UGC NET Mock Test 2 PAPER 2 | UGC NET Mock Test Solved Papers PDF

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UGC NET Law Test Series Mock Tests

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Find UGC NET MOCK TEST 2 PAPER 2 on Legal Bites. UGC NET (National Eligibility Test) is conducted on behalf of the University Grants Commission (UGC) for determining the eligibility of Indian nationals for the Eligibility of Assistant Professorship, Junior Research Fellowship or both, for Indian Universities and Colleges. Practice the UGC NET MOCK TEST to reflect on your preparation and increase your knowledge with the correct information. Practice makes a man perfect and thus, solving the past year paper will provide you with an edge over your competitors. Click Here for Online Mock Tests and Solve Live.

This will allow you to grasp different concepts and assist you in developing a framework and strategy of preparation. The scores will further provide you with an analysis of your weaknesses and strengths. Attempting the paper will familiarize you with the pattern, structure and difficulty of the paper and help you ace your exams.

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UGC NET MOCK TEST 2 PAPER 2 | Click Here to Download PDF

UGC NET MOCK TEST 2 PAPER 2

No. of questions- 100
Maximum Marks – 200
Timing – 03 Hours (Paper 1 & 2)

1. Match List I (Articles) with List-II (Powers) and select the correct codes:

List I                                                                

  1. Article 129
  2. Article 131
  3. Article 132
  4. Article 136

List II

  1. Original Jurisdiction
  2. Appellate Jurisdiction
  3. Appeal by special leave
  4. Powers of Court of record
  1. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
  2. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
  3. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
  4. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1.

Answer: (b)

2. Who has written the book “De Jure Belli ac Pacis”?

  1. Pufendorf
  2. Grotius
  3. Cecil Hurst
  4. Lauterpacht.

Answer: (b)

3. Which school of jurisprudence is called “left wing of functional school”?

  1. Sociological school
  2. Analytical school
  3. Realist school
  4. Philosophical school.

Answer: (c)

4. According to “declaratory theory” of jurisprudence the judges only declare the law and do not make any law. The supporters of this theory were:

  1. Bacon and Dicey
  2. Gray and Salmond
  3. Coke and Blackstone
  4. Duguit and Pound.

Answer: (d)

5. Keeton has classified law into:

  1. Binding source of law
  2. Formal source of law
  3. Persuasive source of law
  4. (a) and (c) only.

Answer: (d)

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6. Fiction theory is related to which of the following concepts?

  1. Ownership
  2. Liability
  3. Justice
  4. Legal personality.

Answer: (a)

7. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes below: List I (Jurists)                                     

  1. Kelsen
  2. Savigny
  3. Rawls
  4. Maine

List II (Book/School/Theory of Jurisprudence)

  1. Ancient Law (book)
  2. Pure theory
  3. Sociological School
  4. Historical School
  1. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
  2. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
  3. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
  4. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2.

Answer: (a)

8. Collective responsibility of the Cabinet was introduced in India by the:

  1. Government of India Act, 1935
  2. Minto Morley Reforms
  3. Independence Act, 1947
  4. Constitution of India.

Answer: (d)

9. Which of the following statements is/are True?

  1. Disputes related to election of a President are decided by the Supreme Court
  2. Disputes related to vacancy in the electoral college are settled by the Election Commission
  3. In case the election of a President is declared void by the Supreme Court, the acts performed by a President before the data of such decision of the court get invalidated
  4. President orders elections to the Parliament when its term is over.

Answer: (a)

10. Which of the following is not an essential qualification for appointment as a Governor?

  1. He should be a citizen of India
  2. He should be a domicile of the State to which he is being appointed
  3. He must have completed the age of 35 years
  4. He must not be a member of either House of Parliament.

Answer: (b)

11. A resolution passed by the Council of States under Article 249 empowering Parliament to legislate on State subjects in national interest remains in force for a period:

  1. Not exceeding six months
  2. Not exceeding two years
  3. Not exceeding one year
  4. Of unlimited time.

Answer: (c)

12. In which landmark case did the court prohibit delegation of ‘unrestrained, uncannalised and unqualified legislative power’?

  1. D.C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar
  2. In re Delhi Laws Act
  3. Hussainara Khatoon v. Home Sec. Bihar
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

13. A decision of the International Court of Justice has a binding effect on:

  1. parties alone in that particular case
  2. The states in similar situation
  3. National courts in similar circumstances
  4. All the states.

Answer: (a)

14. The declaratory theory of recognition is also known as:

  1. Constitutive theory
  2. Facultative theory
  3. Evidentiary theory
  4. Natural theory.

Answer: (c)

15. The European Commission of Human Rights was abolished by:

  1. Protocol no. 11
  2. Protocol no. 10
  3. Protocol no. 9
  4. Protocol no. 8.

Answer: (a)

16. “Find out the incorrect match:

  1. Temple of Preah Vihear case – Cambodia v. Thailand
  2. Island of Palmas case – Netherlands v. Spain
  3. Corfu Channel case- Great Britain v. Albania
  4. Asylum case- Columbia v. Peru “
  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 4
  3. Only 3
  4. Only 2.

Answer: (d)

17. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer by using codes: List I                                                          

  1. Estrada Doctrine
  2. Retroactivity Doctrine
  3. Stimson Doctrine

List II   

  1. Relates to non recognition
  2. Recognition validates the acts of a government from the date of its inception
  3. Relates to establishment of diplomatic relations on change of government through revolution
  1. A-1, B-2, C-3
  2. A-3, B-2, C-1
  3. A-3, B-1, C-2
  4. A-1, B-3, C-2.

Answer: (b)

18. Intending to kill ‘A’ instead killed B whom he had no intention to kill. Under which doctrine is he liable?

  1. Doctrine of transfer of malice
  2. Doctrine of extended malice
  3. Doctrine of mens rea
  4. Doctrine of ​​ diminished responsibility.

Answer: (a)

19. A asks his servant to beat B. The servant did so. A is guilty of:

  1. Criminal Conspiracy
  2. Criminal assault
  3. Abetment by instigation
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

20. De minimis non curat lex means:

  1. Law take account of every trifling matter
  2. Law cares every comfort of party
  3. Law does not take account of trifling matter
  4. Discomfort is test of nuisance.

Answer: (c)

21. What is the maximum period for which a court award punishment of solitary confinement?

  1. One month
  2. Two months
  3. Three months
  4. No limit.

Answer: (c)

22. Procedure established by law’, the terminology is taken from the Constitution of which country?

  1. America
  2. Japan
  3. Canada
  4. Australia.

Answer: (b)

23. For how many years Law Commission is constituted?

  1. 2 years
  2. 3 years
  3. 4 years
  4. 5 years.

Answer: (b)

24. At ‘Zero Hour’ parliament members can:

  1. Seek a vote of no confidence motion
  2. Ask questions on any subject without prior notice
  3. Ask questions with prior notice on the given subject
  4. Vote on finance bills.

Answer: (c)

25. Which amendment of the constitution added Administrative Tribunals?

  1. 42nd Amendment Act
  2. 49nd Amendment Act
  3. 46nd Amendment Act
  4. 44nd Amendment Act.

Answer: (a)

26. Right to establish and administer educational institutions is guaranteed to the minorities based on:

  1. Language
  2. Religion
  3. Religion or language
  4. Religion and language.

Answer: (c)

27. Which one of the following is not an essential condition for the appointment of a Judge of Supreme Court in India?

  1. A citizen of India, who has been for at least 5 years a Judge of High Court
  2. A citizen of India, who has been for at least 2 years a Chief Justice of High Court
  3. A citizen of India, who has been for at least 10 years an advocate of High Court
  4. A citizen of India, who is in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist.

Answer: (b)

28. Match List-I with List-II and find correct answer by using codes given below: List-I                                                                                      (a) Dastane v. Dastane (b) Iqbal Bano v. State of U.P (c) Lily Thomas v. Union of India (d) Harvinder Kaur v. Harmandar Singh List-II        (i) Bigamy (ii) Restitution of Conjugal Right (iii) Maintenance (iv) Mental Cruelty

  1. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
  2. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
  3. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
  4. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv).

Answer: (a)

29. Which of the following pair/pairs is/are not correctly matched? Give the correct answer by using the codes given below: I. The World Conference on Human Rights was held at Vienna – Year 1993 ii. International Conference on Human Rights at Tehran was held in – Year 1958 iii. First World Conference on Women was held on Beijing in – Year 1985 iv. International Convention on Elimination of all forms of Racial Discrimination – Year 1973

  1. Only ii
  2. i and ii
  3. ii, iii and iv
  4. i, ii, iii and iv.

Answer: (c)

30. Consider the following statements about CITES (Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species): 1. CITES is an intergovernmental organisation, restricting international trade of endangered fauna and flora. 2. CITES was drafted of a resolution adopted at general conference of UNESCO. 3. CITES is legally binding on the states ratifying the agreement. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Only 1
  2. Only 2 & 3
  3. Only 1 & 3
  4. 1,2 & 3.

Answer: (c)

31. The right of passage case was decided by:

  1. Permanent Court of International Justice
  2. UN Administrative Tribunal
  3. International Tribunal of Arbitration
  4. International Court of Justice.

Answer: (d)

32. The admission of a new political entity into the UN can be termed as:

  1. Express recognition
  2. Conditional recognition
  3. De facto recognition
  4. Collective recognition.

Answer: (d)

33. Which one of the following is not a specialised agency of UN?

  1. Universal Postal Union
  2. United Nations Children Fund
  3. International Civil Aviation Organisation
  4. International Financial Corporation.

Answer: (d)

34. Which of the following statements is/are not correct?

  1. State succession may occur in the form of universal and partial succession
  2. A successor state is a state which has replaced another state
  3. A predecessor state is a state which has been replaced by another state
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (d)

35. The doctrine of Volenti non fit injuria is related with which section of Indian Penal Code?

  1. Section 84
  2. Section 85
  3. Section 86
  4. Section 87.

Answer: (d)

36. Actus reus’ includes:

  1. Positive (intentional doing) as well as negative (intentional non-doing, i.e. omission) acts
  2. Only positive acts
  3. External (bodily) as well as internal (mind) acts
  4. Both (a) and (c).

Answer: (d)

37. In which of the following cases, the Supreme Court described Indian Constitution as “not truly Federal”?

  1. The State of West Bengal v. Union of India
  2. State of Bihar v. Shailbala Devi
  3. Kameshwar Singh v. State of Bihar
  4. O.K. Ghose v. E.X. Joseph.

Answer: (a)

38. Judicial Review in Indian Constitution is based on:

  1. Precedents
  2. Due process of law
  3. Rule of law
  4. Procedure established by law.

Answer: (d)

39. A law made by Parliament having extra territorial operation shall:

  1. Be deemed invalid
  2. Not be deemed invalid
  3. Be deemed unconstitutional
  4. Be deemed ultra vires.

Answer: (b)

40. A law abridging fundamental rights is not a nullity. It only remains inoperative till the shadow of fundamental rights falls over it. This doctrine is known as:

  1. Doctrine of pith and substance
  2. Doctrine of eclipse
  3. Doctrine of severability
  4. Doctrine of pleasure.

Answer: (b)

41. Which of the following duties have been prescribed for the citizens?

  1. To develop scientific temper.
  2. To preserve rich heritage of our composite culture.
  3. To organize village panchayats.
  4. To minimize inequalities in income.
  5. To secure a uniform civil code.
  6. To defend the country.
  1. 1, 3 and 4
  2. 3, 4 and 5
  3. 1, 2 and 6
  4. 2, 5 and 6.

Answer: (c)

42. The aim of law should be greatest good of the greatest number of people said by:

  1. Savigny
  2. Puchta
  3. Maine
  4. Bentham.

Answer: (d)

43. Positive law is called positive because:

  1. It is made as a result of divine providence
  2. It is made as result of collective effort
  3. It is made by a person in authority
  4. It is followed by everybody.

Answer: (c)

44. Kelsen’s legal theory is also known as:

  1. Pure theory of law
  2. Scientific theory of law
  3. General theory of law
  4. Concept of law.

Answer: (a)

45. According to Austin, sanction is:

  1. The permission to do an act
  2. The evil consequence of disobeying the command of the sovereign
  3. A right granted by law
  4. A power to inflict punishment.

Answer: (b)

46. The prescribed period of limitation for preferring an appeal under Section 28 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is:

  1. 30 days
  2. 45 days
  3. 60 days
  4. 90 days.

Answer: (d)

47. Which of these is a landmark judgment on Tribunals and their position in hierarchy of courts?

  1. L Chandra Kumar v. Union of India
  2. A K Kraipak v. Union of India
  3. A K Gopalan v. Union of India
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

48. When the court finds that the order is suffering from exercise in excess of jurisdiction by a subordinate court, which of the following writs can be issued?

  1. Writ of Habeas Corpus
  2. Writ of Mandamus
  3. Writ of Certiorari
  4. Writ of Quo Warranto.

Answer: (c)

49. Section 2 of the Dissolution of Muslim Marriages Act, 1939 makes available the following grounds of divorce to a wife: I. Seven years or upward imprisonment to the husband. II. Continued impotence of the husband. III. Insanity of the husband for the last one year. IV. Four years absence of the husband.

  1. I, II and IV are correct, but III is incorrect
  2. II, III and IV are correct, but I is incorrect
  3. I, II, III and IV are correct
  4. III is correct, but I, II and IV are incorrect.

Answer: (a)

50. The word “international law” was used for the first time by:

  1. Austin in 1780
  2. Oppenheim in 1789
  3. Bentham in 1780
  4. Bentham in 1789.

Answer: (c)

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51. How many sources have been provided by article 38 of Statute of ICJ?

  1. Three main, two subsidiary
  2. Three main, three subsidiary
  3. Four main, two subsidiary
  4. Two main, two subsidiary.

Answer: (a)

52. Who concluded that “International Law is only positive international morality and not a true law”?

  1. Bentham
  2. Austin
  3. Hobbes
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (b)

53. Essential requirements of Muslim marriage are:

  1. Ijab
  2. Qabul
  3. Both ijab and qabul
  4. Either ijab or qabul.

Answer: (c)

54. A marriage entered into by a girl while she has not attained puberty under Muslim law is a:

  1. Valid marriage
  2. Void marriage
  3. Voidable marriage
  4. Either (a) or (c).

Answer: (c)

55. When two persons are the descendents of a common ancestor but by different wives, they are said to be related to each other by:

  1. Half blood
  2. Full blood
  3. Uterine blood
  4. Either (b) or (c).

Answer: (a)

56. ‘Sapinda relationship’ has been defined under:

  1. Section 3(b) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
  2. Section 3(d) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
  3. Section 3(f) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955
  4. Section 3(g) of Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.

Answer: (c)

57. Khyar-ul-Bulugh, in Muslim law is:

  1. Imprecation unchastity
  2. Option of puberty
  3. A form of dower
  4. Maintenance amount payable to Muslim wife.

Answer: (b)

58. Which one of the following will amount to criminal conspiracy?

  1. Two or more persons agreed to commit a criminal act in furtherance of their common intention.
  2. Intention of each of the accused persons is known to rest of them and is shared.
  3. Unity of criminal behaviour actuated by common consent.
  4. Agreement to commit an offence even if no step is taken to carry out that agreement.
  1. 1, 2 and 4
  2. 1 and 4
  3. 1 and 3
  4. Only 4.

Answer: (d)

59. Under Motor Vehicle Act, ‘power of court to disqualify’ is given under:

  1. Section 19
  2. Section 20
  3. Section 21
  4. Section 22.

Answer: (b)

60. Whether the defendant is liable when the plaintiff has suffered nervous shock and fell seriously ill after hearing a fake news said by the defendant?

  1. Yes, definitely he is to be held liable
  2. Not liable at all
  3. The defendant is only partially liable
  4. The liability lies equally on the plaintiff and the defendant.

Answer: (a)

61. A case of _______ negligence is different from one of professional negligence.

  1. Latent
  2. Patent
  3. Occupational
  4. Latter.

Answer: (c)

62. False imprisonment/malicious prosecution is not a prima facie tort.

  1. Correct
  2. Incorrect
  3. False imprisonment does fall in category of a tort
  4. Depends on the facts of each case.

Answer: (b)

63. The natural guardian of a minor Hindu boy is:

  1. Only mother
  2. Only father
  3. Grandfather
  4. Father and Mother both.

Answer: (d)

64. A partition can be re-opened at the instance of:

  1. An absentee coparcener to whom no share has been alloted
  2. A disqualified coparcener who recovers from his disqualification after the partition
  3. Either (a) or (b)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

65. Failing the mother, which of the following has first priority to have the custody of a muslim child:

  1. Mothers’ mother
  2. Father’s mother
  3. Sister
  4. Maternal aunt.

Answer: (a)

66. Under Islamic law, conditional or contingent gifts are:

  1. Valid
  2. Voidable
  3. Void
  4. Irregular.

Answer: (c)

67. The constitutional validity of Section 9 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 was tested in:

  1. Saroj Rani v. Sudarshan, AIR 1984 SC 1562
  2. Shakuntalabai v. Kulkarni, AIR 1989 SC 1309
  3. Sureshtha Devi v. Om Prakash, AIR 1992 SC 1904
  4. Nanda v. Veena Nanda, AIR 1988 SC 407.

Answer: (a)

68. Section 2(1) of Sale of Goods Act defines ‘buyer’ as:

  1. Person who buys goods and services
  2. Person who agrees to buy goods
  3. Person who buys or agrees to buy goods
  4. Person who buys or agrees to buy goods and services.

Answer: (c)

69. Mark the incorrect statement:

  1. A Shia male/female may contract a valid marriage with Sunni female/male
  2. In Shia Law, at the time of marriage, the witnesses are not necessary
  3. Two witnesses are mandatory for Sunnis at the time of marriage
  4. Where consent to the marriage has not been obtained, consummation even against the will of the women will validate the marriage.

Answer: (d)

70. Intentional insult and provocation to a person with intent to provoke a breach of the public peace, or to cause the commission of any offence by that person is punishable under:

  1. Section 504 Indian Penal Code
  2. Section 507 Indian Penal Code
  3. Section 506 Indian Penal Code
  4. Section 505 Indian Penal Code.

Answer: (a)

71. Doctrine of mens rea is NOT attracted to which of the following categories of offences?

  1. Relating to fraud
  2. Relating to bodily injury
  3. Relating to offence against state
  4. Strict liability.

Answer: (d)

72. When a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of the common intention of all:

  1. Each of such person is liable for that act in the same manner as if it were done by him alone
  2. Each of such person is liable for his own overt act
  3. Each of such person shall be liable according to the extent of his participation in the crime
  4. Both (b) and (c).

Answer: (a)

73. Read Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and answer the reasonableness using the ‘code’ given below: Assertion(A): Section 304-A is directed at offences outside the range of Sections 299 and 300. Reason(R): It contemplates those acts into which neither intention nor knowledge enters.

  1. Both (A) and (R) are correct as the act results from rash and negligence act
  2. (A) is correct as certain acts are unjustifiable while (R) is not the correct reason as it falls short of culpable homicide
  3. (R) is correct while (A) is incorrect application to the rule of culpable homicide to cause murder
  4. Both (A) and (R) are incorrect statement as to imposing penalty.

Answer: (a)

74. Match the following in List I and List II: List I                                                                 

  1. Kehar Singh v. Delhi Administration
  2. Nawab Ali v. State of UP
  3. Vishwanath v. State of UP
  4. Mahbub Shah v. Emperor

List II     

  1. Right of Private Defence
  2. Criminal Conspiracy
  3. Common Intention
  4. Common object
  1. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
  2. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
  3. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
  4. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2.

Answer: (c)

75. What are the limits of number of members in a Private Company?

  1. 50
  2. 7
  3. 100
  4. 200.

Answer: (d)

76. Under section 9(3) of Trademarks Act, the registration will be refused if the shape is:

  1. Ornamental
  2. Functional
  3. Natural
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

77. A change of nature of obligation of a contract is known as:

  1. Novation
  2. Rescission
  3. Alteration
  4. Repudiation.

Answer: (a)

78. Which of the following is not a case on frustration of contract:

  1. Satyabrata Ghose v. Mugneeram
  2. Krell v. Henry
  3. Taylor v. Caldwell
  4. Jamal v. Moolla Dawood &sons & co.

Answer: (d)

79. Where there are two courts which would normally have the jurisdiction, an agreement to file a suit in one of those courts alone, is:

  1. Void
  2. Voidable
  3. Valid
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

80. Ex turpi causa non oritur actio means:

  1. From an illegal cause, no action arises
  2. From an Illegal cause, action may arise
  3. From a legal cause, action may arise
  4. From a legal cause, action may not arise.

Answer: (a)

81. The decision in Mohori Bibee v. Dharmodas Ghose case was related to:

  1. Offer and its communication
  2. Acceptance and its communication
  3. Undue influence
  4. Capacity of a minor to enter into a contract.

Answer: (d)

82. A resolution passed by a majority of the partners that their partnership should be dissolved, is not:

  1. A notice of dissolution of the firm within the meaning of Section 43, Indian Partnership Act
  2. An agreement to dissolve the firm under Section 40 of the Act
  3. A record of deliberations arrived at by a majority of votes
  4. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: (d)

83. Which of the following is not defined under Trade Marks Act, 1999?

  1. Registered Trademark
  2. Distinctive character
  3. Deceptively similar
  4. Registered user.

Answer: (b)

84. In which of the following cases, was it held that hurt to religious sentiments is no actionable wrong?

  1. Campbell v. Paddington Corporation
  2. Shanmugavel Chettiar v. Sri Ramkumar Ginning Firm
  3. Ushaben v. Bhagyalaxmi Chitra Mandir
  4. Radhey Shyam v. Gur Prasad.

Answer: (c)

85. In the famous case of Haynes v. Harwood the court held that the doctrine of Volenti non fit injuria will not apply in:

  1. Rescue cases
  2. When there is negligence
  3. When there is no harm
  4. None of these.

Answer: (a)

86. A complaint under Consumer Protection Act, may pertain to:

  1. Defects in the goods bought
  2. Unfair trade practices
  3. Deficiency in services
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

87. Under Consumer Protection Act, jurisdiction of the District Forum shall not exceed:

  1. 20 Lakh
  2. 10 Lakh
  3. 25 Lakh
  4. 1 Lakh.

Answer: (a)

88. The Central consumer Protection Council shall consists of:

  1. Chairperson and ten other members
  2. Chairperson and five other members
  3. Chairperson and such other members as may be prescribed
  4. Either (a) or (c).

Answer: (c)

89. Which of the following is true about ‘inchoate instruments’?

  1. It is an ambiguous instrument
  2. It is an incomplete or blank negotiable instrument
  3. It is not a negotiable instrument
  4. It is a documentary bill.

Answer: (b)

90. When did the Central Pollution Control Board established?

  1. 1972
  2. 1978
  3. 1974
  4. 1982.

Answer: (c)

91. Powers to give directions under section 5 of Environmental Protection Act, 1986, include:

  1. Regulation of industry
  2. Closure of industry
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

92. Who is famously known as the ‘Green Judge’?

  1. Justice V R Krishna Iyer
  2. Justice P N Bhagwati
  3. Justice Kuldip Singh
  4. Justice B N Kirpal.

Answer: (c)

93. NGT has banned kite strings made of which material?

  1. Nylon
  2. Plastic
  3. Synthetic
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

94. Apart from copyright, the author of a work can also claim:

  1. Paternity right
  2. Integrity right
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (c)

95. Which is a mode of transfer of ownership of copyright?

  1. Assignment
  2. Licencing
  3. Testamentary disposition
  4. All of the above.

Answer: (d)

96. Under section 43A of Information Technology Act, corporate body is liable to pay compensation to person affected by:

  1. Negligence
  2. Intentional wrongful conduct
  3. Knowledge
  4. None of the above.

Answer: (a)

97. Establishment of Competition Commission of India is dealt under which provision of Competition Act, 2002?

  1. Section 5
  2. Section 6
  3. Section 7
  4. Section 9.

Answer: (c)

98. The Union government strengthened its top legal team by extending the term of K.K. Venugopal as the Attorney General (AG) for one year, Tushar Mehta as the Solicitor General (SG) for three years and appointing six new Additional Solicitors General (ASGs) besides extending the tenure of five existing ASGs. While the AG was re-appointed by President Ram Nath Kovind, the other appointments were notified by the Law Ministry late on Monday after the Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC), headed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, cleared them. Which of the following is/are correct with regard to the office of Attorney General of India?

  1. He is a member of the Cabinet
  2. He can speak in either House of Parliament and vote on any issue
  3. He must be qualified to become a Judge of the Supreme Court
  4. His remuneration is fixed by Parliament.

Answer: (c)

99. The Attorney General of India holds office during the pleasure of the:

  1. President
  2. Prime Minister
  3. Parliament
  4. Chief Justice.

Answer: (a)

100. Which of the following are true regarding the Attorney General of India?

  1. He is the first Law Officer of the Government of India
  2. He has the right to audience in all Courts in India
  3. He has the right to speak and vote in the Houses of Parliament or any Parliamentary Committee
  4. Both (a) and (b).

Answer: (d)

UGC NET MOCK TEST 2 PAPER 2 | Click Here to Download PDF


  1. Law Library: Notes and Study Material for LLB, LLM, Judiciary and Entrance Exams
  2. Legal Bites Academy – Ultimate Test Prep Destination
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