.
4. Every partner has implied authority to open banking account in his own name.

1. (A) and (C)
2. (A) and (B)
3. (A), (B) and (C)
4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

64. Evidence of a witness recorded in the earlier proceeding is relevant and admissible in the subsequent proceeding provided:

1. Witness is dead or cannot be examined and the earlier proceeding was between the same parties, issues were the same and adverse party had the right to cross examine the witness
2. Witness is dead or cannot be examined and issues in the earlier proceeding were the same
3. Witness has become hostile to the party who is required to examine him in subsequent proceeding
4. Witness is not willing to give evidence in subsequent proceeding though his evidence is material.

Answer: (a)

65. Injury means:

1. Defamation, damage to reputation
2. Voluntarily causing hurt to any person
3. Harm caused lawfully to any person or property

1. (A) only
2. (B) only
3. (A) and (B) both
4. All the above acts.

Answer: (c)

66. When a person dies intestate without any heir, his property vests in:

1. the person who performs his last rites
2. his relatives though they are not his legal heirs
3. the one who took his care during his last days
4. the ‘state’ (Government) by escheat.

Answer: (d)

67. Which of the following irregularities vitiate the proceedings?

1. Magistrate though not empowered, tender pardon U/s 306 Cr.P.C in good faith.
2. Magistrate not empowered, makes over case to other Magistrate.
3. Magistrate not empowered, tried the offence summarily.
4. Magistrate though not competent, decides an appeal.

1. (A) and (B)
2. (B) and (D)
3. (C) and (D)
4. (A) and (D).

Answer: (c)

68. Who amongst the following is not a competent witness?

1. School going boy of the age of 8 yrs
2. A blind since birth
3. A person unable to speak or communicate verbally
4. A child of four years of age unable to answer rationally.

Answer: (d)

69. Cross-examination of a witness means:

1. an examination by adverse party
2. further examination of own witness who is hostile
3. an examination of witness to test his veracity, by any party
4. examination of witness by the court itself.

Answer: (a)

70. Suit for compensation for malicious prosecution is required to be filed within:

1. Three years from the date of acquittal
2. Five years from the date of acquittal
3. One year from the date of acquittal
4. One year from the date of demand of compensation by notice.

Answer: (c)

71. How a will is required to be proved?

1. By examining the scribe
2. By examining the person who had seen the testator executing the will
3. By the oral evidence of propounder of the will
4. By examining at least one attesting witness if alive or capable of giving evidence.

Answer: (d)

72. Agreement without consideration is:

1. Valid
2. Void
3. Valid, provided it is in writing, registered and made on account of natural love and affection

1. (A) only is correct
2. (B) only is correct
3. All are correct
4. (B) and (C) are correct.

Answer: (d)

73. A decree for partition of agricultural land declaring shares of the parties, is to be executed by:

1. the same court which passed the decree
2. the court to which decree is transferred U/s 39 of Civil Procedure Code
3. the collector or his gazetted subordinate deputed by him
4. the revenue court when precept is to it by the court which passed the decree.

Answer: (c)

74. Which of the following are ‘judgement in rem’?

1. Judgment in declaratory suit under U/s 34 of Specific Relief Act
2. Judgment in probate, matrimonial, admiralty or insolvency proceedings
3. Judgment in criminal trials
4. Judgment of Supreme Court.

Answer: (b)

75. ‘A’ is tried for the murder of ‘B’ by poison. Which of the following facts are relevant at the trial of ‘A’?

1. Before the incident ‘A’ had procured poison similar to that found in the body of ‘B’.
2. Earlier ‘A’ had made attempt to kill ‘B’.
3. In the past ‘A’ had murdered two others by poisoning.
4. ‘A’ was on inimical terms with ‘B’.

1. (A) and (B) only
2. (A), (B) and (D) only
3. (C) and (D) only
4. All of the four facts.

Answer: (b)

76. Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of imprisonment for a term:

1. not exceeding five years
2. not exceeding three years
3. not exceeding seven years
4. not exceeding ten years.

Answer: (c)

77. Which of the following is/are the correct propositions?

In a part heard trial of a criminal case:

1. Succeeding Magistrate can act upon the evidence recorded by his predecessor.
2. Succeeding Magistrate cannot act upon the evidence recorded by his predecessor.
3. Succeeding Magistrate cannot act upon such an evidence recorded by his predecessor only in summary trial.

1. (A) only is correct
2. (A) and (C) are correct
3. (B) only is correct
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

78. Which of the following is a correct proposition?

1. Warranty is a stipulation essential to the main contract of sale of goods.
2. Warranty is a stipulation collateral to the main purpose of contract.
3. Breach of warranty gives right to a buyer to repudiate the contract.

1. (A) only
2. (B) only
3. (C) only
4. (A) and (C) only.

Answer: (b)

79. Lease for a month to month can be determined by:

1. 30 days notice in writing is given by lessor
2. 15 days notice in writing duly singed
3. 15 days notice expiring with the end of the month of tenancy
4. Oral notice by lessor.

Answer: (b)

80. Minor can institute a suit for recovery of movable property:

1. Within one year after he attains majority
2. Within three years after he attains majority
3. Within three years from the date of cause of action, through next friend
4. Within twelve years after he attains majority.

Answer: (b)

81. Which of the following contracts cannot be specifically enforced?

1. A party is unable to perform whole of the contract and the part which cannot be performed is small and admit compensation in money
2. A contract which is dependent on the personal qualification or violation of the party
3. A contract which is in its nature determinable
4. A contract for the non performance of which compensation in money is an adequate relief

1. All of the above
2. (A), (B) and (C)
3. (B), (C) and (D)
4. (A), (C) and (D).

Answer: (c)

82. Landlord is entitled to inspect the premises:

1. at any time even without prior notice to the tenant
2. at any time giving prior notice to the tenant
3. at a reasonable time giving prior notice to the tenant
4. during day time only giving a notice to the tenant.

Answer: (c)

83. When is notice of execution under Rule 22 of Order XXI of Cr.P.C necessary?

1. As a rule in all execution cases show cause notice is needed to be given
2. When warrant of possession of immovable property is saught in execution
3. When execution is filed, more than two years after date of decree
4. When execution is filed by legal representative of the decree holder.

Answer: (c)

84. What is the period of limitation for taking congnizance of the offence U/s 326 of IPC?

1. Five years
2. Three Years
3. Seven Years
4. No period is prescribed.

Answer: (d)

85. Which of the following confessions made by the accused is admissible?

1. Voluntary confession made to the police officer
2. Confession caused by threat, inducement proceeding from person in authority, having reference to the charge against accused etc.
3. Voluntary statement made in police custody
4. Voluntary confession made while in police custody but made to the magistrate.

Answer: (d)

86. Which of the following are the correct propositions?

1. Minor can be admitted as a partner
2. Minor cannot be a partner but may be admitted to the benefit of partnership
3. Minor admitted to the benefit of partnership can have access to the account of the firm
4. Such a minor is not personally liable for an act of the firm

1. (A), (C) and (D)
2. (B), (C) and (D)
3. (A), (B) and (D)
4. (A) and (C) only.

Answer: (b)

87. ‘A’ committed theft of two gold chains of ‘B’ who is a resident of Pune, but from a place in Mumbai, one chain was recovered from ‘C’ at Jalna; another from ‘D’ at Buldana. ‘C’ & ‘D’ purchased chains knowing them to be stolen properties.

Which court can enquire and try the offence?

1. Court in Mumbai only
2. Court at Jalna or Buldana
3. Court in Mumbai as well as Jalna and Buldana
4. Court in Pune.

Answer: (c)

88. Which of the following properties can be attached in execution of a money decree?

1. Cooking utensils, beds etc.
2. Implements of husbandary
3. Books of account
4. Shares in the corporations.

Answer: (d)

89. If a landlord without a just cause cuts off or withholds essential supply or service enjoyed by the tenant, he/she is liable to be punished with imprisonment for a term:

1. Which may extend to one month or a fine which may extend to one thousand or both
2. Which may extend to three months or a fine which may extend to one thousand or with both
3. Which may extend to three months and a fine which may extend to one thousand
4. Which may extend to one month and a fine which may extend to one thousand.

Answer: (b)

90. Which of the following courts has got inherent powers to make orders in criminal proceedings to prevent abuse of process or to secure ends of justice?

1. Court of sessions
2. Chief Judicial Magistrate
3. High Court
4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

91. Objection to the jurisdiction of the court can be entertained:

1. in appeal also for the first time
2. during trial of the suit
3. at any stage of the suit
4. if taken at the earliest opportunity or before settlement of issues.

Answer: (d)

92. A man deliberately did an act and frighten a girl of weak heart, who fell unconscious. What offence if any has he committed?

1. U/s 323 IPC
2. U/s 326 IPC
3. U/s 325 IPC
4. No offence.

Answer: (a)

93. Act of the child is no offence when the child is:

1. Under 8 years
2. Under 10 years
3. Under 12 years
4. Under 7 years.

Answer: (d)

94. The term ‘legal representative’, means:

1. the legal heir of the deceased party
2. a person who in law represents estate of the deceased party
3. a person nominated by the deceased party
4. other relatives, though they are not legal heirs.

Answer: (b)

95. Which of the following authorities is not a ‘state’ for the purpose of Part III of the Constitution of India?

1. Government Companies
2. Public Sector Undertaking
3. Municipal Corporation
4. Board of Control for Cricket of India (BCCI).

Answer: (d)

96. When is a person eligible for appointment as a District Judge?

1. If he has been an advocate for not less than seven years
2. If he has practised as an advocate for more than three years
3. If he has been an advocate for not less than five years
4. If he has practised as an advocate for a year.

Answer: (a)

97. Every agreement between landlord and tenant for letting out of the premises is required to be:

1. in writing and registered
2. in writing and registered if it is for a period one year or more
3. in writing but it need not be registered
4. in writing and registered if it is for a period 3 years or more.

Answer: (a)

98. Which of the following is an incorrect proposition?

1. Admission may be a statement oral or written
2. Admission is conclusive proof of the fact admitted
3. Maker of the admission may prove that it was erroneously made
4. Admission can be used against its maker or his representative in interest.

Answer: (b)

99. ‘A’ handed over 200 kg. ‘Tur Dal’ to ‘B’, a carrier, to carry it to his town. ‘B’ carried it to his own village dishonestly. What offence has ‘B’ committed?

1. Criminal misappropriation of property
2. Criminal breach of trust
3. Theft of property
4. No offence.

Answer: (b)

100. Suit filed after the prescribed period of limitation:

1. has to be dismissed when objection is raised in defence
2. has to be dismissed even though no objection as to limitation is raised in defence
3. has to be dismissed unless sufficient cause for the delay is shown
4. can be entertained and decided on merit if court considers it just and proper.

Answer: (b)

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