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RAJASTHAN JUDICIAL SERVICES MOCK TEST 2 | Click Here to Download PDF

RAJASTHAN JUDICIAL SERVICES MOCK TEST 2

No. of questions: 100
Maximum Marks: 100
Timing: 02 Hours

1. Suit against Government shall not be instituted until the expiration of:

1. One month next after notice in writing has been delivered
2. Three months after notice in writing has been delivered
3. Two months after notice in writing has been delivered
4. Six months after notice in writing has been delivered.

Answer: (c)

2. On the retirement removal or death of the next friend of a minor further proceeding shall be:

1. Stayed until new next friend is appointed
2. Stayed until the minor become major
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of the Above.

Answer: (a)

3. Order XXXII, Rule 2A (2) of Code of Civil Procedure provides that where such a suit is instituted by an ________________ the security shall include the court-fees payable to the Government.

1. Indigent Person
2. Person with unsound mind
3. Minor
4. All of the Above.

Answer: (a)

4. Under Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, where the premises have been let out on or after lst January, 1950, the rent payable at the time of commencement of the tenancy shall be liable to be increased at the rate of ____ per annum and the amount of increase of rent shall be merged in such rent after ten years. The amount of rent so arrived at shall again be liable to be increased at the rate of ______ per annum in similar manner up to the year of commencement of the Act.

1. 5 percent
2. 8 percent
3. 5 percent
4. 5 percent.

Answer: (a)

5. When property is transferred, what is to be apportioned between the transferor and the transferee?

1. Rents, annuities, pensions
2. Rents, annuities, pensions and dividends
3. Rents and annuities only
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

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6. Two persons mutually transfer the ownership of one thing for the ownership of another for no consideration, the transaction is called:

1. Gift
2. Exchange
3. Sale
4. Lease.

Answer: (b)

7. Rent Tribunal is constituted under which section of Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001?

1. Section 11
2. Section 12
3. Section 13
4. Section 14.

Answer: (c)

8. As per the Juvenile Justice Act 2015, who is a child?

1. Child is a person below 16 years of age
2. Child is a person below 18 years of age
3. Child is a person below 15 years of age
4. Child is anyone below 12 years of age.

Answer: (b)

9. Section 15 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 provides:

1. Probation officers to be public servants
2. Provision as to sureties
3. Probation officers
4. Variation of conditions of probation.

Answer: (a)

10. Right to reside in a shared household, is provided in which section of The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005?

1. Section 24 of The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
2. Section 12 of The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
3. Section 17 of The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005
4. Section 23 of The Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005.

Answer: (c)

11. The Indecent Representation of Women (Prohibition) Act, 1986 provides for punishment of up to two years in jail for an offence committed for the first time and imprisonment of _____________ for a second conviction.

1. Six months to Five years
2. One year to Six years
3. One year to Five years
4. Six months to Six years.

Answer: (a)

12. The doctrine of ‘territorial nexus’ is related with:

1. Article 13
2. Article 211
3. Article 245
4. Article 300.

Answer: (c)

13. Who was the first leader of the Opposition in the Rajya Sabha?

• Y.B. Chavan
• Bhola Paswan
• Shyam Nandan Mishra
• CM Stephen.

Answer: (c)

14. Which of the following statements is true? i) The POCSO Act provides for compensation for medical expenses for the child offended ii) The medical expenses may be provided after the registration of FIR only

1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Both i and ii
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

15. Section 4 of Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition, and Redressal) Act 2013 deals with:

1. Complaint of sexual harassment
2. Inquiry into complaint
3. Constitution of Internal Committee
4. Prohibition of publication or making known contents of complaint and inquiry proceedings.

Answer: (c)

16. A agreed to sell his horse to B. But unknown to both the parties, the horse was dead at the time of agreement, in this case, the contract is:

1. Void
2. Voidable at B’s option
3. Valid
4. Frustrated.

Answer: (a)

17. Any variance made without surety’s consent in the terms of the contract of guarantee discharges the surety:

1. As to the transaction prior to variance
2. As to the transaction subsequent to variance
3. As to all transactions
4. Equally, as far as the limits of them.

Answer: (b)

18. In a contract of guarantee:

1. There are two parties and one contract
2. There are two parties and two contracts
3. There are three parties and one contract
4. There are three parties and three contracts.

Answer: (d)

19. The income of transferred property may be accumulated for an unlimited time where the property is transferred with condition:

1. For the payment of debts taken by the transferor
2. For the maintenance of the descendants of the transferor generation after generation
3. For the maintenance of the property itself
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

20. Which of the following is an essential element of doctrine of Lis pendens?

1. Right to immovable property is in question in a suit or proceeding
2. The suit or proceeding must be pending in a court of competent jurisdiction
3. Transfer of property by a party to the litigation during the pendency of the litigation
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

21. The Parliament becomes competent to make law on a matter enumerated in the state list only if the:

1. Council of States passes a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds majority of the members present and voting that it is in the national interest that the Parliament should make law on such matter
2. Council of States and House of the People, both passes a resolution that it is in the national interest that the Parliament should make law on such matter
3. President gives the prior permission for such legislation
4. Speaker of the House of the People in consultation with Chairman of the Council of State gives the prior permission for such legislation.

Answer: (a)

22. Via which of the following amendments, the term “Socialist” was inserted in Preamble of Indian constitution?

1. 49th
2. 44th
3. 42nd
4. 47th.

Answer: (c)

23. _____ means that contemporaneous exposition is the best and strongest in law:

1. Noscitur a Sociis
2. Ejusdem Generis
3. Contemporanea Expositio Est Optima Et Fortissima In Lege
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

24. Reference to the High Court may be made:

1. When the Court faces doubt in question as to validity of any Act
2. When the Court faces doubt in question as to validity of any Ordinance
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of the Above.

Answer: (c)

25. Under Section 13 of Code of Civil Procedure, a foreign judgement can be challenged on the grounds of:

1. Competency of Court pronouncing the judgment
2. Being obtained by fraud
3. Sustaining a claim founded on a breach of law enforced in India
4. All of the Above.

Answer: (d)

26. Order I, Rule 3 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides that all persons may be joined in one suit as defendants where:

1. Any right to relief in respect of, or arising out of, the same act or transaction or series of acts or transactions is alleged to exist against such persons, whether jointly, severally or in the alternative
2. If separate suits were brought against such persons, any common question of law or fact would arise
3. If both (a) and (b) exist together
4. None of the Above.

Answer: (c)

27. Where a suit is abated or dismissed under Order XXII of Code of Civil Procedure on the same cause of action:

1. Fresh suit may be filed with prior permission of the Court
2. No fresh suit shall be brought
3. New suit may be filed if sufficient cause is shown
4. New suit may be instituted with the consent of parties.

Answer: (b)

28. Which of the following section of the Evidence Act recognize the principle that “Hearsay evidence is no evidence”?

1. Section 59
2. Section 60
3. Section 61
4. Section 64.

Answer: (b)

29. In which of the following case, the conviction of the accused was set aside as evidence was not recorded in his presence, and later the case was remanded back for trial?

1. Banchhanidhi Singh v. State of Orissa, 1989
2. State of Madhya Pradesh v. Budhram, 1995
3. Javed Chand and Ors. v. Pukhraj Surana, 1961
4. Both (a) & (c).

Answer: (b)

30. Under Specific Relief Act, readiness of plaintiff to perform contract includes:

1. Performance of plaintiff
2. Potential of plaintiff
3. Willingness of plaintiff
4. Financial ability of plaintiff.

Answer: (c)

31. Section 26 of the Specific Relief Act fixes the time limit for discovery of mistake or fraud to be:

1. Six months
2. Three months
3. One year
4. Nine months.

Answer: (d)

32. Section 42 of Specific Relief Act provides for:

1. Injunction to perform negative agreements
2. Injunction when refused
3. Damages in lieu of injunction
4. Mandatory injunction.

Answer: (a)

33. What is the effect of coercion, fraud and misrepresentation on contract?

1. Void on the option of the party whose consent was so caused
2. Voidable on the option of the party whose consent was so caused
3. Valid for both sides
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

34. The conditions for being competent for entering into a contract, under Section 11, Indian Contract Act are:

1. Age of majority
2. Soundness of mind
3. Not disqualified from contracting
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

35. Mischief rule is:

1. In interpreting statutes, judges should interpret the words literally
2. There must be no mischief in courts
3. In interpreting statutes, judges should look at the ‘mischief’ which the act was passed to prevent
4. In interpreting statutes, judges should interpret the words as they see fit.

Answer: (c)

36. Under Rajasthan Rent Control Act, 2001, where two or more Appellate Rent Tribunals are constituted for any area, the State Government may, by __________ order, regulate the distribution of business among them.

1. General
2. Special
3. General or special
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

37. In which of the following cases the amendment in Article 31C, which gave primacy to all Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights, was declared ultra vires and void?

1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
2. Minerva Mills v. UOI
3. M.K. Rai v. UOI
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

38. The Governor does not appoint:

1. Judges of the High Court
2. Chief Minister
3. Chairman of the State Public Service Commission
4. Advocate General of the State.

Answer: (a)

39. Which of the followings case is not related to mens rea?

1. R v. Prince
2. Queen v. Tolson
3. Sherras v. De Rutzen
4. Barendra Kumar Ghosh v. Emperor.

Answer: (d)

40. When does the revision of a case starts?

1. Upon the determination of the case
2. While the matter is still pending in court
3. Under the final judgment
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

41. Consequence of defect in the framing of charge is read under:

1. Section 214 and 464 Code of Criminal Procedure
2. Section 211 and 464 Code of Criminal Procedure
3. Section 212 and 464 Code of Criminal Procedure
4. Section 215 and 464 Code of Criminal Procedure.

Answer: (d)

42. Section 138 of Negotiable Instrument Act provides imprisonment for maximum term of:

1. One year
2. Two years
3. Three years
4. Two months.

Answer: (b)

43. Act to which a person is compelled by threats is not an offence by virtue of:

1. Section 93
2. Section 94
3. Section 95
4. Section 96.

Answer: (b)

44. In the Evidence Act, the conditions in respect of computer output to be deemed and admissible in evidence as document is contained in:

1. Section 65B(5)
2. Section 65B(4)
3. Section 65B(2)
4. Section 65B(1).

Answer: (c)

45. Testimony of ‘Hostile Witness’ is to be:

1. Rejected outrightly
2. Partially rejected
3. Partially accepted
4. Considered with caution and be corroborated.

Answer: (d)

46. Appreciation of evidence is a:

1. Question of fact
2. Question of law
3. Question of law and fact
4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

47. Which one of the following is not required in filing a representative suit under Order 1 Rule 8 of the Code of Civil Procedure?

1. Numerous parties
2. Same interest
3. Leave of the court
4. Written permission of those who are being represented.

Answer: (d)

48. Under Code of Civil Procedure where a person who is a necessary party to a suit has not been joined as a party, it is a case of:

1. Mis-joinder
2. Non-joinder
3. Both (a) and (b)
4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

49. Dasti summons for service on the defendant can be given to the plaintiff under:

1. Order V Rule 9A, Code of Civil Procedure
2. Order V Rule 9, Code of Civil Procedure
3. Order IV Rule 7, Code of Civil Procedure
4. Order VI Rule 6, Code of Civil Procedure.

Answer: (a)

50. In case of a continuing offence:

1. The period of limitation shall be computed from the time the offence begin
2. The period of limitation shall be computed from time when the act constituting most essential ingredient of the offence was committed
3. The period of limitation shall be computed from the date on which the accused made preparation for committing such offence
4. A fresh period of limitation shall begin to run at every moment of time during which the offence continues.

Answer: (d)

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51. In case of a non-bailable offence, a bail granted by a Magistrate can be cancelled under section 437(5) of Code of Criminal Procedure:

1. By the Magistrate granting the bail
2. By the Court of Sessions
3. By the High Court
4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

52. Which of the following section binds an interpreter to interpret truthfully?

1. Section 282 Code of Criminal Procedure
2. Section 387 Code of Criminal Procedure
3. Section 280 Code of Criminal Procedure
4. Section 289 Code of Criminal Procedure.

Answer: (a)

53. A suit to redeem or recover possession of immovable property mortgaged can be brought by the mortgagor within a period of:

1. 30 years
2. 12 years
3. 6 years
4. 3 years.

Answer: (a)

54. Period of limitation to recover possession from a tenant begins when:

1. Term of tenancy is expired
2. Notice of termination issued
3. Tenancy is made
4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

55. Right of private defence of the body begins:

1. When a reasonable apprehension of danger to the body arises
2. When there is an attack on the body
3. When public authorities have refused protection
4. When mental peace is disturbed.

Answer: (a)

56. Search-warrant’ is issued under Section of Code of Criminal Procedure?

1. Section 93
2. Section 95
3. Section 100
4. Section 105.

Answer: (a)

57. Railways is a subject on the:

1. Concurrent List
2. Union List
3. State List
4. Residuary List.

Answer: (b)

58. Which of the following States and the year of their creation is/are incorrectly matched?

1. Andhra Pradesh: 1958
2. Maharashtra: 1960
3. Arunachal Pradesh: 1987
4. Goa: 1987.

Answer: (a)

59. Which of the following is not an example of a leading question?

1. Where do you live?
2. Is not your name so and so?
3. Do you not reside in such and such place
4. Are you not in the service of such and such person.

Answer: (a)

60. The revisional jurisdiction can be invoked by the appellate court in:

1. Erroneous judgment
2. There is no compliance with the provisions of law
3. Material evidence is ignored
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

61. Section 164 Criminal Procedure Code provides a special procedure for recording of:

1. Confessions
2. Statements made during the course of investigation
3. Confessions as well as statements made during the course of investigation
4. Examination of witnesses by police.

Answer: (c)

62. Which one of the following cases is, related to defective investigation?

1. D.K. Basu v. State of West Bengal
2. Zahira Habibullah Sheikh v. State of Gujarat
3. Sakshi v. Union of India
4. Dipesh Chandak v. Union of India.

Answer: (b)

63. Which of the following Court may condone delay for taking cognizance of an offence after the expiry of the period of limitation?

1. Court of session only
2. Chief Judicial Magistrate only
3. Any Court taking cognizance
4. No Court can condone delay.

Answer: (c)

64. Which section of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958 deals with Procedure in case of offender failing to observe conditions of bond?

1. Section 7 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
2. Section 4 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
3. Section 5 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958
4. Section 9 of The Probation of Offenders Act, 1958.

Answer: (d)

65. When was the POCSO Act enforced?

1. 14th November 2012
2. 14th November 2015
3. 9th November 2012
4. 9th November 2011.

Answer: (a)

66. “As per the Juvenile Justice Act 2015 child in need of care and protection means? i) Child found without any home or settled place of abode and without any ostensible means of subsistence ii) Child found working in contravention of labour laws for the time being in force or is found begging”

1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Both i and ii
4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

67. Which section provides that the offences under the Negotiable instruments Act are compoundable?

1. Section 137
2. Section 141
3. Section 147
4. Section 149.

Answer: (c)

68. X’, a doctor, informs his patent ‘Y’ that he has cancer which is in its last stage. ‘X’ requests ‘Y’ to arrange his family affairs as he cannot survive for more than a/couple of weeks. ‘Y’ dies because of shock on hearing this. ‘X’ is:

1. Guilty of murder as he knew that such a disclosure will cause death
2. Guilty of causing death by negligence
3. Not guilty since communication was made in good faith for the benefit of ‘Y’
4. Guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder as he knew that such disclosure is likely to cause death.

Answer: (c)

69. Charge can be altered at any time:

1. Before taking cognizance
2. Before framing of charge
3. Before taking evidence and not afterwards
4. Before pronouncement of judgment.

Answer: (d)

70. Which of the following is relevant and may be received in evidence?

1. Tape recording
2. Dog-tracking
3. DNA test
4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

71. Choose correct antonym INADVERTENT:

1. Unintended
2. Deliberate
3. Unpremeditated
4. Unwitting.

Answer: (b)

72. Choose correct antonym: ANTAGONIZE:

1. Placate
2. Estrange
3. Hostile
4. Provoke.

Answer: (a)

73. Choose correct antonym: FORTHCOMING:

1. Imminent
2. Coming
3. Unavailable
4. Candid.

Answer: (c)

74. To free someone from all blames:

1. Exonerate
2. Fling
3. Forbid
4. Consolidate.

Answer: (a)

75. Choose correct synonym: Zealous:

1. Ardent
2. Jealous
3. Angry
4. Impatient.

Answer: (a)

76. He “broke down” when he heard the news of his son’s death.

1. Ceased to smile
2. Stopped working
3. Wept bitterly
4. Resigned his job.

Answer: (c)

77. To catch a tartar means:

1. To trap wanted criminal with great difficulty
2. To catch a dangerous person
3. To meet with disaster
4. To deal with a person who is more than one’s match.

Answer: (d)

78. To have an axe to grind means:

1. A private end to serve
2. To fail to arouse interest
3. To have no result
4. To work for both sides.

Answer: (a)

79. I am sure they will fight “tooth and nails” for their lives.

1. With all their might
2. Without any other weapon
3. Resorting to violence
4. Very cowardly.

Answer: (a)

80. Discipline is “on the wane” in schools and colleges these days.

1. Declining
2. Increasing
3. Spreading
4. Spiraling.

Answer: (a)

81. Please, don’t laugh ____ those beggars.

1. for
2. against
3. at
4. from.

Answer: (c)

82. Before you gave answers, sir ____ them to us.

1. sent
2. will send
3. had sent
4. was sending.

Answer: (c)

83. People speak English all over the world.

1. English is spoken all over the world
2. English was spoken all over the world
3. English was spoken by people
4. English is spoken by people.

Answer: (a)

84. Who gave you permission to enter?

1. By whom were you given permission to enter?
2. By whom was you given permission to enter?
3. By whom you were given permission to enter?
4. By whom were given you permission to enter?

Answer: (c)

85. The principal has granted him a scholarship.

1. A scholarship has granted to him by the principal
2. He has been granted a scholarship by the principal
3. He has been granted a scholarship by the principal
4. A scholarship was granted to him by the principal.

Answer: (b)

86. अध्यापक’ शब्द का स्त्रीलिंग रूप क्या है?

1. अध्यापिकी
2. अध्यापकी
3. अध्यापका
4. अध्यापिका.

Answer: (d)

87. जैसी करनी, वैसी भरनी:

1. कार्य के अनुसार परिणाम मिलता है
2. जो जितना उधार लेता है, उसे उतना ही लौटना पड़ता है
3. बुरे काम का बुरा परिणाम होता है
4. अच्छा फल चाहने वालो को बुरा काम छोड़ देना चाहिए.

Answer: (a)

88. अभिज्ञ’ का विलोम शब्द है:

1. अभिज्ञात
2. अनभिज्ञ
3. जाना पहचाना
4. अनघ.

Answer: (b)

89. तवर्ग का उच्चारण–स्थान है?

1. मूर्धा
2. दन्त
3. ओष्ठ
4. कण्ठ.

Answer: (b)

90. पवर्ग का उच्चारण स्थान है?

1. मूर्धा
2. दन्त
3. द्वयोष्ठ्य
4. कण्ठ.

Answer: (c)

91. वर्णों के समूह को क्या कहते हैं?

1. समूह शब्द
2. संयुक्त शब्द
3. वर्णमाला
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं.

Answer: (c)

92. क्ष्, त्र और ज्ञ ये तीनों कौन–सा व्यंजन है?

1. संयुक्त व्यंजन
2. उष्म व्यंजन
3. तवर्गीय व्यंजन
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं.

Answer: (a)

93. पुस्तक कौन–सा शब्द है?

1. तद्भव
2. तत्सम
3. देशज
4. विदेशज.

Answer: (b)

94. आग कौन–सा शब्द है?

1. तद्भव
2. तत्सम
3. देशज
4. विदेशज.

Answer: (a)

95. पृथ्वी कौन–सा शब्द है?

1. तद्भव
2. तत्सम
3. देशज
4. विदेशज.

Answer: (b)

96. ईमानदारी कौन–सा संज्ञा है?

1. यक्तिवाचक
2. भाववाचक
3. समूहवाचक
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं.

Answer: (b)

97. सोना कौन–सा संज्ञा है?

1. भाववाचक
2. समूहवाचक
3. द्रव्यवाचक
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं.

Answer: (c)

98. मैं‘ कौन–सा पुरुष है?

1. उत्तम पुरुष
2. मध्यम पुरुष
3. अन्य पुरुष
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं.

Answer: (a)

99. उस‘ कौन–सा सर्वनाम है?

1. निश्चयवाचक
2. अनिश्चयवाचक
3. निजवाचक
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं.

Answer: (a)

100. गोल‘ विशेषण है?

1. सार्वनामिक विशेषण
2. परिमाणवाचक विशेषण
3. गुणवाचक विशेषण
4. इनमें से कोई नहीं.

Answer: (c)

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