Find UGC NET MOCK TEST 1 PAPER II on Legal Bites. UGC NET (National Eligibility Test) is conducted on behalf of the University Grants Commission (UGC) for determining the eligibility of Indian nationals for the Eligibility of Assistant Professorship, Junior Research Fellowship or both, for Indian Universities and Colleges. Practice the UGC NET MOCK TEST to reflect on… Read More »

Find UGC NET MOCK TEST 1 PAPER II on Legal Bites. UGC NET (National Eligibility Test) is conducted on behalf of the University Grants Commission (UGC) for determining the eligibility of Indian nationals for the Eligibility of Assistant Professorship, Junior Research Fellowship or both, for Indian Universities and Colleges. Practice the UGC NET MOCK TEST to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year paper will provide you with an edge over your competitors. Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

This will allow you to grasp different concepts and assist you in developing a framework and strategy of preparation. The scores will further provide you with an analysis of your weaknesses and strengths. Attempting the paper will familiarize you with the pattern, structure and difficulty of the paper and help you ace your exams.

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UGC NET MOCK TEST 1 PAPER II | Click Here to Download PDF

UGC NET MOCK TEST 1 PAPER II

No. of questions- 100
Maximum Marks – 200
Timing – 03 Hours (Paper I & II)

1. Match the following:

(I) Act of 1858 1. Minto Morley reforms

(II) Indian Council Act, 1909 2. British Crown assumes Power

(III) Government of India Act, 1919 3. Provincial autonomy

(IV) Government of India Act, 1935 4. Dyarchy

  1. I-4, II-1, III-3, IV-2
  2. I-1, II-4, III-2, IV-3
  3. I-1, II-2, III-3, IV-4
  4. I-2, II-1, III-4, IV-3.

Answer: (d)

2. The Competition Act 2002, prohibits the imposition of unfair or discriminatory:

  1. Condition in purchase of service
  2. Predatory price in sale of goods
  3. Indirect condition in sale of service
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

3. “Consider the following statements. To constitute abetment, it is:

  1. necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
  2. not necessary that the act abetted must be committed.
  3. necessary that the person abetted must have the same intention or knowledge as that of the abettor.

Which of the statements given above represent(s) the correct position of law?”

  • Only 2
  • Only 2 and 3
  • Only 1
  • Only 3.

Answer: (a)

4. Match List I with List II and give the correct answer with the help of codes given:

List I List II (Provisions of Hindu Marriage Act)

  1. Impotency (i) Section 12(1)(d)
  2. Registration of Marriage (ii) Section 12 (1)(b)
  3. Pre-marriage pregnancy (iii) Section 8
  4. Incapacity to consent & mental disorder (iv) Section 12(1)(a)
  1. A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
  2. A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii)
  3. A-(iv), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(i)
  4. A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii).

Answer: (d)

5. The statutory formulation of director’s duties under Companies Act, 2013 have been spelt out in:

  1. Section 166
  2. Section 151
  3. Section 171
  4. Section 289.

Answer: (a)

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6. “Consider the following statements: The High Court has jurisdiction to:

  1. Punish for its contempt.
  2. Tender advice on the legal question referred to it by the Governor of the State.
  3. Tender advice on a legal question referred to it by the Governor of the state.
  4. Issue certain writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights or for other purposes.

Which of the statements given above are correct?”

  1. 1 and 4
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 2, 3 and 4.

Answer: (a)

7. “Assertion (A): The rule making power of the Supreme Court is not subject to any law made by the Parliament of India. Reason (R): Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the rights of the individual without fear or favour.”

  1. A’ is true but ‘R’ is false
  2. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are true
  3. Both ‘A’ and ‘R’ are false
  4. A’ is false but ‘R’ is true.

Answer: (d)

8. The protection of Article 20(3) is not available to:

  1. Confession of guilt made to a friend who visits the accused who is in police custody
  2. Confession made through intelligible gestures under compulsion
  3. Confession made through the production of document or thing under compulsion
  4. Confession of guilt made in police custody by words.

Answer: (a)

9. Which of the following was not amended by the National Green Tribunal Act?

  1. The Forest Act
  2. The Wildlife Act
  3. The Biological Diversity Act
  4. The Water Act.

Answer: (b)

10. Principles of natural justice are not applicable in which of the following cases?

  1. Purely Administrative actions
  2. Express Statutory Exclusion
  3. Emergency situation
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

11. “In Paquete Habana case which of the following judgements were made by the court?

  1. International law is a part of the law of the United States.
  2. The fishing vessels are exempt from capture during war.
  3. In no circumstances fishing vessels could be destroyed.
  4. The works and opinions of the Jurists could be restored to for the evidence of customs and usages.

Select the correct answer from the codes:”

  1. 1, 2 and 4
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 3.

Answer: (c)

12. The best evidence for the existence of international law is that every state recognises that it does not exist and that it is itself under obligation to observe it. Above statement is given by:

  1. Pollock
  2. Austin
  3. Brierly
  4. Starke.

Answer: (c)

13. Jus gentium is:

  1. Law of Nations
  2. Generic law
  3. Civil law
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

14. Zina in Mohammedan law means:

  1. Sexual intercourse not permitted by law
  2. Sexual intercourse permitted by law
  3. Fornication or adultery
  4. Either (a) or (c).

Answer: (d)

15. Which provision of the Wildlife Act deals with the declaration of National Park?

  1. Section 35 A
  2. Section 35
  3. Section 35 B
  4. Section 36.

Answer: (b)

16. A company shall be deemed to be unable to pay its debts:

  1. If the company has failed to the sum within 21 days after the receipt of such demand
  2. If any execution process issued on a decree in favour of a creditor is returned unsatisfied
  3. If it is proved to the satisfaction of the Tribunal that the company is unable to pay its debts
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

17. What is the required period to file a complaint under Consumer Protection Act, 1986?

  1. 1 year
  2. 2 year
  3. 3 year
  4. No time prescribed.

Answer: (b)

18. Consent is free under section 14, Indian Contract Act, if not caused by:

  1. Coercion and undue influence
  2. Fraud and misrepresentation
  3. Mistakes subject to the provisions of sections 20, 21 and 22
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

19. Which one of the following is sufficient to prove the offence of sedition?

  1. Comments expressing disapproval of the policies of the Government with a view to obtain a change in policies by lawful means
  2. Proof of disloyalty or ill feelings
  3. Comments expressing disapproval of the administrative action even though these do not excite hatred or disloyalty
  4. Exciting disaffection towards the Government.

Answer: (d)

20. Which one is not a source of Muslim Law?

  1. Quran
  2. Shariat
  3. Qiyas
  4. Ijma.

Answer: (b)

21. What is the position, in Indian context, to get a hold of copyright on a copy-edited judgment?

  1. Mere copy editing is sufficient
  2. Minimal of creativity test is applicable
  3. A distinct work must be created
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

22. Which section deals with the punishment for the abetment of offences under Information Technology Act?

  1. Section 84
  2. Section 84C
  3. Section 84B
  4. Section 84A.

Answer: (c)

23. Which theory of legal personality contemplates that the law is the only source from which legal personality of corporation may flow?

  1. Concession theory
  2. Realist theory
  3. Fiction theory
  4. Symbolist theory.

Answer: (a)

24. Acquisition of ‘res nullius’ is:

  1. Original acquisition of ownership
  2. Derivative acquisition of ownership
  3. Mere custody of the thing
  4. Accessory acquisition of ownership.

Answer: (a)

25. The Administrative tribunal have been recognised under which of the following articles of the constitution?

  1. 227
  2. 323A
  3. 323B
  4. 324.

Answer: (b)

26. A contract discharged by:

  1. Performance of the contract
  2. Frustration of the contract
  3. Novation
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

27. Which of the following cases is known as “High Water-mark case in forest protection”?

  1. Salebhai Mulla v. State of Gujarat
  2. T N Godavarman v. UOI
  3. Narmada Bachao Andolan v. UOI
  4. Samantha v. State of Andhra Pradesh.

Answer: (b)

28. When somebody receives a stolen smartphone or laptop, under which section of the Information Technology Act he can be prosecuted?

  1. Section 66B
  2. Section 66E
  3. Section 66D
  4. Section 66A.

Answer: (a)

29. Law grows with the nation, increases with it, and dies with its dissolution and it is a characteristic or it. It is said by:

  1. Salmond
  2. Savigny
  3. Maine
  4. Buckland.

Answer: (a)

30. Lachman Uttam Chand Kriplani v. Meena is related to:

  1. Cruelty
  2. Desertion
  3. Insanity
  4. Adultery.

Answer: (b)

31. What is the age of Puberty for a Muslim marriage?

  1. 15 years
  2. 16 years
  3. 17 years
  4. 18 years.

Answer: (a)

32. Which of the following organisations deals with the “International Economic Law”?

  1. WTO
  2. World Bank
  3. IMF
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

33. Who can file a complaint under the Consumer Protection Act,1986?

  1. Any recognised consumer association
  2. A consumer
  3. The central government or state govt
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

34. In Indian Contract Act, contingent contract is defined under:

  1. Section 30
  2. Section 31
  3. Section 37
  4. Section 36.

Answer: (b)

35. Section 84 of Indian Penal Code is based on:

  1. Proximity Rule
  2. Rule of common intention
  3. M’Naghten rule
  4. Transferred malice.

Answer: (c)

36. Which case relates to the issue of sample taking procedure under Water Act?

  1. Delhi bottling case
  2. Kedia leather case
  3. Ratlam case
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

37. The guarantee contained in Article 29(1) is with respect to right to conserve distinct:

  1. Language, culture or religion
  2. Scripts, culture or religion
  3. Language, script or culture
  4. Language, script or religion.

Answer: (c)

38. 93rd amendment of the Constitution of India deals with:

  1. Right to education
  2. Right in respect of physically handicapped persons in the service under the State
  3. Reservation in the matters of promotion in the service under the State in favour of other backward classes
  4. Reservation for admission in Central educational institutions.

Answer: (d)

39. A motion that seeks to reduce the amount of demand presented by government to Rs 1 is known as:

  1. Disapproval of policy cut
  2. Token cut
  3. Economy cut
  4. Vote on account.

Answer: (a)

40. Son in Class I of the Schedule of the Hindu Succession Act, 1956 does not include:

  1. Grandson
  2. Posthumous son
  3. Adopted son
  4. Natural son.

Answer: (a)

41. In which case the European Court of Human Rights held that “an individual is as much a subject of international law as a state is”:

  1. Asylum case
  2. Genocide convention case
  3. Lawless case
  4. Paquete Habana case.

Answer: (c)

42. Which of the following is not a form of reparation for the injury caused by internationally wrongful act in the ILC Draft Code on responsibility of states for internationally wrongful acts of 2001?

  1. Restitution
  2. Compensation
  3. Servitude
  4. Satisfaction.

Answer: (c)

43. Which convention lays down the material element for recognition of a State?

  1. Marrakesh Agreement
  2. Montevideo Convention
  3. Geneva Convention
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

44. What is the effect of Judicial Separation on marital relation under Hindu Marriage Act?

  1. Marital relations come to an end
  2. Marital relations are suspended
  3. Marriage becomes void
  4. Marriage becomes voidable.

Answer: (b)

45. The guardianship of the property of the minor under Muslim law is categorised into:

  1. De jure guardian
  2. De facto guardian
  3. Certified guardian
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

46. “Assertion [A]: International Law is a weak legal system of jurisprudence. Reason [R]: International law has no enforcement mechanism.”

  1. Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. A is true, R is false
  4. A is false but R is true.

Answer: (c)

47. Which of the following principles/doctrines supports the idea of sustainable development in Environmental Law?

  1. Precautionary principle
  2. Polluter pays principle
  3. Doctrine of public trust
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

48. A’ pulled an earring away from a woman’s ear and thereby tore and wounded her ear. ‘A is guilty of:

  1. Extortion
  2. Mischief
  3. Misappropriation
  4. Robbery.

Answer: (d)

49. The maxim “actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea” means:

  1. Prohibited act constitutes an offence
  2. Guilty intention of accused constitutes an offence
  3. Prohibited act followed by guilty intention constitutes an offence
  4. Neither guilty intention alone nor the prohibited act alone constitutes an offence.

Answer: (c)

50. Which doctrine is based on the legal maxim that “what cannot be done directly, cannot also be done indirectly”?

  1. Doctrine of Eclipse
  2. Doctrine of Pith and Substance
  3. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (c)

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51. The speaker of Lok Sabha:

  1. Has no right to vote
  2. Votes like any other member of lok sabha
  3. Has two votes, one in ordinary course and other in case of tie
  4. Votes only in case of tie.

Answer: (d)

52. The first five-year plan was launched in India in the year?

  1. 1947
  2. 1951
  3. 1948
  4. 1949.

Answer: (b)

53. An agreement in restraint of trade is valid under section 27 of Indian Contract Act if relates to:

  1. Sale of goodwill
  2. Mutual adjustment
  3. Business contingency
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

54. WTO came into being on?

  1. 1st Jan 1995
  2. 3rd June 1995
  3. 1st July 1995
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

55. If the jural correlative of “Right” is “Duty”, then the co-relative of “Liberty” is:

  1. Power
  2. Disability
  3. Liability
  4. No right.

Answer: (d)

56. Who among the following is considered an exponent of Utilitarianism?

  1. Hobbes
  2. Bentham
  3. David Hume
  4. Grotius.

Answer: (b)

57. According to Kelsen’s theory, the validity of a norm is based on:

  1. Adaptability of the norm
  2. Effectiveness of the norm
  3. Receptiveness of the norm
  4. Legality of the norm.

Answer: (b)

58. Roscoe Pound propounded the theory of “social engineering” which means:

  1. Greatest happiness to the greatest number of people
  2. Balancing of competing interests in society
  3. Changes in the concept and function of state
  4. That law has its source in the general consciousness.

Answer: (b)

59. How many witnesses are necessary in Shia Muslim marriage?

  1. One male and Two females
  2. Two males
  3. No witness is required
  4. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: (c)

60. Karta of a Hindu joint family has been defined in:

  1. Suraj Koer v. Sheo Prasad
  2. Hanooman Prasad v. Musammat babooee
  3. Radha Krishan Das v. Kaluram
  4. Sadhu Ram v. Bhup Singh.

Answer: (a)

61. The term “Legally Binding” in Oppenheim’s definition connotes:

  1. Positive Character
  2. Negative Character
  3. Rigid character
  4. Absolute Character.

Answer: (a)

62. Which of the following basic norm was enacted by Kelson?

  1. Grundnorm
  2. Legal Norm
  3. Specific Norm
  4. Political Norm.

Answer: (a)

63. According to professor Goodhart, a ratio decidendi of a case is:

  1. The principle of law laid down in a decision which is the decisive element
  2. The conclusion reached by the judge on the basis of the material facts of the case
  3. The reason given by the court for its decision
  4. Any opinion of the court on the question of law.

Answer: (b)

64. “Savigny has observed that:

  1. Custom precedes legislation.
  2. Legislation must conform customary practices.
  3. Custom is not important than legislation.
  4. Custom is superior to legislation.

Select the best option:”

  1. 2, 3 and 4
  2. 1, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 3.

Answer: (c)

65. “Assertion (A) – It is easy to identify sociological school with Pound. Reason (R) – Sociological school neither begins nor ends with Pound.”

  1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
  4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

66. How did Aristotle describe justice in restoring equality when this has been disturbed?

  1. Distributive Justice
  2. Corrective Justice
  3. Universal Justice
  4. Natural Justice.

Answer: (b)

67. As per the Motor Vehicle Act, 1988, minimum experience of driving a light motor vehicle is required before a person can be granted a license for transport vehicle is of:

  1. 9 months
  2. 12 months
  3. 2 years
  4. 3 years.

Answer: (b)

68. Which of these is a case where time was held to be the essence of contract and even slight delay rendered promisor liable to compensation?

  1. Bhudra Chand v. Betts
  2. Mahesh v. Ramesh
  3. Vatsal and Sons Co. v. Rajasthan
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

69. Communication of acceptance is complete as against the proposer:

  1. When it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
  2. When it is put in the course of transmission to him so as to be out of power of the acceptor
  3. When the acceptance is communicated to the proposer
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

70. In which of the following cases a claim is not enforceable on the ground of quantum meruit?

  1. A is engaged by B to write a book to be published in instalments in a weekly magazine. The magazine is abandoned after a few issues
  2. A is employed by a managing director of a company. After he rendered services for some time, it is found that the directors were not qualified to appoint him as such
  3. A undertakes to build a house for B for Rs.25000, but after having done half the work he abandons the contract. B afterwards completes the house
  4. A decorates B’s flat and fits a wardrobe and a book case for a lump sum of Rs.15000. The work is done but B complains of faulty workmanship.

Answer: (c)

71. “According to Salmond, legal sources of law:

  1. Are recognised as such by the law itself.
  2. Lack formal recognition by the law.
  3. Operate immediately.
  4. Are only gates through which new principles can find entrance into law.

Which of the following statements are correct?”

  1. 1 and 3 are correct
  2. 1 and 4 are correct
  3. 1, 3 and 4 are correct
  4. Only 1 is correct.

Answer: (b)

72. Which of the following relates to the notice of protest under section 102 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881?

  1. May be given by the notary public who makes the protest
  2. Must always be given by the notary public who makes the protest
  3. Must be given by the holder
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

73. Under Muslim law, a marriage forbidden by reason of affinity is:

  1. Irregular
  2. Valid
  3. Void
  4. Either (a) or (c).

Answer: (c)

74. The rule of unanimity contained in Partnership Act has a reference to:

  1. Fundamental matters
  2. Ordinary matters
  3. Trivial matters
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (a)

75. The Environment Protection Act, 1986 has been made under which provision of the constitution?

  1. Article 253
  2. Article 252
  3. Article 249
  4. Article 246.

Answer: (a)

76. What amount of distinctiveness is required to register a trademark?

  1. Any amount of distinctiveness
  2. Shall be inherently distinctive
  3. Must be highly distinctive
  4. Will depend upon the discretion of the Registrar.

Answer: (a)

77. The vicarious liability of principal is based on the maxim:

  1. Ubi jus ibi remedium
  2. Volenti non fit injuria
  3. Qui facit per alium facit per se
  4. Scienti non fit injuria.

Answer: (c)

78. To constitute joint tortfeasors there must be:

  1. Heterogeneity of design
  2. Homogeneity of design
  3. Similarity of design
  4. Common design.

Answer: (d)

79. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

  1. A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty
  2. A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract
  3. A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (b)

80. “Following are good defences to an action in tort:

  1. Volenti non fit injuria
  2. Scienti non fit injuria
  3. Vis major

Choose the best option:”

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only.

Answer: (c)

81. A transferee of the partner’s interest in the firm:

  1. Becomes a partner in the firm
  2. Does not become a partner but gets a right to require accounts or to inspect the books of the firm
  3. Does not become a partner but gets a right to receive the share of profits of the transferring partner
  4. Both (b) and (c).

Answer: (c)

82. “When an act is abetted and a different act is done by the person instigated, the abettor is liable for the act done in the same manner and to the same extent as if he had directly abetted it, provided:

  1. The act was done with the aid or in pursuance of the conspiracy which constituted the abatement.
  2. The act done was a probable consequence of the abetment irrespective of being committed under the influence of instigation.
  3. The abettor had reasonable ground to believe that a different act may be committed.

Which of the above is correct?”

  1. 1 and 2
  2. Only 1
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3.

Answer: (b)

83. The duty under the law of torts is:

  1. Toward specific individual
  2. Toward a group of individuals
  3. Toward a particular community
  4. Toward the world at large.

Answer: (d)

84. Section 23 of Hindu Marriage Act provides for:

  1. Absolute bars
  2. Discretionary bars
  3. Matrimonial bars
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

85. The doctrine of ‘absolute liability’ was propounded in:

  1. M C Mehta v. UOI in 1984
  2. M C Mehta v. UOI in 1987
  3. Bhopal gas leak case in 1990
  4. Madras Railway Co. v. Zamindar of Carventnagram.

Answer: (b)

86. Human rights include:

  1. Fundamental Rights
  2. Common rights
  3. Natural rights
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

87. The word ‘nuisance’ is derived from:

  1. Latin word ‘nouise’
  2. Greek word ‘neazie’
  3. French word ‘nuire’
  4. Roman word ‘naisan’.

Answer: (c)

88. The ‘tort of inducement in a breach of contract’ finds it origin in:

  1. Rookes v. Barnard
  2. Lumley v. Gye
  3. Mellor v. Shaw
  4. Pasley v. Freeman.

Answer: (b)

89. Which of the following is not defamation in Indian law?

  1. Libel
  2. Slander
  3. An imputation which indirectly affects a person’s reputation
  4. Battery.

Answer: (d)

90. An act ultra vires to the memorandum of association:

  1. May be ratified by the company
  2. Cannot be ratified by the company
  3. Can be ratified by the company with 2/3 majority
  4. Can be ratified by the simple majority.

Answer: (b)

“Questions 91-95 are based on the excerpt/passage given below: “Conclusion and Recommendations: The preceding chapters highlight that acid attacks are an increasing phenomenon in India. However, since no special section in the Indian Penal Code deals with acid attacks, the incidents are not even recorded separately. Section 326 of the I.P.C, which deals with causing grievous hurt by throwing of a corrosive substance etc. is insufficient/ inadequate to deal with the issue. Firstly, the definition of grievous hurt is not broad enough to cover the various kinds of injuries which are inflicted during acid attacks. Secondly, the section does not cover the act of administering acid. Thirdly, the section gives a wide discretion to the courts as far as punishment is concerned. The cases on acid attacks in India show that normally inadequate punishment is awarded in these cases. Fourthly, the section in the I.P.C does not punish the intentional act of throwing of acid if no injuries occur. Lastly, the section also does not specify who the fine should be awarded to.” (Source: Law commission of India report on “The Inclusion of Acid Attacks as Specific Offences in the Indian Penal Code and a law for Compensation for Victims of Crime”) 91. Which of the following Law Commission report deals with “The Inclusion of Acid Attacks as Specific Offences in the Indian Penal Code and a law for Compensation for Victims of Crime”?

  1. 226th
  2. 227th
  3. 228th
  4. 229th.

Answer: (a)

92. In which case, Law commission was arrayed as respondent which lead to the submission of the abovementioned report?

  1. Laxmi v. UOI
  2. Anuradha Bhasin v. UOI
  3. Shreya Singhal v. UOI
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

93. Which of the following sections deals with “hurting with acid attacks”?

  1. 326A
  2. 322A
  3. 321A
  4. 319A.

Answer: (a)

94. Which of the following sections make “throwing acid or attempting acid attack” punishable?

  1. 326B
  2. 322B
  3. 321B
  4. 319B.

Answer: (a)

95. Criminal Injuries Compensation Board can be setup to compensate such acid attack victims under:

  1. Article 37 of Constitution
  2. Article 38 of Constitution
  3. Article 40 of Constitution
  4. Article 43 of Constitution.

Answer: (b)

“Questions 96-100 are based on the excerpt/passage given below: 96. “Aggrieved by the same, the Petitioners approached this Court under Article 32 of the Constitution seeking issuance of an appropriate writ for setting aside or quashing any and all order(s), notification(s), direction(s) and/or circular(s) issued by the Respondents under which any/all modes of communication including internet, mobile and fixed line telecommunication services have been shut down or suspended or in any way made inaccessible or unavailable in any locality. Further, the Petitioners sought the issuance of an appropriate writ or direction directing Respondents to immediately restore all modes of communication including mobile, internet and landline services throughout Jammu and Kashmir in order to provide an enabling environment for the media to practice its profession.” The above excerpt has been taken from which of the following judgments?”

  1. Anuradha Bhasin v Union of India
  2. Prathvi Raj Chouhan v. Union of India
  3. Hira Singh & Anr v. Union of India & Anr
  4. Amit Sahni v Union of India.

Answer: (a)

97. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, can the fundamental rights of the members of the Armed Forces be specifically restricted?

  1. Article 33
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 21
  4. Article 25.

Answer: (a)

98. Articles 19(1)(f) and 31 were deleted and Article 300-A was inserted by the following Constitutional Amendment Act?

  1. 25th
  2. 44th
  3. 38th
  4. 42nd.

Answer: (b)

99. Which of the Fundamental Rights was recently included as per the 86th Amendment of the Constitution?

  1. Right to Constitutional Remedies
  2. Right to free and compulsory education for all children in the 6-14 age group
  3. Right to Equality
  4. Right to freedom of religion.

Answer: (b)

100. The doctrine of prospective overruling in relation to the powers of the Parliament to amend the Fundamental Rights guaranteed by the Constitution was applied in?

  1. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
  2. Maneka Gandhi v. UOI
  3. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
  4. Golaknath v. State of Punjab.

Answer: (d)

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  1. Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary and Entrance Exams
  2. Legal Bites Academy – Ultimate Test Prep Destination
Updated On 2021-11-02T05:46:32+05:30
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