UGC NET Paper June 2019 (Law) Solved Paper | UGC NET Entrance Solved Papers PDF

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UGC NET QUESTION PAPER JUNE 2019 (LAW)| Click Here to Download PDF

UGC NET Paper (Law)

JUNE 2019

Number of questions- 100

Marks- 200

1. Test of control deals with:

1. master and servant relationship
2. measures of damages
3. course of employment
4. implied authority.

Answer: (a)

2. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that “the audi alteram partem rule, in essence enforces the equality clause in Article 14 and it is applicable not only to quasi-judicial bodies but also to administrative order adversely affecting the party in question?”

1. P. Warehousing Corporation v. Vijay Narain
2. Delhi Transport Corporation v. DTC Mazdoor Union
3. K. Gopalan v. State of Madras
4. Gullapalli Nageshwar Rao v. APSRTC.

Answer: (b)

3. The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a court of law:

1. when the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum return for his promise
2. when the promisor performs his promise
3. when fraud, coercion or undue influence in the formation of the contract is pleaded
4. always at the discretion of the court.

Answer: (c)

4. The Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) committed to provide:

(a) Universal access to affordable, reliable and modem energy services

(b) Improving the share of renewable energy

(c) Doubling of energy efficiency by 2030

(d) Protection of ocean and wetland

Select the correct answer using the options given below:

1. (a), (b) and (c) are true
2. (a), (c) and (d) are true
3. (b), (c) and (d) are true
4. (a), (b) and (d) are true.

Answer: (a)

5. Which of the following statement/statements is/are NOT correct?

(a) The declaration of National Emergency on the ground of ‘Armed Rebellion’ was inserted by the Constitutional (42nd Amendment) Act, 1976.

(b) President shall not issue a proclamation under Clause (1) Article 352 unless the decision of the Union Cabinet (the Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers) is communicated to him in writing.

(c) A resolution approving the proclamation of National Emergency must be passed by special majority.

(d) A proclamation of Emergency once approved by the Parliament shall remain in force until the emergency ceases.

Select the correct answers by using the codes given below:

1. Only (a)
2. (a) and (d) both
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Answer: (b)

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6. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(a) If the other House does not pass an Ordinary Bill and more than six months have passed, the President may summon a Joint Session of both the Houses.

(b) At the Joint Session of two Houses, new amendment can be proposed in the Bill with the permission of the Presiding Officer (Speaker of the Lok Sabha).

(c) The Lower House has exclusive power over Money Bills.

(d) Money and Financial Bills can be only introduced in the Lok Sabha and with prior recommendations of the President.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Only (a)
2. (a), (b) and (c)
3. (a), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Answer: (c)

7. Right to Environment’ discourse includes:

(a) Right to Health

(b) Right to Sanitation

(c) Right to Clean Technology

(d) Right to Free Speech

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. (a), (b) and (c) are true
2. (b), (c) and (d) are true
3. (a), (c) and (d) are true
4. (a) and (b) are true whereas (c) and (d) is false.

Answer: (a)

8. Every offence punishable under Section 147 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 is:

1. compoundable
2. non-compoundable
3. cognizable
4. Both (b) and (c) above.

Answer: (a)

9. UN Commissioner for Human Rights is appointed by:

1. General Assembly
2. Security Council
3. Secretary General
4. Human Rights Council.

Answer: (c)

10. Which of the following is correct?

1. Administrative Law is branch of Public Law and is only a part of Constitutional Law. It cannot control the Constitutional Law
2. Administrative Law is a branch of Private Law
3. Administrative Law is independent of the Constitutional Law
4. Administrative Law is neither the branch of Public Law nor of Private Law but a part of Constitutional Law.

Answer: (a)

11. Who among the following has defined jurisprudence as ‘the knowledge of things divine and human, the science of right and wrong’?

1. Blackstone
2. Hobbes
3. Salmond
4. Ulpian.

Answer: (d)

12. ‘We have to evolve new principles and lay down new norms which will adequately deal with new problems which arise in a highly industrialised society’ was laid down in:

1. Common Cause v. Union of India
2. C. Mehta v. Union of India
3. Invercargill City Council v. Hamlin
4. Union of India v. Sat Pal Dharam Vir.

Answer: (b)

13. In which of the following case, it was held that if a person is not a citizen of any state, he will be called ‘stateless’?

1. Nottebohm’s Case
2. Whicker v. Hume
3. Winans v. A.G.
4. Stoke v. The Public Trustee.

Answer: (d)

14. The communication of an acceptance is complete as against the proposer:

1. when it is posted to him
2. when it comes to the knowledge of the proposer
3. when the letter containing acceptance is received by the proposer
4. when it is put in the course of transmission, so as to be out of the acceptor’s power.

Answer: (d)

15. The principle ‘Restitution stops where repayment begins’ can be applied against:

1. an alien enemy only
2. minors only
3. lunatics and idiots only
4. an incapable person.

Answer: (b)

16. In which section of the Partnership Act it is laid down that there can be a partnership in a single or particular business venture?

1. Section 8
2. Section 9
3. Section 10
4. Section 11.

Answer: (a)

17. Possession through an agent or servant is an example of:

1. corporeal possession
2. incorporeal possession
3. mediate possession
4. immediate possession.

Answer: (c)

18. ‘Cyber security’ according to the IT Act, 2000 means:

1. a device and collection of devices, including input and output support devices and excluding calculations which are not programmable and capable of being used
2. any electronic, magnetic, optical or other high speed data processing device or system which performs logical, arithmetic and memory functions by manipulation of electronic, magnetic or optical impulse
3. protecting information, equipment, devices, computer, computer resource, communication device and information stored therein from unauthorised access, use, disclosure, disruption, modification or destruction
4. affixing with its grammatical variations and cognate expressions means adoption of any methodology or procedure by a person for the purpose of authenticating an electronic record.

Answer: (c)

19. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

(a) Date and year of establishment of United Nations

(b) The first Security Council came into being

(c) Paris Declaration on Sanctions against South Africa

(d) Mr. Boutros Ghali took over as Secretary General of the UN

List-II

(i) 2 May, 1981

(ii) 1 January, 1992

(iii) 12 January, 1946

(iv) 24 October, 1945

Choose the correct options from those given below:

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii).

Answer: (d)

20. Which of the following is not the School of Muslim Law?

1. Hanafi
2. Maliki
3. Hanbali
4. Zaida.

Answer: (d)

21. ‘Public health, sanitation conservancy and solid waste management’ is inserted to the Schedule of the Constitution by which of the following Constitutional Amendments?

1. 42nd Constitutional Amendment
2. 44th Constitutional Amendment
3. 73rd Constitutional Amendment
4. 74th Constitutional Amendment.

Answer: (d)

22. In which of the cases did Supreme Court hold that a relationship in the nature of marriage under the Domestic Violence Act, 2005 must also fulfill some basic criteria, merely spending weekends together or one night would not make it a domestic relationship?

1. Payal Katara v. Supt. Nari Niketan and other
2. Velusamy v. D. Patchaiammal
3. Bharati Matha and others v. R. Vijaya Ranganathan and others
4. Khushboo v. Kanniammal and others.

Answer: (b)

23. Dower may be regarded as consideration for connubial intercourse by way of analogy to the contract for sale. The above observation has been made in which of the following cases?

1. Abdul Kadir v. Salma
2. Zobair Ahmed v. Jainandan Prasad
3. Rahana Khattun v. Iqtidar-uddin
4. Hamidunissa Bibi v. Zaheer Sheik.

Answer: (a)

24. The Doctrine of Separation of Powers in its strict and technical sense is applied in:

1. India
2. U.K.
3. U.S.A.
4. France.

Answer: (c)

25. The Cyber Regulation Appellate Tribunal Rule, 2000 has been passed under which section of the IT Act, 2000?

1. Section 84
2. Section 85
3. Section 86
4. Section 87.

Answer: (d)

26. Match List-I with List-II

List-I

(a) Bentham

(b) Puchta

(c) Herbert Spencer

(d) Gray

List-II

(i) Historical School

(ii) Sociological School

(iii) Analytical School

(iv) The Realist School

Choose the correct options from those given below:

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii).

Answer: (a)

27. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court said that Governor cannot exercise his power of suspension of the sentence under Article 213 of the Constitution of India, for the period when the Supreme Court is seized of the case. The order of the Governor could only operate until the matter became sub-judice in the Supreme Court and it becomes so on the filing of the petition for special leave to appeal?

1. Satpal Dang v. State of Punjab
2. C. Wadhwa v. State of Bihar
3. M. Nanavati v. State of Bombay
4. K. Roy v. Union of India.

Answer: (c)

28. Super Cassettes Industries Ltd. v. Myspace Inc. 2011 is a leading case on the Copyright Act, 1957 dealing with which section of the Act?

1. Section 14
2. Section 22
3. Section 30
4. Section 51.

Answer: (d)

29. The remedies for the violation of Sections 3 and 4 of the Competition Act have been laid down under:

1. Section 26
2. Section 27
3. Section 42A
4. Section 43A.

Answer: (b)

30. The accused at the time of committing the act because of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing:

(a) the nature of the act

(b) that the act is wrong or contrary to law

(c) that the act is unethical and wrong

(d) that the act is morally wrong but not contrary to law

To claim the benefit of Section 84 of IPC which of the above needs to be proved? Give the correct answer:

1. (a) and (d)
2. (a) and (b)
3. (b) and (c)
4. (c) and (d).

Answer: (b)

31. Which of the following is not a constituent of tort?

1. Wrongful act
2. Damage
3. Remedy
4. Mens rea.

Answer: (d)

32. X, with the intention to cause miscarriage administered a drug to a pregnant lady, Y. The child in the womb died. X is guilty of:

1. murder
2. culpable homicide not amounting to murder
3. no offence
4. causing miscarriage.

Answer: (d)

33. Holbeck Hotel Ltd. v. Scarborough Borough Council is a leading case on:

1. negligence
2. nuisance
3. trespass
4. defamation.

Answer: (b)

34. Decision making process of those authorities besides being transparent must result in a reasoned conclusion which is reflective of a due application of mind to the diverse concerns arising from a project such as the present. This has been observed regarding Environment Impact Assessment Law in which of the following cases?

1. Utkarsh Mandal v. Union of India
2. Deepak Kumar v. State of Haryana
3. Gram Panchayat Navlakh Umbre v. Union of India
4. Tehri Bandh Virodhi Sangharsh Samiti v. State of UP.

Answer: (c)

35. Match List-I with List-II

List-I

(a) A right which although, recognised by law, is not enforceable

(b) A person’s right in relation to his property

(c) A person’s right relating to status and that arising out of contract

(d) A right which does not create an immediate interest

List-II

(i) Proprietary Right

(ii) Personal Right

(iii) Imperfect Right

(iv) Contingent Right

Choose the correct options from those given below:

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii).

Answer: (b)

36. Which Article of the Indian Constitution states that ‘the state shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India?’

1. Article 25 of the Constitution
2. Article 37 of the Constitution
3. Article 44 of the Constitution
4. Article 45 of the Constitution.

Answer: (c)

37. Which of the following statement/statements is/are NOT correct?

(a) According to Article 16 of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, ‘Everyone has a right to seek and enjoy in other countries asylum from persecution.’

(b) In 1967, United Nations Declaration on Territorial Asylum was unanimously adopted by the General Assembly.

(c) The Convention on the Status of Refugees, 1951 entered into force on April 24, 1956.

(d) In the Asylum Case (Colombia v. Peru) the International Court of Justice explained the distinction between territorial asylum and diplomatic asylum.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Only (a)
2. (a) and (b)
3. (a) and (c)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Answer: (c)

38. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(a) The operation of the doctrine of forum prorogation has not been envisaged under the UN Charter or the Statute of the International Court of Justice.

(b) The Doctrine of Forum Prorogatum may not operate where the court already has jurisdiction ratione personae.

(c) The Doctrine of the Forum Prorogatum affords an informal way for a state to express consent to the jurisdiction of the court.

(d) The principle underlying doctrine of forum prorogatum was enunciated by the Permanent Court of International Justice in the Island of Palmas Case (1928).

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. Only (a)
2. (a) and (c)
3. (b), (c) and (d)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Answer: (b)

39. ‘A citizen has a fundamental right to use the best means of imparting and receiving information and as such to have an access to telecasting for the purpose’ is the observation of the Supreme Court in:

1. Ministry of Information and Broadcasting, Government of India v. Cricket Association of Bengal (1995)
2. Prabhu Dutt v. Union of India (1982)
3. Dinesh Trivedi v. Union of India (1977)
4. Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust v. Union of India (2014).

Answer: (a)

40. Nobody can be above the institution which is supposed to serve. He is merely the creature of the institution, he can exist only if the institution exists. To protect the individual as mightier than the Constitution would be grave injustice. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court, through Chief Justice Sikri has observed this?

1. S. Dhanoa v. Union of India
2. N. Seshan v. Union of India
3. In Presidential Reference, 2000
4. C. Jose v. Sivan Pillai.

Answer: Question Deleted

41. Under which of the following sections of Code of Civil Procedure (1908) did Indian courts recognise or derecognise the foreign decree of divorce?

1. Section 13
2. Section 12
3. Section 15
4. Section 16.

Answer: (a)

42. Bayer Corporation v. Union of India, 2011 case is dealing on which subject matters?

1. Evergreening of patent
2. Grant and sealing of patent
3. Working of patenting process
4. Surrender and revocation of patent.

Answer: (c)

43. Which one of the following is NOT a principle which is the very foundation of International Humanitarian Law and which must guide emergency humanitarian actions in armed conflicts?

1. Principle of Humanity
2. Principle of Impartiality
3. Principle of Neutrality
4. Principle of Self-determination.

Answer: (d)

44. The institution of ombudsman was firstly initiated in the year 1809 by:

1. France
2. USA
3. UK
4. Sweden.

Answer: (d)

45. Which of the following is a leading case on trespass ab initio?

1. Goldsmith v. Sperring Ltd.
2. Dumbell v. Roberts
3. Bird v. Jones
4. Six carpenters’ case.

Answer: (d)

46. ‘A Statutory Board conducting examinations is not a service provider and does not offer services to candidates while conducting an examination’ was held by the Supreme Court in:

1. Buddhist Mission Dental College and Hospital v. Bhupesh Khurana (2009)
2. Bihar School Examination Board v. Suresh Prasad Sinha (2009)
3. Madan Kumar Singh v. District Magistrate, Sultanpur (2009)
4. UT Chandigarh Administration v. Amarjeet Singh (2009).

Answer: (b)

47. How many core principles are laid down in United Nations Declaration of Permanent Sovereignty over Natural Resources?

1. Five core principles
2. Six core principles
3. Seven core principles
4. Eight core principles.

Answer: (d)

48. If one’s artistic expressions are synonymous with one’s personality, then they are deserving of protection just as much as the physical person. The above observation is true about which theory of intellectual property?

1. Moral desert theory
2. Personality theory
3. Utilitarian theory
4. Libertarian theory.

Answer: (b)

49. Which of the following sections of the Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act, 1956 deals with the ‘rights of adoptive parents to dispose of their properties’?

1. Section 11
2. Section 12
3. Section 13
4. Section 14.

Answer: (b)

50. In which one of the following cases it has been held that Section 9 of Civil Procedure Code, 1973, which enables a civil court to try all suits of civil nature, impliedly confers jurisdiction to apply the law of torts as principles of justice, equity and good conscience?

1. Union Carbide Corporation v. Union of India
2. Gujarat State Road Transport Corporation v. Ramanbhai Prabhatbhai
3. Rohtas Industries Ltd. v. Rohtas Industries Staff Union
4. Waghela Rajsanji v. Shekh Masludin.

Answer: (a)

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51. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I

(a) Fighting by two or more persons in public place

(b) Intentional aiding in commission of an offence

(c) Violence is caused by five or more persons

(d) Offence committed against state by words, signs or visible representation

List-II

(i) Abetment

(ii) Sedition

(iii) Affray

(iv) Riot

Choose the correct options from those given below:

1. (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
2. (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
3. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii).

Answer: (b)

52. ‘Uninsured vehicles are also within the scope of Section 165 of the Motor Vehicles Act’ was held in:

1. LIC of India v. Raj Kumari Mittal (1985)
2. Kamal Kusha v. Kripal Singh (1988)
3. Parmanand Thakur v. Commissioner, Coal Mines (1988)
4. New India Assurance Co. Ltd. v. Nakul Gurung (2010).

Answer: (c)

53. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court said that ‘Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles’ aim at the same goal of bringing about a social revolution and establishment of a Welfare State and they can be interpreted and applied together and they are supplementary and complementary to each other?

1. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
2. In Re Kerala Education Bill
3. Minerva Mills v. Union of India
4. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.

Answer: (d)

54. Which one of the following is NOT correct?

1. Judicial review tends to elevate the judiciary to the rank of super legislature
2. The scope of judicial review is limited as it emphasises on the ‘procedure established by law’ rather than ‘due procedure of law’
3. Judicial review is indispensable to a federal system of government
4. Judicial review does not include judicial competence to review executive enforcement of legislative enactments.

Answer: (d)

55. Read both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion(A): Article 38 of the statute of International Court of Justice lists International Conventions, whether general or particular, establishing rules expressly recognised by the contesting states as the first source of International Law.

Reason(R): In modern period, International Treaties are the most important source of International Law.

Select the correct answer.

1. Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is correct, but (R) is wrong
4. (A) is wrong, but (R) is correct.

Answer: (a)

56. Which of the following is an essential condition in Marz-ul-Maut?

1. A malady which makes it impossible for the patient to move
2. It must be continued for more than a year
3. There must be apprehension of death
4. A malady which causes problem with heart.

Answer: (c)

57. Assertion(A): International Humanitarian Law (IHL) is the law that regulates the conduct of war (jus in bello). It is that branch of International Law which seeks, to limit the efforts of Armed Conflicts by protecting persons who are not participating in hostilities and by restricting and regulating the means and methods of warfare available to combatants.

Reason(R): International Humanitarian Law (IHL) is inspired by considerations of humanity and the mitigation of human sufferings.

Select the correct answer.

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true, but (R) is false
4. (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (a)

58. The Preamble to Agreement on Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) lays down:

(a) public policy objectives of national system

(b) special needs of the least developed countries

(c) resolving IP disputes through multilateral procedures

(d) establishing mutually supportive relationship between WTO and WIPO

Which of the following is/are true?

1. Only (a) is true
2. Only (a) and (b) are true
3. Only (a), (b) and (c) are true
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) are true.

Answer: (d)

59. The NGT Act, 2010 contains how many schedules?

1. One
2. Two
3. Three
4. Four.

Answer: (c)

60. Macleods Pharmaceuticals Ltd. v. Tidal Laboratories Pvt. Lts. (2011) is a case on which subject of intellectual property rights?

1. Patent
2. Trademark
3. Design
4. Geographical indications.

Answer: (b)

61. ‘A legal person is any subject matter other than a human being to which law attributes personality’, is the statement of:

1. Blackstone
2. Salmond
3. Holland
4. Bentham.

Answer: (b)

62. Regulation of Access to Biological Diversity is described under which one of the following Chapters of the Biological Diversity Act, 2002?

1. Chapter I
2. Chapter II
3. Chapter III
4. Chapter IV.

Answer: (b)

63. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court held that ‘the federalism in India, is not a matter of administrative convenience, bit one of principle?

1. S.R. Bommai v. Union of India (1994)
2. Raja Ram Pal v. Hon’ble Speaker, Lok Sabha (2007)
3. Madras Bar Association v. Union of India (2014)
4. State of West Bengal v. Committee for Protection of Democratic Rights, West Bengal (2010).

Answer: (a)

64. In which year the Commission on Status of Women was established by Economic and Social Council?

1. 1946
2. 1947
3. 1948
4. 1949.

Answer: (a)

65. Chandra v. Suresh AIR 1971 Delhi 208 deals with:

1. maintenance
2. custody of children
3. Hindu undivided family
4. decree of judicial separation.

Answer: (d)

66. A servant collected money from the debtor of his master as authorised by him. The servant retained the money because it was due to him as wages. He commits:

1. criminal breach of trust
2. theft
3. no offence
4. criminal misappropriation.

Answer: (a)

67. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court of India strike down Section 303 IPC as unconstitutional?

1. Machhi Singh v. State of Punjab
2. Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
3. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab
4. Mithu Kaur v. State of Punjab.

Answer: (d)

68. The law of every modern state shows at a thousand points the influence of both the accepted social morality and wider moral ideas. These influences enter into law either abruptly and avowedly through legislation, or silently and piecemeal through the judicial process. Who said this?

1. Bentham
2. Gray
3. Hart
4. Korkunov.

Answer: (c)

69. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(a) ‘Hegel’ is one of the chief exponents of the ‘Constitutive Theory’ of recognition.

(b) Civil Air Transport Incorporated Co. v. Central Air Transport Corporation is a leading case on the retrospective effect of recognition.

(c) De jure recognition is not final and can be withdrawn.

(d) In Luther v. Sagar it was held that there is distinction between de facto and de jure recognition for the purpose of giving effect to the internal acts of the recognised authority.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. Only (a) is correct
2. (a), (b) and (c) are correct
3. (a), (b) and (d) are correct
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) all are correct.

Answer: (c)

70. A wife has an implied authority of the husband to buy articles of household necessity:

1. if the wife is living with her husband in a domestic establishment of their own
2. if the wife is living separately
3. if the wife is living with her husband not in a domestic establishment
4. if the wife is provided a reasonable allowance by the husband for the purchase of household needs.

Answer: (a)

71. Sedition means:

1. expressing disapprobation of the measure of the government with a view to obtain their alteration
2. advocacy of boycott of foreign goods as a means of helping Indian industries
3. exciting or attempting to excite hatred towards the government through a writing which remains with the author unpublished
4. bringing or attempting to bring the government into hatred through words, signs or visible representation.

Answer: (d)

72. Which one of the following is NOT an essential of parliamentary form of government?

1. The presence of a nominal executive head of the state who acts exclusively on the advice of cabinet
2. The cabinet, which is the real executive, consists of leaders of a party, who have the support of the majority in the legislature
3. The responsibility of the cabinet is collective
4. The President appoints ministers and assigns to them their offices.

Answer: (d)

73. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with corporate social responsibility?

1. Section 133
2. Section 134
3. Section 135
4. Section 136.

Answer: (c)

74. X with the intention to steal ornaments opened Y’s box and found it empty. Which of the following statements is correct?

1. X is not liable for attempt to commit theft as the box, being empty, commission of theft was impossible
2. X is not liable for attempt to commit theft as he did not do the penultimate act towards commission of theft
3. X is not guilty of attempt to commit theft as the ornaments were not in the box
4. X is guilty of attempt to commit theft as he had an intention to commit theft and did an act toward its commission.

Answer: (d)

75. The Constitution of India incorporates the ‘Rule of Law’ in:

1. Article 14
2. Article 19
3. Article 21
4. Article 32.

Answer: (a)

76. Which Article of the UN Charter puts the promotion of respect for human rights on the same level as the maintenance of international peace and security as a purpose of the UN?

1. Article 1
2. Article 2
3. Article 3
4. Article 4.

Answer: (a)

77. Which of the following Articles of Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 deals with civil and political rights?

1. Articles 1 and 2
2. Articles 3 to 21
3. Articles 22 to 27
4. Articles 28 to 30.

Answer: (b)

78. Read both Assertion(A) and Reason(R) and give the correct answer by using the code given below:

Assertion(A): Under the Indian Constitution, an Amendment Bill passed by both Houses of Parliament by required majority shall be presented to the President who shall give his assent and thereupon the Constitution shall stand amended.

Reason(R): The President is bound to give his assent to the Bill.

Codes:

1. Both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are right, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is right, but (R) is wrong
4. (A) is wrong, but (R) is right.

Answer: (a)

79. Which of the following activities cannot be considered as relating to social responsibility under Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013?

1. Amount spent on activities which only benefit the employees of the company
2. Amount spent to benefit people who are not economically backward
3. Amount spent on activities which only benefit the consumers of the organisation
4. Amount spent on activities which only benefit the suppliers of the organisation.

Answer: Question Deleted

80. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Provisions)

(a) Appointment of judges of Supreme Court

(b) Jurisdiction of Supreme Court as Court of Record

(c) Original jurisdiction

(d) Power of Supreme Court to withdraw and transfer of cases

List-II (Relevant Supreme Court Cases)

(i) In Re Vinay Chandra Mishra

(ii) SC Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India

(iii) A.R. Antulay v. R.S. Nayak

(iv) State of Karnataka v. Union of India

Choose the correct option from those given below:

1. (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
3. (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
4. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv).

Answer: (a)

81. The liability has been defined as ‘the bond of necessity that exists between the wrongdoer and the remedy of the wrong’ by:

1. Austin
2. Bentham
3. Salmond
4. Holland.

Answer: (c)

82. Which of the following actions can be taken when an issue is made under the provisions of Section 42 of the Companies Act, 2013?

1. An advertisement can be issued in a local newspaper having city coverage
2. The money payable towards subscription can be received in cash
3. The share can be allotted within sixty days of the date of offer
4. The offer can be made to a maximum of fifty people.

Answer: (d)

83. The Sapinda relationship on the line of ascent under the Hindu Law extends:

1. three degree through the father and two degree through the mother
2. four degree through the father and three degree through the mother
3. five degree through the father and three degree through the mother
4. seven degree through the father and five degree through the mother.

Answer: (c)

84. Which of the following provisions of the Indian Constitution have been extended to Jammu and Kashmir state by Presidential Order?

(a) Provisions relating to freedom of trade, commerce and intercourse, services and citizenship.

(b) Provisions relating to Elections.

(c) Provision relating to Financial Emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution of India.

(d) Power of High Courts to issue writs for “”Any other purpose””.

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

1. Only (a)
2. (c) and (d) both
3. (a) and (b) both
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Answer: (c)

85. The prohibition of registration of geographical indication under the GI Act, 1999 contains as many as:

1. four grounds
2. five grounds
3. six grounds
4. seven grounds.

Answer: (d)

86. Which of the following statements correctly reflects the cardinal principle, ‘Actus Non Facit Reum Nisi Mens Sit Rea’?

1. Mens rea is an essential element of a crime and there cannot be a crime without mens rea
2. Criminal liability under Indian law always implies mens rea
3. To constitute a crime there must be actus reus and mens rea
4. Actus reus is not always necessary to constitute a crime.

Answer: (c)

87. Which of the following statement/statements is/are correct?

(a) WTO was established as a result of the culmination of Uruguay Round of GATT.

(b) The new World Trade Organisation (WTO) came into effect on January 1, 1995.

(c) At the time of establishment WTO had 88 members.

(d) The 7th Ministerial Conference of WTO was held in Marrakesh (Morocco) from 30 November to December 2, 2008.

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

1. Only (a)
2. (b) and (c)
3. (a) and (b)
4. (a), (b), (c) and (d).

Answer: (c)

88. In India, ‘the machinery of government is essentially British and the whole collection of British Constitutional Conventions has apparently been incorporated as conventions’ is the observation of:

1. V. Dicey
2. Sir Ivor Jennings
3. A. de Smith
4. Wade and Phillips.

Answer: (b)

89. Which of the following are the chief exponents of the ‘Theory of Consent’ regarding basis of International law?

1. Anzilotti, Triepel, Oppenheim
2. Starke, Smith, Brierly
3. Fawcett, Jellinck, Pollock
4. Kelsen, Hart, Edward Collins.

Answer: (a)

90. Which section of Indian Penal Code deals with solitary confinement?

1. Section 73 of IPC
2. Section 72 of IPC
3. Section 71 of IPC
4. Section 70 of IPC.

Answer: (a)

91. Which of the following Articles provides coverage for the intervention in domestic jurisdiction for the enforcement of human rights?

1. Article 2(5) of UN Charter
2. Article 2(6) of UN Charter
3. Article 2(7) of UN Charter
4. Article 2(8) of UN Charter.

Answer: (c)

92. The absolute grounds for refusal of registration is contained under which section of the Trade Mark Act,1999?

1. Section 7
2. Section 8
3. Section 9
4. Section 10.

Answer: (c)

93. Which of the following is incorrect regarding meaning of ‘Merchantable quality of goods’?

1. the goods are free from patent defects
2. the goods are free from latent defects
3. the goods can be used for the purpose for which they are bought
4. that the goods are marketable at their full value.

Answer: Question Deleted

94. In which of the following case, the court held that, “Divorce is good in law though bad in Theology”?

1. Shah Bano case
2. Bai Tahira case
3. Shamim Ara case
4. Sarabhai case.

Answer: (d)

95. Whoever counterfeits, or knowingly performs, any part of the process of counterfeiting Indian coin under Section 232 by Indian Penal Code shall be punished with:

1. imprisonment which may extend to ten years and fine
2. imprisonment which may extend to seven years and fine
3. imprisonment which may extend to five years and fine
4. imprisonment which may extend to three years and fine.

Answer: (a)

96. Which one of the following jurists is not related to Historical school?

1. Savigny
2. Ehrlich
3. Henry Maine
4. Hegel.

Answer: (b)

97. Judges do not make law, but only declare what has always been law. This statement is of:

1. Salmond
2. Blackstone
3. Willis
4. Allen

Answer: (d)

98. A Hindu Contracting Second Marriage during pendency of appeal against the decree of divorce is:

1. Valid
2. Invalid
3. Factum valid
4. Void.

Answer: (c)

99. I think adherence to precedent should be the rule and not the exception. This statement is of:

1. Keeton
2. Blackstone
3. Cardozo
4. Paton.

Answer: (b)

100. Judicial Review of an administrative action means:

1. review by the Parliament
2. review by the Government
3. review by the Legislative Assembly
4. review by the Judiciary.

Answer: (d)

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