'M' (husband) married 'W' (wife) on 30.0.1997 according to Muslim rites. Both are Muslims. On 28.7.1998, both of them were separated. Within 5 months of the separation 'M' got re-married. 'W' filed a suit against 'M' seeking dissolution of marriage ... In the reply filed by 'M', he took up the plea that he was willing to co-habit with 'W'... Whether in such circumstances, 'W' shall be entitled to a decree of divorce?
By Apurva NeelPublished on 25 Sep 2022 3:49 AM GMT
Find the question and answer of Muslim Law only on Legal Bites.
I am a Research Associate and Editor at Legal Bites with an LL.M. specialization in Corporate and Commercial Laws from Amity University, Mumbai. I have put my best efforts into presenting socio-legal aspects of society through various seminars, conferences etc. I keep refining content as I am an ardent writer, and palpably law has got multi-dimensional aspect, so I passionately try to explore ahead.