CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions January 2026

Legal Bites presents the CLAT PG Mock Legal Practice Questions – January 2026, thoughtfully curated to refine your preparation strategy and strengthen your legal aptitude for the upcoming examination. In an increasingly competitive environment marked by evolving question patterns, consistent practice with high-quality, judgment-based questions is essential.

I. While Hobbes utilized Natural Law to uphold the status quo in society, Locke embraced it as a tool for change. Natural Law is the fundamental foundation for the ideas of “due process” in the United States and England, as well as the “rule of law” in India. In addition to being established by the same reason that governs the world, natural law is also the Law of Reason because it is understood and addressed by man's reasoning nature. Additionally, it is also known as common law or universal law because it is not specific to Athens and has universal legitimacy, being the same everywhere and binding on all peoples. Finally, it is now referred to as "moral law" since it expresses the fundamentals of morality. The Natural Law holds that there can be no strict division between the "is" and "ought" components of law and there is needless confusion in the legal industry because of this bifurcation. Natural Law proponents contend that since concepts like "justice," "right," and "reason" are derived from the Law of Nature and human nature, they cannot entirely be excluded from the scope of the law.

It is widely regarded as the perfect source of law with unchanging contents. (203 words)

[Extracted from Antara Roy, “Natural Law Theory and Its Applicability in India,” International Journal of Law Management & Humanities, Vol. 6, Issue 6 (2023)].

1. The distinction between Thomas Hobbes and John Locke regarding Natural Law, as reflected in the passage, is that:

A. Hobbes rejected Natural Law, while Locke accepted it

B. Hobbes used Natural Law to preserve the existing social order, whereas Locke treated it as an instrument of reform

C. Hobbes emphasised moral law, while Locke focused on positive law

D. Hobbes applied Natural Law universally, while Locke limited it to England

Correct Answer: B

2. According to the passage, Natural Law forms the conceptual foundation of which of the following legal principles?

A. Rule of Law in England and Due Process in India

B. Judicial Review in the United States and India

C. Separation of Powers in India and England

D. Due Process in the United States and England, and Rule of Law in India

Correct Answer: D

3. Natural Law is described as the “Law of Reason” primarily because:

A. It is enacted by rational legislators

B. It evolves through judicial precedent

C. It is understood and applied through human reasoning

D. It is codified through constitutional texts

Correct Answer: C

4. According to Natural Law theorists, concepts such as justice, right, and reason:

A. Are external to the legal system

B. Are purely political constructs

C. Cannot be completely excluded from the concept of law

D. Are subordinate to sovereign will

Correct Answer: C

5. Natural Law, as described in the passage, is best characterised as:

A. A procedural legal framework

B. A morally grounded law of nature

C. A system dependent on state enforcement

D. A historically contingent doctrine

Correct Answer: B

II. Law is an important tool of social transformation. It is often described as the vehicle of social change. This is the basic idea upon which the Sociological school of jurisprudence rests upon. The sociological approach to study is concerned with how law affects the society and vice-versa. It focuses on the study relating to how social developments affects legal institutions, law as a form of social control, the interaction between legal cultures and how law drives social change. As far as India is considered, the Sociological school of jurisprudence has much relevance in terms of realizing the social and economic goals. In each field of life, reforms are brought about by the law makers of the Country. To the same the judiciary in India had contributed a lot. Judicial activism in India has done a tremendous job in bringing about positive changes in the various spheres of life.

[Extracted from Sreelakshmi K. S., “Recent Judgements Upholding Sociological Jurisprudence,” Indian Journal of Integrated Research in Law, Vol. III, Issue III]

6. The Sociological School of Jurisprudence primarily views law as:

A. A command of the sovereign backed by sanction

B. A body of moral principles derived from nature

C. An instrument of social control and social change

D. A closed logical system of rules

Correct Answer: C

7. Roscoe Pound’s concept of “Social Engineering” primarily involves:

A. Mechanical application of statutes

B. Balancing competing social interests through law

C. Absolute supremacy of individual liberty

D. Elimination of judicial discretion

Correct Answer: B

8. Which thinker emphasised that the “centre of gravity of legal development lies not in legislation or judicial decisions but in society itself”?

A. Roscoe Pound

B. Leon Duguit

C. Eugen Ehrlich

D. Savigny

Correct Answer: C

9. According to Roscoe Pound, the Interest Theory classifies interests into how many categories?

A. Two

B. Three

C. Four

D. Five

Correct Answer: B

10. Leon Duguit, who propounded the Theory of Social Solidarity, was a:

A. French jurist

B. German jurist

C. English jurist

D. American jurist

Correct Answer: A

III. International law derives its authority from multiple sources rather than a single legislative body, with its foundations commonly identified through Article 38 of the Statute of the International Court of Justice. The principal sources include international treaties, customary international law based on consistent state practice accepted as legally binding (opinio juris), and general principles of law recognized across legal systems, while judicial decisions and scholarly writings serve as subsidiary means for determining legal rules. Treaties play a dominant role in modern international lawmaking, often codifying or generating norms that may later evolve into customary law. Customary international law binds all states irrespective of consent, provided its essential elements are satisfied. The framework also recognises peremptory norms (jus cogens) that override conflicting treaties and customs, and relies on general principles of law to fill gaps and prevent legal uncertainty. Together, these sources reflect the decentralized, consent-based, and evolving character of the international legal system.

[Summary of the article titled “International Law Sources: Primary & Secondary,” by Himanshu Agarwal International Journal of Law Management & Humanities, Vol. 4, Issue 2 (2021), pp. 1770–1796, ISSN 2581-5369]

11. International law is described as a decentralized legal system primarily because:

A. It lacks enforcement mechanisms

B. It does not recognise customary practices

C. It does not derive authority from a single legislative body

D. It is enforced only through international courts

Correct Answer: C

12. Which of the following is not classified as a primary source of international law under Article 38 of the ICJ Statute?

A. International treaties

B. Customary international law

C. General principles of law

D. Scholarly writings

Correct Answer: D

13. The term opinio juris sive necessitatis primarily refers to:

A. Consistent repetition of state conduct

B. Judicial recognition of customary law

C. A state’s belief that a practice is legally obligatory

D. Moral justification for international conduct

Correct Answer: C

14. Jus cogens norms are distinctive because they:

A. Apply only during armed conflict

B. Require unanimous state consent

C. Can be overridden by later treaties

D. Override conflicting treaties and customary rules

Correct Answer: D

15. Treaties are considered dominant in modern international law primarily because they:

A. Replace the need for judicial decisions

B. Eliminate the relevance of customary law

C. Codify existing norms and may generate new customary rules

D. Automatically bind non-signatory states

Correct Answer: C

IV. Historically, it can be said that the first attempt to codify international law by an international organization was the League of Nations Codification Conference of 1930, that was an enterprise of unifying international law through a committee of experts. So, when the United Nations substituted the League of Nations after World War II, it was only natural that this goal remained pursued, and that’s why the ICL was created.

The ILC is composed of thirty-four jurists, elected directly in the UN General Assembly, that organize and draft pieces of legislation that were already existent in the costumery form, on one hand, and develop legislation when there’s not uniformity in the international scenario. They do not represent member States in any way but propose new drafts of law accordingly to their own conscience and opinion. However, the composition of the ILC is divided proportionally to the different legal regions in the world, so that the work of the Commission translates the plurality of legal doctrines worldwide.

The work of the Commission can be a piece of legislation ready to be source of law or can indicate that the General Assembly approve some document if it needs another type of legal form, like a resolution or even a convention. The form in which the Commission make its drafts public are through their Yearbook of the International Law Commission and other various documents.

[Extracted from Pedro Keil, The Role of the UN International Law Commission in the Codification of International Law, International Journal of Innovative Science and Research Technology, Vol. 5, Issue 6 (June 2020), ISSN 2456-2165]

16. The first organized attempt to codify international law under an international organization was made through which body?

A. United Nations General Assembly

B. League of Nations Codification Conference of 1930

C. International Court of Justice

D. Hague Peace Conferences

Correct Answer: B

17. The League of Nations Codification Conference of 1930 primarily aimed at:

A. Creating binding international conventions

B. Establishing an international court

C. Unifying international law through expert committees

D. Enforcing sanctions on states

Correct Answer: C

18. After World War II, which organization continued the codification objective earlier pursued by the League of Nations?

A. International Court of Justice

B. International Labour Organization

C. World Trade Organization

D. United Nations

Correct Answer: D

19. The International Law Commission consists of how many members?

A. 15

B. 25

C. 30

D. 34

Correct Answer: D

20. Members of the International Law Commission are elected by:

A. The UN General Assembly

B. The International Court of Justice

C. The Secretary-General of the UN

D. The Security Council

Correct Answer: A

V. Having heard learned counsels appearing for the parties, it is to be noted that a pending landlord and tenant dispute cannot be the basis for depriving electricity, which is a basic amenity. Admittedly, there are pending disputes between the petitioner and respondent nos. 2 and 3. However, the fact of the matter is that the petitioner is in possession of the property in question, lawfully, and till the time, there is any eviction order passed against the petitioner by a Court of law, the possession of the petitioner cannot be said to be unlawful.

It is to be noted that electricity is a basic necessity and an integral part of right to life under Article 21 of the Constitution of India. Thus, as long as the petitioner is in possession of the property in question, he cannot be deprived of the same.

[Extracted from Shri Maiki Jain v. BSES Rajdhani Power Ltd. & Ors., W.P.(C) No. 18953 of 2025]

21. The Court’s reasoning primarily rests on which constitutional principle?

A. Right to property under Article 300A

B. Protection against arbitrary state action under Article 14

C. Right to life including basic amenities under Article 21

D. Freedom to reside under Article 19(1)(e)

Correct Answer: C

22. Which of the following propositions is NOT supported by the passage?

A. Ownership is a prerequisite for access to electricity

B. Lawful possession continues until judicial eviction

C. Electricity forms part of dignified human existence

D. Deprivation of electricity affects Article 21 rights

Correct Answer: A

23. According to the passage, possession of the petitioner can be termed “unlawful” only when:

A. A landlord–tenant dispute is pending

B. An eviction order is passed by a court of law

C. Electricity dues remain unpaid

D. Ownership is disputed by the landlord

Correct Answer: B

24. The passage implicitly distinguishes between:

A. Civil and criminal liability

B. Ownership and possession

C. Statutory and contractual rights

D. Public and private law remedies

Correct Answer: B

25. The Court’s emphasis on “till the time there is any eviction order” highlights which legal principle?

A. Presumption of innocence

B. Principle of lis pendens

C. Doctrine of estoppel

D. Due process of law

Correct Answer: D

VI. The eradication of dowry remains an urgent constitutional and social imperative. Defined under Section 2 of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 as “any property or valuable security given or agreed to be given directly or indirectly” in connection with a marriage, the practice was sought to be eliminated through legislative intervention. Yet, despite statutory prohibition, dowry continues to persist in society, often camouflaged as voluntary “gifts” or legitimised through entrenched social expectations. At its core, this practice stands in stark opposition to the constitutional ethos of justice, liberty, and fraternity, and more specifically violates Article 14 of the Constitution, which guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. A system that commodifies women and subjects them to financial extraction perpetuates structural discrimination and corrodes constitutional morality.

While adjudicating the present appeal, the Supreme Court reaffirmed a consistent and settled line of precedent governing offences relating to dowry death and cruelty against married women. The Court reiterated the essential ingredients of Section 304-B of the Indian Penal Code, as crystallised in Pawan Kumar v. State of Haryana (1998) 3 SCC 309, particularly emphasising the requirement that cruelty or harassment for dowry must have occurred “soon before her death.”

The interpretation of the expression “soon before” was further reinforced by reference to Ashok Kumar v. State of Haryana (2010) 12 SCC 350, wherein the Court clarified that the phrase does not imply immediacy but embodies a relative and contextual test, requiring the existence of a proximate and reasonable nexus between dowry-related cruelty and the death. The statutory presumption under Section 113-B of the Evidence Act was restated with reliance on Devender Singh v. State of Uttarakhand (2022) 13 SCC 82, underscoring that once dowry-linked cruelty is established, the burden shifts to the accused to rebut the presumption.

In relation to Section 498-A IPC, the Court reiterated the protective and remedial object of the provision, as explained in Aluri Venkata Ramana v. Aluri Thirupathi Rao (2024 SCC OnLine SC 5473), clarifying that “cruelty” is not confined to dowry demands alone but encompasses both mental and physical abuse inflicted upon a married woman.

The scope and underlying purpose of the Dowry Prohibition Act, 1961 were further reaffirmed through reliance on S. Gopal Reddy v. State of A.P. (1996) 4 SCC 596, wherein the Court underscored that even the mere demand for dowry constitutes an offence, irrespective of whether such demand culminates in actual transfer of property.

Collectively, these precedents formed the doctrinal backbone of the Court’s reasoning, enabling it to restore the conviction and simultaneously issue reform-oriented directions aimed at reinforcing the legislative intent to eradicate dowry and protect the dignity and equality of women within the constitutional framework.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from State of Uttar Pradesh v. Ajmal Beg & Anr., Criminal Appeal Nos. 132–133 of 2017]

26. Which of the following best captures the doctrinal significance of Pawan Kumar v. State of Haryana (1998) in dowry death jurisprudence?

A. It introduced Section 304-B IPC

B. It diluted the requirement of proving cruelty

C. It crystallised the essential ingredients of dowry death

D. It limited the application of Section 113-B Evidence Act

Correct Answer: C

27. Which of the following best explains why dowry often evades statutory prohibition despite criminalisation?

A. Social legitimisation through “gifts” and customs

B. Ambiguity in statutory definitions

C. Judicial reluctance to convict

D. Lack of punishment under IPC

Correct Answer: A

28. Section 498-A of the IPC has been substantively carried forward in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 as:

A. Section 84 BNS

B. Section 85 BNS

C. Section 86 BNS

D. Section 88 BNS

Correct Answer: B

29. In light of S. Gopal Reddy v. State of A.P., which statement is legally accurate?

A. Dowry offence is complete only upon receipt of property

B. Dowry offence requires proof of monetary loss

C. Dowry offence requires coercion or threat

D. Mere demand for dowry constitutes an offence

Correct Answer: D

30. The passage suggests that dowry often survives statutory prohibition primarily because:

A. Courts have diluted penal consequences

B. Social practices camouflage dowry as voluntary gifts

C. The Dowry Prohibition Act lacks penal sanctions

D. Constitutional remedies are unavailable

Correct Answer: B

VII. The Supreme Court categorically held that parity with a co-accused cannot be the sole ground for granting bail, particularly in serious offences such as murder. While bail is generally the rule and jail the exception, courts are duty-bound to examine the specific role attributed to each accused, the gravity of the offence, and surrounding circumstances. Mechanical reliance on parity, without analysing the accused’s position in the crime, amounts to a non-application of mind and renders the bail order vulnerable to appellate interference.

The Court clarified that parity does not mean equality merely because multiple accused are charged in the same crime. Parity is linked to the “position” of the accused in the offence, particularly the role played—whether as an instigator, shooter, facilitator, or passive participant. Two accused cannot claim parity if their roles differ, even if they share a common intention under Section 149 IPC. Thus, parity must be role-centric, not offence-centric.

[Extracted with edits from Sagar v. State of Uttar Pradesh & Anr., Criminal Appeal arising out of SLP (Crl.) Nos. 8865–8866 of 2025]

31. The Supreme Court set aside the High Court’s bail order mainly because:

A. Bail was granted despite criminal antecedents

B. Bail was granted solely on parity without examining role differentiation

C. Bail was granted during investigation stage

D. Bail was granted contrary to prosecution objections

Correct Answer: B

32. In Sagar v. State of U.P., the Supreme Court held that parity as a ground for bail must primarily focus on:

A. The nature of offence charged

B. Length of custody undergone

C. Role and position of the accused in the crime

D. Whether a co-accused has already been granted bail

Correct Answer: C

33. The purpose of bail conditions is primarily to:

A. Punish the accused

B. Secure attendance at trial and protect justice

C. Deter future crime

D. Satisfy victim expectations

Correct Answer: B

34. An order granting bail without recording any reasons is:

A. Valid if offence is bailable

B. Valid if accused has no criminal antecedents

C. Irregular but curable

D. Liable to be set aside

Correct Answer: D

35. Presumption of innocence at the bail stage implies that:

A. Accused must be acquitted

B. Detention must be justified by necessity

C. Trial court cannot deny bail

D. Prosecution case is weak

Correct Answer: B

VIII. The Supreme Court in Nil Ratan Kundu and another Vrs. Abhijit Kundu, reported in (2008) 9 SCC 413, while deciding the principle governing the custody of minor child, held as follows:

In our judgment, the law relating to custody of a child is fairly well settled and it is this: in deciding a difficult and complex question as to the custody of a minor, a court of law should keep in mind the relevant statutes and the rights flowing therefrom. But such cases cannot be decided solely by interpreting legal provisions. It is a human problem and is required to be solved with human touch. A court while dealing with custody cases, is neither bound by statutes nor by strict rules of evidence or procedure nor by precedents. In selecting proper guardian of a minor, the paramount consideration should be the welfare and well-being of the child. In selecting a guardian, the court is exercising parens patriae jurisdiction and is expected, nay bound, to give due weight to a child's ordinary comfort, contentment, health, education, intellectual development and favourable surroundings.

[Extracted from Ramakanta Majhi v. Sanatan Majhi & Anr., GUAP No. 03 of 2022]

36. The Supreme Court observed that custody disputes are primarily:

A. Questions of statutory interpretation

B. Questions governed by strict rules of evidence

C. Human problems requiring a human touch

D. Matters of parental entitlement

Correct Answer: C

37. The concept of parens patriae primarily implies that the court:

A. Enforces parental authority

B. Protects State interests

C. Applies personal law strictly

D. Acts as a guardian of those unable to protect themselves

Correct Answer: D

38. Which statement best reflects the Court’s approach in custody matters?

A. Welfare of the child supersedes all other considerations

B. Statutory guardianship prevails unless exceptional circumstances exist

C. Welfare must be balanced equally with parental rights

D. Biological relationship is decisive

Correct Answer: A

39. Assertion (A): Courts deciding custody matters are not strictly bound by procedural law.

Reason (R): Custody disputes involve determination of criminal liability.

Choose the correct option:

A. Both A and R are true, and R explains A

B. Both A and R are true, but R does not explain A

C. A is true, but R is false

D. A is false, but R is true

Correct Answer: C

40. The proviso to Section 6(a) of the Hindu Minority and Guardianship Act, 1956 states that custody of a minor who has not completed five years of age shall ordinarily be with:

A. Father

B. Mother

C. Paternal grandparents

D. Court-appointed guardian

Correct Answer: B

IX. "In the year 1970, Duli Chand had availed a loan of Rs. 20,000/- from New Bank of India, i.e., the respondent no. 6, to purchase a tractor, and in lieu thereof he had mortgaged his property admeasuring 116 Kanals 13 marlas (hereinafter, “the mortgaged property”), vide a registered Mortgage Deed dated 06.06.1970. However, it is to be noted that this appeal pertains to only a portion of the aforesaid mortgaged property, more particularly, a parcel of land admeasuring 24 Kanals 11 marlas (hereinafter, “the suit property”)

Owing to his failure in repaying the entire loan amount, on 04.06.1982, the respondent no. 6-bank instituted a suit before the Sub-Judge, 1st Class, Faridabad, being Suit No. 151 of 1982, for recovery of the due amount of Rs. 15,529/- and in the event of default in repayment, the respondent no. 6-bank prayed for foreclosure and sale of the aforesaid mortgaged property."

[Extracted from Danesh Singh & Ors. v. Har Pyari (Dead) through LRs & Ors., Arising out of SLP(C) No. 14461 of 2019]

41. In Danesh Singh & Ors. v. Har Pyari (Dead) Thr. LRs. & Ors., the mortgaged property was originally offered as security for a loan obtained by Duli Chand from New Bank of India. Which legal doctrine primarily determines whether subsequent transferees of that property acquire rights unaffected by existing proceedings?

A. Doctrine of Nemo Debet Esse Judex in Sua Causa

B. Doctrine of Lis Pendens

C. Doctrine of Res Judicata

D. Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel

Correct Answer: B

42. Which of the following is NOT a consequence of a valid mortgage under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (TPA)?

A. Transfer of ownership to mortgagee

B. Creation of a security interest

C. Right to seek foreclosure on default

D. Right to sale through court decree

Correct Answer: A

43. The right of a mortgagor to redeem the mortgaged property is known as:

A. Right of foreclosure

B. Right of sale

C. Right of redemption

D. Right of re-entry

Correct Answer: C

44. The mortgage in favour of the bank was created through which instrument?

A. Oral mortgage

B. Equitable mortgage by deposit of title deeds

C. Registered Mortgage Deed

D. Charge created by court order

Correct Answer: C

45. Foreclosure under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 (TPA) results in:

A. Sale of mortgaged property

B. Extinguishment of the mortgagor’s right of redemption

C. Transfer of ownership to mortgagee without court intervention

D. Automatic possession to mortgagee

Correct Answer: B

X. The acts attributed to the accused, as described by the victim, clearly amount to “sexual assault” within the meaning of Section 7 of the Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012 (POCSO Act), as they involve physical contact accompanied by clear and deliberate sexual intent. The act of catching hold of the hand of a minor child, coupled with an offer of money and an invitation to engage in sexual activity, unmistakably manifests sexual intent and squarely satisfies the statutory ingredients of the offence. Consequently, the requirements of Section 8 of the POCSO Act stand fully met.

The conduct of the accused also attracts the provisions of Sections 354 and 354-A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860, which criminalise outraging the modesty of a woman and sexual harassment, respectively. The Hon’ble Supreme Court, in Raju Pandurang Mahale v. State of Maharashtra, (2004) 4 SCC 371, has authoritatively expounded the essential ingredients of Section 354 IPC.

Further, Section 42 of the POCSO Act mandates that where an act constitutes an offence under both the POCSO Act and the IPC, the offender shall be punished under the law prescribing the greater punishment. Since Section 8 of the POCSO Act prescribes a minimum sentence of three years, which is more stringent than the punishment under Section 354-A IPC, the Trial Court was justified in invoking Section 42 and imposing punishment under Section 8 of the POCSO Act.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sheikh Rafique Sk. Gulab v. State of Maharashtra, Criminal Appeal No. 772 of 2019]

46. Which of the following acts does NOT constitute “sexual harassment” under Section 354-A(1) of the Indian Penal Code, 1860 / Section 75 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023?

A. Physical contact involving unwelcome sexual overtures

B. Demand for sexual favours

C. Making sexually coloured remarks

D. Attempt to outrage modesty without sexual overtones

Correct Answer: D

47. If a man makes repeated sexually coloured remarks without physical contact, the maximum punishment prescribed is:

A. Rigorous imprisonment up to three years

B. Simple imprisonment up to three years, or with fine, or with both

C. Imprisonment of either description up to one year, or with fine, or with both

D. Fine only

Correct Answer: C

48. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the essence of a woman’s modesty lies in her sex?

A. Aman Kumar v. State of Haryana

B. State of Punjab v. Major Singh

C. Ramkripal v. State of Madhya Pradesh

D. Tarkeshwar Sahu v. State of Bihar

Correct Answer: B

49. Which of the following acts, as described in the passage, was held to clearly manifest sexual intent?

A. Speaking to the minor in a public place

B. Touching the minor’s shoulder accidentally

C. Catching hold of the hand of the minor coupled with an offer of money

D. Following the minor without interaction

Correct Answer: C

50. Why was punishment imposed under Section 8 of the POCSO Act instead of Section 354-A IPC?

A. Section 354-A IPC is non-cognizable

B. Section 8 POCSO prescribes a higher minimum sentence

C. Section 354-A IPC is compoundable

D. POCSO offences exclude IPC application

Correct Answer: B

XI. Section 125 of Cr.P.C. (Section 144 of BNSS) states that a husband with sufficient means is liable to provide maintenance to his wife who cannot support herself. However, the wife's right to claim maintenance is not absolute. SubSection (4) of Section 125 (Section 144(4) of BNSS) clearly specifies that a wife living in adultery is not entitled to claim maintenance. The dictum laid down in all the decisions cited by the learned counsel for the petitioner and referenced earlier is that a single instance of adulterous conduct is not enough to disqualify a wife from claiming maintenance; rather, there must be evidence of continuous adulterous behaviour. In brief, there should be proof that the wife is habitually engaging in an adulterous life with the partner to invoke the provisions of subsection (4) of Section 125 of Cr.P.C. This legal principle is well settled. The key issue, however, is that when a husband defends proceedings under Section 125 of Cr.P.C. (Section 144 of BNSS) by claiming that the wife is living in adultery, what level of proof is required to establish that the wife is indeed living in adultery?

[Extracted from Jinesh C.R. v. Aswathy P.R., RPFC NO. 100 of 2023]

51. When a husband raises the defence under Section 125(4) CrPC/Section 144(4) BNSS that the wife is “living in adultery”, the burden of proof lies on:

A. The wife, to disprove allegations of adultery

B. The husband, to prove a single act of infidelity

C. The husband, to establish continuous adulterous conduct

D. The Court, to inquire suo motu into the wife’s character

Correct Answer: C

52. The requirement that adultery must be habitual rather than isolated reflects which judicial concern?

A. Protection of matrimonial sanctity

B. Avoidance of character assassination

C. Ensuring evidentiary convenience

D. Upholding the object of maintenance law

Correct Answer: D

53. A wife is found frequently staying at the residence of another man. There is no proof of cohabitation or a sexual relationship. In such a case, the court should:

A. Presume adultery

B. Deny maintenance automatically

C. Require proof of habitual adulterous conduct

D. Treat frequent visits as sufficient evidence

Correct Answer: C

54. The interpretation of “living in adultery” under Section 125(4) CrPC remains unchanged under Section 144(4) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 because:

A. BNSS repeals the maintenance law

B. Judicial interpretation continues to apply

C. Adultery is no longer relevant

D. BNSS alters the standard of proof

Correct Answer: B

55. Assertion (A): Circumstantial evidence is sufficient to prove adultery if it logically leads to that conclusion.

Reason (R): Courts may draw reasonable inferences from a chain of proven circumstances.

Choose the correct answer:

(A) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason correctly explains Assertion

(B) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason does not explain Assertion

(C) Assertion is true but Reason is false

(D) Assertion is false but Reason is true

Correct Answer: A

XII. These appeals are directed against the judgment and order dated 24 November 2022 passed by the High Court at Calcutta in CRR No. 489 of 2019, and the subsequent order dated 31 January 2024 passed in the application for modification being CRAN No. 9 of 2023. The appeals have been preferred at the instance of the appellant, Rousanara Begum, who is the former wife of Respondent No. 1 – S.K. Salahuddin.

The short question that arises for consideration in these appeals is whether goods and articles given to a daughter at the time of her marriage by her father, or to the bridegroom, can, by application of law, be directed to be returned to the daughter when the marriage has ended in divorce.

The parties were married on 28 August 2005. Differences arose shortly thereafter, and the appellant left her matrimonial home on 7 May 2009. Subsequently, she filed an application under Section 125 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, and also initiated criminal proceedings under Section 498-A of the Indian Penal Code, 1860. The marriage ultimately culminated in a decree of divorce dated 13 December 2011.

After the dissolution of the marriage, the appellant approached the court under Section 3 of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, seeking the return of marriage-related articles and monetary benefits, claiming a total amount of ₹17,67,980/-.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Rousanara Begum v. S.K. Salahuddin (2025 INSC 1375)]

56. The appellant sought return of marriage-related articles by invoking which statutory provision?

A. Section 125, Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973

B. Section 27, Hindu Marriage Act, 1955

C. Section 3, Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986

D. Section 406, Indian Penal Code, 1860

Correct Answer: C

57. Under Section 3 of the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986, the Supreme Court held that a divorced Muslim woman is entitled to:

A. Only Mehr payable at the time of marriage

B. Maintenance for life irrespective of remarriage

C. Reasonable and fair provision, maintenance, and properties given at or after marriage

D. Return of all gifts exchanged between both families

Correct Answer: C

58. The Supreme Court rejected the argument that:

A. Divorce extinguishes all financial claims of the wife

B. Mehr is recoverable only through civil suit

C. Proceedings under Section 3 are quasi-criminal

D. The Act applies only to talaq divorces

Correct Answer: A

59. What was the total value of the claim made by the appellant in her application?

A. Rs. 8 lakhs

B. Rs. 17,67,980

C. Rs. 10 lakhs

D. Rs. 7,00,000

Correct Answer: B

60. Which of the following best describes the procedural history of the case?

A. The appellant directly approached the Supreme Court.

B. The High Court granted full relief which was upheld by the Supreme Court.

C. The case travelled from CJM to Sessions to High Court before reaching the Supreme Court.

D. The respondent appealed from the CJM’s order.

Correct Answer: C

XIII. Above all, the law accords a strong presumption in favour of the legitimacy of a child born during the subsistence of a valid marriage. In the present case, it is undisputed that the second plaintiff was born after the marriage between the first plaintiff and late Krishnan. Merely because the birth took place within four months of the marriage does not dilute this presumption. Section 112 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 raises a conclusive presumption of legitimacy, unless it is conclusively proved that the parties to the marriage had no access to each other at any time when the child could have been begotten.

For the application of Section 112, it is not essential that access must be confined strictly to the post-marital period. The provision stands displaced only upon strict proof of non-access at the relevant time of conception, and not merely on the basis of the short interval between marriage and birth.

The Supreme Court, in Kamti Devi v. Poshi Ram (AIR 2001 SC 2226), authoritatively clarified the scope of this presumption in the following terms:

“The Section, when stretched to its widest compass, is capable of encompassing even the birth of a child on the very next day of a valid marriage within the range of conclusiveness regarding the paternity of the mother’s husband; however, it excludes a birth occurring even a day after the expiry of 280 days from the dissolution of that marriage.”

Thus, unless the stringent standard of proving non-access is satisfied, the statutory presumption under Section 112 remains absolute and binding.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Sujatha Krishnan & Ors. v. Radha Mohandas & Ors. (RFA No. 290 of 2019)]

61. Section 116 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, 2023 creates a conclusive presumption relating to:

A. Validity of marriage

B. Legitimacy of a child born during subsistence of marriage

C. Adoption

D. Guardianship

Correct Answer: B

62. Opinion as to relationship expressed through conduct is admissible under Section 50 IEA, which corresponds to Section 44 BSA, when:

A. The opinion is based on hearsay

B. The person has special knowledge and conduct is proved

C. The conduct is documented officially

D. The opinion is expressed by a lawyer

Correct Answer: B

63. A legitimate child of a Hindu male dying intestate is entitled to inherit under which category of heirs?

A. Class II heirs

B. Agnates

C. Cognates

D. Class I heirs

Correct Answer: D

64. A child born exactly one day after the expiry of 280 days from the dissolution of marriage would be:

A. Covered by the presumption under Section 112 IEA

B. Covered if access is proved

C. Excluded from the statutory presumption

D. Legitimate unless DNA evidence proves otherwise

Correct Answer: C

65. Section 32 of Indian Evidence Act (Section 26 of the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam) is an exception to which general rule of evidence?

A. Best evidence rule

B. Rule against hearsay

C. Rule of relevancy

D. Rule of burden of proof

Correct Answer: B

XIV. The translocation of deer, many of whom were zoo-bred and included pregnant and juvenile animals, to tiger-inhabited sanctuaries was carried out without any demonstrated assessment of their survival capabilities or ecological fitness. No material has been placed on record to indicate that these animals possessed the necessary behavioural instincts, predator awareness, or adaptive skills required for survival in such hostile habitats. The photographic and field evidence produced by the petitioner-Society reveals a disturbing pattern...................

In light of the competing assertions and the absence of a verified factual foundation concerning (i) the actual number of deer currently housed in the Deer Park, (ii) the number of deer translocated and their survival status at the release sites, and (iii) the ecological sustainability and prudence of any further translocation, this Court is of the considered view that no further action can be permitted without an independent, scientifically robust evaluation. In our opinion, such an assessment must be undertaken by the Central Empowered Committee (CEC), an expert body constituted by this Court and now functioning under the statutory framework of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986, which is best equipped to examine issues of forest governance, wildlife conservation, and ecological impact.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from New Delhi Nature Society v. Director Horticulture DDA & Ors., 2025 INSC 1358]

66. Which of the following factors most directly triggered the Supreme Court’s intervention in the deer translocation matter?

A. Expiry of the zoo licence in 2021

B. Overpopulation of deer in urban parks

C. Allegations supported by field evidence indicating ecological and welfare violations

D. Objections raised by the Central Zoo Authority

Correct Answer: C

67. The Court relied on which constitutional provisions to emphasise the State’s duty towards wildlife welfare?

A. Articles 14, 19 and 21

B. Articles 21, 48A and 51A(g)

C. Articles 32, 226 and 300A

D. Articles 39, 42 and 47

Correct Answer: B

68. The Central Empowered Committee (CEC) derives its current statutory basis from:

A. Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

B. Forest Conservation Act, 1980

C. Biological Diversity Act, 2002

D. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986

Correct Answer: D

69. According to the Court, which of the following factual aspects lacked a verified foundation on record?

1. Actual number of deer presently housed in the Deer Park

2. Survival status of deer at release sites

3. Ecological prudence of further translocation

Choose the correct option:

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: D

70. India’s participation in the Stockholm Conference primarily obligated it to:

A. Adopt binding emission targets

B. Enact domestic environmental legislation

C. Establish the National Green Tribunal

D. Ratify climate change protocols

Correct Answer: B

XV. "This Court in a catena of decisions has held that the Court cannot substitute its judgment for that of the legislature or its agents as to matters within the province of either. In this respect, we may gainfully refer to the observations of a Constitution Bench of this Court in the case of Shri Sitaram Sugar Co. Ltd. v. Union of India:

Judicial review is not concerned with matters of economic policy. The court does not substitute its judgment for that of the legislature or its agents as to matters within the province of either. The court does not supplant the “feel of the expert” by its own views. When the legislature acts within the sphere of its authority and delegates power to an agent, it may empower the agent to make findings of fact which are conclusive provided such findings satisfy the test of reasonableness. In all such cases, judicial inquiry is confined to the question whether the findings of fact are reasonably based on evidence and whether such findings are consistent with the laws of the land. As stated by Jagannatha Shetty, J. in Gupta Sugar Works [1987 Supp SCC 476, 481] : (SCC p. 479, para 4)

This Court has also held that judicial interference by way of public interest litigation is available only if there is injury to public because of dereliction of constitutional obligations on the part of the Government."

[Extracted from Akola Municipal Corporation & Anr. v. Zishan Hussain Azhar Hussain & Anr., 2025 INSC 1398]

71. The phrase “the court does not supplant the feel of the expert by its own views” signifies that:

A. Courts must defer absolutely to executive decisions

B. Expert opinion overrides constitutional limitations

C. Courts should respect specialised decision-making within the bounds of law

D. Courts cannot examine factual findings of expert bodies

Correct Answer: C

72. Which of the following is NOT a valid ground for judicial review?

A. Illegality

B. Irrationality

C. Procedural impropriety

D. Policy inefficiency

Correct Answer: D

73. The Wednesbury Principle reflects which broader constitutional doctrine?

A. Judicial supremacy

B. Judicial restraint

C. Absolute executive discretion

D. Parliamentary sovereignty

Correct Answer: B

74. Delegation of legislative power is constitutionally valid provided that:

A. Essential legislative functions are not delegated

B. Absolute discretion is conferred on the delegate

C. Judicial review is completely excluded

D. The delegate is part of the judiciary

Correct Answer: A

75. The statement that courts cannot substitute their judgment for that of the legislature primarily reflects which doctrine?

A. Doctrine of proportionality

B. Doctrine of basic structure

C. Doctrine of legitimate expectation

D. Doctrine of separation of powers

Correct Answer: D

XVI. The impugned Award arose from a direct claim filed by the respondent–workman under Section 10(4A) of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 (hereinafter referred to as the “ID Act”) before the learned Labour Court. The respondent asserted that he had been employed with the petitioner–IGL as a Driveway Salesman (DSM) since 26.07.2001, drawing a monthly salary of ₹3,980, and that his services were illegally terminated on 27.09.2005.

It was further alleged that the petitioner failed to pay the respondent’s salary for September 2005, along with bonus and other statutory service benefits, including leave and overtime wages, despite repeated demands. The respondent also stated that he, along with other similarly placed workmen, had earlier raised an industrial dispute bearing ID No. 99/2003 seeking regularisation of services, and another dispute ID No. 66/2003 concerning general demands, both of which were pending adjudication before the Industrial Tribunal at the relevant time.

According to the respondent, during the pendency of the aforesaid disputes, the petitioner–management terminated his services on 27.09.2005 in violation of Section 2(oo) read with Section 25F of the ID Act, rendering the termination illegal and void.

[Extracted with edits from M/s Indraprastha Gas Limited v. Ambrish Kumar, W.P.(C) 3743/2013]

76. The respondent alleged that his services were terminated on which date?

A. 26.07.2001

B. 01.09.2005

C. 27.09.2005

D. 30.09.2005

Correct Answer: C

77. What was the monthly salary claimed by the respondent at the time of alleged termination?

A. ₹3,500

B. ₹3,980

C. ₹4,200

D. ₹5,000

Correct Answer: B

78. Who is competent to prohibit the continuance of a strike or lock-out under Section 10(4A) of the ID Act?

A. The Arbitrator

B. The Labour Court

C. The Industrial Tribunal

D. The Appropriate Government

Correct Answer: D

79. Section 25F of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 deals with:

A. Conditions precedent to retrenchment of workmen

B. Conditions precedent to closure

C. Procedure for lay-off

D. Compensation for termination

Correct Answer: A

80. A Labour Court constituted under the Industrial Disputes Act shall consist of:

A. A bench of two members

B. A bench of three members

C. One person only

D. Such number of persons as notified

Correct Answer: C

XVII. It was submitted that Clause 25, on its true construction, operates as a contingent contract under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872. The first part constitutes a positive covenant for arbitration by an arbitrator appointed by the Managing Director, while the second part provides that if such appointment cannot be made, there shall be no arbitration. Upon the unilateral appointment clause being rendered unenforceable by law, the contingency contemplated in the first part became impossible, triggering the operation of the second part under Section 33 of the Contract Act. Consequently, the clause itself dictates that no arbitration shall take place.

[Extracted from Hindustan Construction Company Ltd. v. Bihar Rajya Pul Nirman Nigam Ltd., Arising out of SLP (C) No. 4211 of 2025]

81. Under Section 31 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, a contingent contract is a contract to:

A. Do or not to do something unconditionally

B. Do or not to do something if some event, collateral to such contract, does or does not happen

C. Perform an act at the will of the promisor

D. Do something upon breach of another contract

Correct Answer: B

82. Which of the following is a classic example of a contingent contract?

A. Sale of goods for a fixed price payable immediately

B. Contract of insurance

C. Promise to pay money on demand

D. Lease deed for a fixed term

Correct Answer: B

83. Section 33 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 deals with:

A. Contingent contracts dependent on the non-happening of an event

B. Contingent contracts dependent on the happening of an event

C. Absolute contracts

D. Void agreements

Correct Answer: A

84. In Clause 25, the first part was characterised as:

A. A negative covenant excluding arbitration

B. A statutory arbitration clause

C. A positive covenant providing arbitration by an arbitrator appointed by the Managing Director

D. An optional arbitration agreement

Correct Answer: C

85. Under the Indian Contract Act, 1872, an agreement not enforceable by law is said to be:

A. Void

B. Illegal

C. Voidable

D. Unlawful

Correct Answer: A

XVIII. The petitioner, Amit Jain, a shareholder of Himalaya Granites Ltd., a listed company, came under regulatory scrutiny after the Bombay Stock Exchange, by its communication dated 10 October 2011, informed the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) of certain transactions in the company’s shares that appeared to violate the SEBI (Substantial Acquisition of Shares and Takeovers) Regulations, 1997 and the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 1992. Acting on this information, SEBI conducted an internal examination of transaction statements of the concerned entities, including the petitioner, for the period from 1 January 2009 to 15 March 2012. Upon review, SEBI observed that the petitioner had allegedly failed to make mandatory disclosures under Regulations 13(3) and 13(5) of the Insider Trading Regulations. These findings were placed before the Group of Assistant General Managers, which, in its meeting dated 20 June 2012, recommended initiation of adjudication proceedings against the petitioner and other entities for the alleged violations.

[Extracted, with edits and revision, from the judgment in Securities and Exchange Board of India v. Amit Jain, LPA No. 412 of 2018 & LPA No. 550 of 2018]

86. The regulatory scrutiny against Amit Jain originated from a communication sent by which authority?

A. Securities and Exchange Board of India

B. Ministry of Corporate Affairs

C. Reserve Bank of India

D. Bombay Stock Exchange

Correct Answer: D

87. Which internal body of SEBI considered the examination findings before adjudication was recommended?

A. Securities Appellate Tribunal

B. Board of SEBI

C. Adjudicating Officer

D. Group of Assistant General Managers

Correct Answer: D

88. The alleged violations reported to SEBI pertained to which set of regulations?

A. SEBI (LODR) Regulations, 2015 and SEBI (PIT) Regulations, 2015

B. SEBI (SAST) Regulations, 1997 and SEBI (PIT) Regulations, 1992

C. Companies Act, 1956 and SEBI Act, 1992

D. SEBI (ICDR) Regulations, 2009 and SEBI (PIT) Regulations, 1992

Correct Answer: B

89. Which of the following powers can SEBI exercise without issuing prior notice, in appropriate cases?

A. Issuance of interim directions

B. Levy of monetary penalty

C. Passing adjudication orders

D. Criminal prosecution

Correct Answer: A

90. Appeals against orders passed by SEBI lie before:

A. High Court

B. Supreme Court

C. Securities Appellate Tribunal

D. National Company Law Tribunal

Correct Answer: C

XIX. “The Paris Agreement (PA) is the second major subsidiary agreement under the UNFCCC. The Paris Agreement defines a collective, long-term objective to hold the GHG-induced increase in temperature to well below 2°C and to pursue efforts to limit the temperature increase to 1.5°C above the pre-industrial level. In the Paris Agreement, for the first time under the UNFCCC, all Parties participate in a common framework with common guidance, though some Parties are allowed limited flexibility. Unlike the Kyoto Protocol which commits only developed countries to specific reduction targets, the Paris Agreement requires all countries to prepare nationally determined contributions (NDCs), take measures to achieve their objectives and report on progress.”

[Extracted from Chibuike E. Madubuegwu et al., “Climate Change and Challenges of Global Interventions: A Critical Analysis of Kyoto Protocol and Paris Agreement,” Journal of Policy and Development Studies, Vol. 13, Issue 1, 2021, pp. 1–10, ISSN 0189-595]

91. Which of the following best distinguishes the Paris Agreement from the Kyoto Protocol?

A. Paris Agreement applies only to developed countries

B. Kyoto Protocol mandates nationally determined contributions

C. Paris Agreement requires participation of all Parties through NDCs

D. Kyoto Protocol focuses on adaptation rather than mitigation

Correct Answer: C

92. The concept of “Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)” under the Paris Agreement signifies:

A. Legally binding emission targets imposed by the UN

B. Voluntary pledges by only developing countries

C. Emission caps enforced through sanctions

D. Country-specific mitigation commitments formulated domestically

Correct Answer: D

93. The temperature targets of the Paris Agreement (2°C / 1.5°C) are most closely associated with which concept?

A. Environmental harm threshold

B. Intergenerational equity

C. Sustainable development

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D

94. Which of the following cases reflects judicial recognition of climate obligations under international law?

A. Trail Smelter Arbitration

B. Urgenda Foundation v. Netherlands

C. Pulp Mills on the River Uruguay

D. Corfu Channel Case

Correct Answer: B

95. The Paris Agreement was adopted at which Conference of the Parties (COP)?

A. COP 18

B. COP 19

C. COP 20

D. COP 21

Correct Answer: D

XX. We may profitably refer to the decisions of the Hon’ble Supreme Court in Municipal Corporation of Delhi v. Female Workers (Muster Roll) & Anr., AIR 2000 SC 1274, and J.K. Cotton Spinning & Weaving Mills Co. Ltd. v. Badri Mali, (1964) 3 SCR 724, the principles of which were considered and applied by this Court in Archana d/o Nanabhau Dahifale v. State of Maharashtra & Anr. (Writ Petition No. 3491 of 2018, decided on 19 October 2018). It was held that the benefits contemplated under the Maternity Benefit Act, 1961 are not confined only to women employed in an “industry” but extend equally to women engaged on muster roll and working on a daily wage basis, and that the denial of maternity benefits to women appointed on contractual or ad hoc basis is impermissible, as several High Courts have consistently granted relief and issued directions for extending maternity benefits to such categories of women employees.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Dr. Vrushali Vasant Yadav v. State of Maharashtra & Ors. (2025:BHC-KOL:3962-DB)]

96. Which of the following best captures the ratio emerging from the passage?

A. Maternity benefits are an intrinsic component of women’s labour rights

B. Temporary employees have limited statutory protection

C. Welfare legislation applies only to organised sector

D. Maternity benefits are employment-status specific

Correct Answer: A

97. Which of the following statutes complements the reasoning in the passage regarding wage protection?

A. Payment of Wages Act, 1936

B. Minimum Wages Act, 1948

C. Code on Wages, 2019

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D

98. The judicial approach reflected in the passage aligns most closely with which constitutional provision?

A. Article 14

B. Article 15(3)

C. Article 21

D. All of the above

Correct Answer: D

99. The decision in J.K. Cotton Spinning & Weaving Mills Co. Ltd. v. Badri Mali is relevant to the passage primarily for:

A. Defining “industry” narrowly

B. Interpreting labour welfare legislation liberally

C. Excluding contractual labour from statutory benefits

D. Upholding managerial prerogative

Correct Answer: B

100. Assertion (A): Temporary employees are entitled to maternity benefits.

Reason (R): Maternity benefit is a statutory and welfare-oriented right not dependent on permanency of service.

A. Both A and R are true and R explains A

B. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A

C. A is true but R is false

D. A is false but R is true

Correct Answer: A

XXI. As regards the rejection of the appellant’s application seeking permission to assist the Court as a substitute for the deceased revisionist, it is sufficient to note that the original revisionist, who was the informant, had alleged that the accused had fabricated a sale deed in order to assert a false claim over his property. The revision petition challenged the order discharging the accused from all offences except cheating. Upon the death of the revisionist, his son, the present appellant, would inherit an interest in the disputed property. In these circumstances, the appellant is clearly a victim of the alleged crime and possesses a direct and vital interest in the outcome of the proceedings. Consequently, the revisional court ought to have permitted him to assist the Court in his capacity as a victim of the offence.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Syed Shahnawaz Ali v. State of Madhya Pradesh & Ors., 2025 INSC 1484]

101. By permitting the appellant to assist the Court despite the death of the original revisionist, the Court implicitly affirmed which maxim?

A. Actio personalis moritur cum persona

B. Ubi jus ibi remedium

C. Volenti non fit injuria

D. Res ipsa loquitur

Correct Answer: B

102. Recognition of the appellant as a “victim” despite not being the original informant aligns with which principle?

A. Res ipsa loquitur

B. Expansive interpretation of locus standi

C. Doctrine of contributory negligence

D. Volenti non fit injuria

Correct Answer: B

103. Had the Court treated the right to assist in revision as strictly personal to the deceased informant, it would have applied which legal principle?

A. Actio personalis moritur cum persona

B. Volenti non fit injuria

C. Ubi jus ibi remedium

D. Res judicata pro veritate accipitur

Correct Answer: A

104. The judgment in Syed Shahnawaz Ali v. State of Madhya Pradesh & Ors. (2025 INSC 1484) was delivered by which Bench of the Supreme Court?

A. Justice B.R. Gavai and Justice Vikram Nath

B. Justice J.B. Pardiwala and Justice Manoj Misra

C. Justice Aniruddha Bose and Justice Sudhanshu Dhulia

D. Justice Sanjay Karol and Justice Manoj Misra

Correct Answer: D

105. Under Section 2(y) of the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita, 2023 (BNSS), a “victim” is a person who has suffered loss or injury due to:

A. Any act or omission of the accused person

B. Any unlawful act of the State

C. Only physical harm caused by the accused

D. Only financial loss caused by the accused

Correct Answer: A

XXII. Further, a coordinate Bench of this Court in Pradeep Bhardwaj v. Priya (2025 SCC OnLine SC 1436) exercised its powers under Article 142 of the Constitution to dissolve the marriage, taking note of the complete breakdown of the marital relationship. The Court found that prolonged estrangement and total emotional detachment had eroded the bond between the parties beyond any possibility of reconciliation. It underscored that the institution of marriage rests on dignity, mutual respect, and companionship, and that where these core foundations stand irretrievably destroyed, insisting on the continuance of the legal relationship serves no worthwhile purpose.

[Extracted with edits and revisions from Nayan Bhowmick v. Aparna Chakraborty (2025 INSC 1436)]

106. According to the Court, which of the following factors primarily justified invoking Article 142 to dissolve the marriage?

A. Non-compliance with statutory divorce grounds

B. Mutual consent of parties

C. Prolonged estrangement and total emotional detachment

D. Pendency of multiple litigations

Correct Answer: C

107. The exercise of power under Article 142 in matrimonial matters, as reflected in the extract, primarily aims to:

A. Override personal laws

B. Do complete justice between the parties

C. Create binding precedent under Article 141

D. Review earlier judicial decisions

Correct Answer: B

108. A decree or order passed by the Supreme Court under Article 142(1) is enforceable:

A. Only within the State where the cause of action arose

B. Only after ratification by Parliament

C. Throughout the territory of India

D. Only by the Supreme Court itself

Correct Answer: C

109. Which of the following is not expressly mentioned in Article 142(2)?

A. Securing attendance of any person

B. Discovery or production of documents

C. Investigation or punishment of contempt of the Supreme Court

D. Issuance of writs for enforcement of fundamental rights

Correct Answer: D

110. The minimum number of judges required to decide a substantial question of constitutional interpretation is:

A. Two

B. Three

C. Five

D. Seven

Correct Answer: C

XXIII. The record further reflects that the petitioner had received substantial amounts towards maturity of LIC policies and recurring deposits upon the demise of both her parents. Her own explanation is that these amounts were reinvested for the benefit of herself and the child. However, the fact remains that such reinvestments would reasonably generate returns in the form of interest, which constitute a source of income that was never disclosed. The respondent-husband has also placed on record the ITR Acknowledgement for AY 2025– 2026, of the petitioner-wife, showing an income of ₹2,04,730/-

[Extracted from Sahiba Sodhi v. State (NCT of Delhi) & Anr., CRL.REV.P. 917/2024]

111. If interest income was earned but not disclosed in the return, the Assessing Officer may invoke which provision for reassessment (subject to conditions)?

A. Section 10

B. Section 44AD

C. Section 139(1)

D. Section 147

Correct Answer: D

112. Which principle is implicitly relied upon by the Court while observing that reinvestments would “reasonably generate returns”?

A. Doctrine of legitimate expectation

B. Presumption of continuity

C. Human probabilities test

D. Doctrine of res judicata

Correct Answer: C

113. Which of the following best reflects the legal issue highlighted in the passage?

A. Taxability of life insurance proceeds

B. Concealment of income through reinvestment

C. Invalidity of ITR acknowledgements

D. Double taxation of inheritance

Correct Answer: B

114. For determining real income, the court may look beyond the ITR because:

A. ITR shows only declared income

B. Returns are confidential

C. Capital receipts are taxable

D. Interest income is presumptive

Correct Answer: A

115. Salary received by an employee from his employer is taxable under:

A. Income from Other Sources

B. Profits and Gains of Business

C. Income from Salaries

D. Income from House Property

Correct Answer: C

XXIV. Arbitrariness under Article 14 arises only when State action is either irrational or founded on considerations extraneous to the purpose of the decision. Viewed from this standpoint, the appellant-State’s decision does not suffer from any constitutional infirmity. The record reflects persistent efforts by the concerned Department to obtain compliance, followed by justified doubts regarding the operational feasibility of devices that lacked certification for compatibility with NIC’s nationally deployed software systems. These factors were directly connected to the object sought to be achieved and cannot be dismissed as fanciful or colourable.

There is equally no basis to infer mala fides. No preferential treatment or hidden agenda accompanied the decision to cancel the tender. On the contrary, the cancellation culminated in a fresh tender process open to all eligible bidders. Where administrative action widens participation and reinforces competitive fairness, judicial interference on grounds of alleged bad faith must necessarily be exercised with great circumspection.

[Extracted with edits and revision from State of Himachal Pradesh & Anr. v. OASYS Cybernetics Pvt. Ltd., arising out of SLP (C) No. 6531 of 2025]

116. Arbitrariness under Article 14, as explained in the passage, arises when State action is:

A. Contrary to administrative convenience

B. Based on subjective satisfaction alone

C. Irrational or guided by extraneous considerations

D. Inconsistent with prior tender conditions

Correct Answer: C

117. The principle that “arbitrariness is antithetical to equality” under Article 14 was firmly established in:

A. Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala

B. E.P. Royappa v. State of Tamil Nadu

C. Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

D. Minerva Mills v. Union of India

Correct Answer: B

118. The concept of “equal protection of the laws” under Article 14 permits:

A. No classification whatsoever

B. Only economic classification

C. Reasonable classification based on intelligible differentia

D. Unequal treatment in all cases

Correct Answer: C

119. Why did the Court hold that the appellant-State’s decision did not suffer from constitutional infirmity?

A. Because the Department showed persistent efforts to secure compliance

B. Because the State has absolute power in tender matters

C. Because courts cannot review tender cancellations

D. Because bidders have no vested rights

Correct Answer: A

120. Which of the following was NOT present in the decision to cancel the tender?

A. Preferential treatment

B. Collateral agenda

C. Fresh tender process open to all eligible bidders

D. Administrative justification based on relevant considerations

Correct Answer: A

For a comprehensive understanding of recent judicial trends and to further strengthen your preparation, you may also refer to Legal Bites’ Year Update 2025 series, covering key judgments across courts, including: